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• div popup inside td

  - by sims

  I have a table with a bunch of cells. (No way! Amazing! :P) Some of the cells have a small div that when you put your mouse over, it gets bigger so you can read all the text. This works well and all. However, since html elements that come later in the document have a higher z-index, when the div gets bigger it is underneath the other divs in the other cells. Some html code: <table> <tr> <td> limited info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> informative long text is here </div> </div> </td> <td> some short info <div style="position: relative;"> <div style="position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; width: 1em; height: 1em;" onmouseover="tooltipshow(this)" onmouseout="tooltiphide(this)"> longer explanation about what is really going on that covers the div up there ^^^. darn! </div> </div> </td> </tr> </table> Some js code: function tooltipshow(obj) { obj.style.width = '30em'; obj.style.zIndex = '100'; } function tooltiphide(obj) { obj.style.width = '1em'; obj.style.zIndex = '20'; } It doesn't matter if I set z-index dynamically to something higher onmouseover. It's like z-index has no affect. I think it has something to do with the table. I've tested this in FF3. When I'm feeling particularly macho, I'll test it in IE.

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

  - by Joey Adams

  One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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• In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' readonly?

  - by Pedro Silva

  I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

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• Across process marhalling problem with an array of points

  - by ElMagn

  Hi All, We have what we think is a marshalling problem with a renderer object when called across process boundaries. The renderer is an ATL COM server with a COM object that implements the IPoints interface defined below: typedef [uuid(B0E01719-005A-427c-B9DD-B42A18E969AE)] struct Point { double X; double Y; } Point; [ object, uuid(3BFECFE3-B4FB-4f14-8257-6E065D02E3B3), helpstring("IPoints Interface"), dual, ] interface IPoints : IDispatch { HRESULT DrawPolyLine([in] long hDC, [in] short count, [in, size_is(count)] Point * points ); // many more like DrawLine } The count parameter represents the number of points and the points parameter represents an array of the actual points. We have two process running, a graphical display process (GDP) and a tabular (grid) display process (TDP). A factory in the GDP, written in C#, creates the renderer and the clients of the renderer in the GDP. When the clients call into the renderer, everything displays correctly. The renderer is created at start up BTW. There is another factory in the TDP, written in VB6, that calls into the factory in the GDP to create the clients. When the clients call into the renderer, only the first point in the array is marshaled correctly, all the other points are garbage. Seems that the rendering works only when the client creation is started from the same process as the renderer. Now, i am not sure what the solution to this problem is. It seems that if we can guarantee that the clients are always created from a thread in the same GDP process as the renderer then the points are marshaled correctly. We tried using a background thread from the Thread Pool in C# and it indeed worked. The problem is that Windows Forms created from the clients stopped working because accessing the form's controls from a thread other than the thread that created the control is not allowed. We might change the calls to access the forms but we have quite a few of them and are trying to look into a different solution that might involve making changes to the renderer. The other problem is that the renderer is legacy code and we can't just change the interface. I am wondering what can we do to the renderer's interface that would help with marshalling from across process calls. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Regards, ElMagn

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• What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

  - by Anthony

  Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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• OpenGL Shader Compile Error

  - by Tomas Cokis

  I'm having a bit of a problem with my code for compiling shaders, namely they both register as failed compiles and no log is received. This is the shader compiling code: /* Make the shader */ Uint size; GLchar* file; loadFileRaw(filePath, file, &size); const char * pFile = file; const GLint pSize = size; newCashe.shader = glCreateShader(shaderType); glShaderSource(newCashe.shader, 1, &pFile, &pSize); glCompileShader(newCashe.shader); GLint shaderCompiled; glGetShaderiv(newCashe.shader, GL_COMPILE_STATUS, &shaderCompiled); if(shaderCompiled == GL_FALSE) { ReportFiler->makeReport("ShaderCasher.cpp", "loadShader()", "Shader did not compile", "The shader " + filePath + " failed to compile, reporting the error - " + OpenGLServices::getShaderLog(newCashe.shader)); } And these are the support functions: bool loadFileRaw(string fileName, char* data, Uint* size) { if (fileName != "") { FILE *file = fopen(fileName.c_str(), "rt"); if (file != NULL) { fseek(file, 0, SEEK_END); *size = ftell(file); rewind(file); if (*size > 0) { data = (char*)malloc(sizeof(char) * (*size + 1)); *size = fread(data, sizeof(char), *size, file); data[*size] = '\0'; } fclose(file); } } return data; } string OpenGLServices::getShaderLog(GLuint obj) { int infologLength = 0; int charsWritten = 0; char *infoLog; glGetShaderiv(obj, GL_INFO_LOG_LENGTH,&infologLength); if (infologLength > 0) { infoLog = (char *)malloc(infologLength); glGetShaderInfoLog(obj, infologLength, &charsWritten, infoLog); string log = infoLog; free(infoLog); return log; } return "<Blank Log>"; } and the shaders I'm loading: void main(void) { gl_FragColor = vec4(1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); } void main(void) { gl_Position = ftransform(); } In short I get From: ShaderCasher.cpp, In: loadShader(), Subject: Shader did not compile Message: The shader Data/Shaders/Standard/standard.vs failed to compile, reporting the error - <Blank Log> for every shader I compile I've tried replacing the file reading with just a hard coded string but I get the same error so there must be something wrong with how I'm compiling them. I have run and compiled example programs with shaders, so I doubt my drivers are the issue, but in any case I'm on a Nvidia 8600m GT. Can anyone help?

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• In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' private?

  - by Pedro Silva

  I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

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• Permanent mutex locking causing deadlock?

  - by Daniel

  I am having a problem with mutexes (pthread_mutex on Linux) where if a thread locks a mutex right again after unlocking it, another thread is not very successful getting a lock. I've attached test code where one mutex is created, along with two threads that in an endless loop lock the mutex, sleep for a while and unlock it again. The output I expect to see is "alive" messages from both threads, one from each (e.g. 121212121212. However what I get is that one threads gets the majority of locks (e.g. 111111222222222111111111 or just 1111111111111...). If I add a usleep(1) after the unlocking, everything works as expected. Apparently when the thread goes to SLEEP the other thread gets its lock - however this is not the way I was expecting it, as the other thread has already called pthread_mutex_lock. I suspect this is the way this is implemented, in that the actice thread has priority, however it causes certain problem in this particular testcase. Is there any way to prevent it (short of adding a deliberately large enough delay or some kind of signaling) or where is my error in understanding? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/time.h> #include <unistd.h> pthread_mutex_t mutex; void* threadFunction(void *id) { int count=0; while(true) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); usleep(50*1000); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); // usleep(1); ++count; if (count % 10 == 0) { printf("Thread %d alive\n", *(int*)id); count = 0; } } return 0; } int main() { // create one mutex pthread_mutexattr_t attr; pthread_mutexattr_init(&attr); pthread_mutex_init(&mutex, &attr); // create two threads pthread_t thread1; pthread_t thread2; pthread_attr_t attributes; pthread_attr_init(&attributes); int id1 = 1, id2 = 2; pthread_create(&thread1, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id1); pthread_create(&thread2, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id2); pthread_attr_destroy(&attributes); sleep(1000); return 0; }

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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• How does Sentry aggregate errors?

  - by Hugo Rodger-Brown

  I am using Sentry (in a django project), and I'd like to know how I can get the errors to aggregate properly. I am logging certain user actions as errors, so there is no underlying system exception, and am using the culprit attribute to set a friendly error name. The message is templated, and contains a common message ("User 'x' was unable to perform action because 'y'"), but is never exactly the same (different users, different conditions). Sentry clearly uses some set of attributes under the hood to determine whether to aggregate errors as the same exception, but despite having looked through the code, I can't work out how. Can anyone short-cut my having to dig further into the code and tell me what properties I need to set in order to manage aggregation as I would like? [UPDATE 1: event grouping] This line appears in sentry.models.Group: class Group(MessageBase): """ Aggregated message which summarizes a set of Events. """ ... class Meta: unique_together = (('project', 'logger', 'culprit', 'checksum'),) ... Which makes sense - project, logger and culprit I am setting at the moment - the problem is checksum. I will investigate further, however 'checksum' suggests that binary equivalence, which is never going to work - it must be possible to group instances of the same exception, with differenct attributes? [UPDATE 2: event checksums] The event checksum comes from the sentry.manager.get_checksum_from_event method: def get_checksum_from_event(event): for interface in event.interfaces.itervalues(): result = interface.get_hash() if result: hash = hashlib.md5() for r in result: hash.update(to_string(r)) return hash.hexdigest() return hashlib.md5(to_string(event.message)).hexdigest() Next stop - where do the event interfaces come from? [UPDATE 3: event interfaces] I have worked out that interfaces refer to the standard mechanism for describing data passed into sentry events, and that I am using the standard sentry.interfaces.Message and sentry.interfaces.User interfaces. Both of these will contain different data depending on the exception instance - and so a checksum will never match. Is there any way that I can exclude these from the checksum calculation? (Or at least the User interface value, as that has to be different - the Message interface value I could standardise.) [UPDATE 4: solution] Here are the two get_hash functions for the Message and User interfaces respectively: # sentry.interfaces.Message def get_hash(self): return [self.message] # sentry.interfaces.User def get_hash(self): return [] Looking at these two, only the Message.get_hash interface will return a value that is picked up by the get_checksum_for_event method, and so this is the one that will be returned (hashed etc.) The net effect of this is that the the checksum is evaluated on the message alone - which in theory means that I can standardise the message and keep the user definition unique. I've answered my own question here, but hopefully my investigation is of use to others having the same problem. (As an aside, I've also submitted a pull request against the Sentry documentation as part of this ;-)) (Note to anyone using / extending Sentry with custom interfaces - if you want to avoid your interface being use to group exceptions, return an empty list.)

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• Multiple word Auttosuggest using Lucene.Net

  - by eric

  I am currently working on an search application which uses Lucene.Net to index the data from the database to Index file. I have a product catalog which has Name, short and long description, sku and other fields. The data is stored in Index using StandardAnalyzer. I am trying to add auto suggestion for a text field and using TermEnum to get all the keyword terms and its score from the Index. But the terms returned are of single term. For example, if I type for co, the suggestion returned are costume, count, collection, cowboy, combination etc. But I want the suggestion to return phrases. For exmaple, if I search for co, the suggestions should be cowboy costume, costume for adults, combination locks etc. The following is the code used to get the suggestions: public string[] GetKeywords(string strSearchExp) { IndexReader rd = IndexReader.Open(mIndexLoc); TermEnum tenum = rd.Terms(new Term("Name", strSearchExp)); string[] strResult = new string[10]; int i = 0; Dictionary<string, double> KeywordList = new Dictionary<string, double>(); do { //terms = tenum.Term(); if (tenum.Term() != null) { //strResult[i] = terms.text.ToString(); KeywordList.Add(tenum.Term().text.ToString(), tenum.DocFreq()); } } while (tenum.Next() && tenum.Term().text.StartsWith(strSearchExp) && tenum.Term().text.Length > 1); var sortedDict = (from entry in KeywordList orderby entry.Value descending select entry); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, double> data in sortedDict) { if (data.Key.Length > 1) { strResult[i] = data.Key; i++; } if (i >= 10) //Exit the for Loop if the count exceeds 10 break; } tenum.Close(); rd.Close(); return strResult; } Can anyone please give me directions to achive this? Thanks for looking into this.

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• Converting generic type to it's base and vice-versa

  - by Pajci

  Can someone help me with the conversion I am facing in enclosed code ... I commented the lines of code, where I am having problem. Is this even the right way to achieve this ... what I am trying to do, is forward responses of specified type to provided callback. public class MessageBinder { private class Subscriber<T> : IEquatable<Subscriber<T>> where T : Response { ... } private readonly Dictionary<Type, List<Subscriber<Response>>> bindings; public MessageBinder() { this.bindings = new Dictionary<Type, List<Subscriber<Response>>>(); } public void Bind<TResponse>(short shortAddress, Action<ZigbeeAsyncResponse<TResponse>> callback) where TResponse : Response { List<Subscriber<TResponse>> subscribers = this.GetSubscribers<TResponse>(); if (subscribers != null) { subscribers.Add(new Subscriber<TResponse>(shortAddress, callback)); } else { var subscriber = new Subscriber<TResponse>(shortAddress, callback); // ERROR: cannot convert from 'List<Subscriber<TResponse>>' to 'List<Subscriber<Response>>' ... tried LINQ Cast operator - does not work either this.bindings.Add(typeof(TResponse), new List<Subscriber<TResponse>> { subscriber }); } } public void Forward<TResponse>(TResponse response) where TResponse : Response { var subscribers = this.GetSubscribers<TResponse>(); if (subscribers != null) { Subscriber<TResponse> subscriber; Type responseType = typeof (TResponse); if (responseType.IsSubclassOf(typeof (AFResponse))) { // ERROR: Cannot convert type 'TResponse' to 'AFResponse' ... tried cast to object first, works, but is this the right way? var afResponse = (AFResponse)response; subscriber = subscribers.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ShortAddress == afResponse.ShortAddress); } else { subscriber = subscribers.First(); } if (subscriber != null) { subscriber.Forward(response); } } } private List<Subscriber<TResponse>> GetSubscribers<TResponse>() where TResponse : Response { List<Subscriber<Response>> subscribers; this.bindings.TryGetValue(typeof(TResponse), out subscribers); // ERROR: How can I cast List<Subscriber<Response>> to List<Subscriber<TResponse>>? return subscribers; } } Thank you for any help :)

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• jQuery reports incorrect element height in Firefox iframe

  - by Augustus

  Here a short test to demonstrate my problem. I have a page that loads an iframe: <html> <head> <title></title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <iframe id="iframe" src="box.html" style="width: 100px; height: 100px"></iframe> <script> $('#iframe').bind('load', function () { var div = $(this).contents().find('div'); alert(div.height()); alert(div.innerHeight()); alert(div.outerHeight()); alert(div.outerHeight(true)); }); </script> </body> </html> The iframe (box.html) contains a single styled div: <html> <head> <title></title> <style> div { height: 50px; width: 50px; margin: 5px; padding: 5px; border: 2px solid #00f; background-color: #f00; } </style> </head> <body> <div></div> </body> </html> The four alerts should return 50, 60, 64 and 74, respectively. This works as expected in Safari and Chrome. In FF 3.5.1, they all return 64. This is wrong. Does anyone know how I can force FF/jQuery to return the correct values?

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• How do I hide the text links over a toggleable horizontal list with background images.

  - by Sivakanesh

  I'm trying to create a UL/LI horizontal list with background images only, with no text link visible. The reason for this is so that when I over over a list item, the background would rollover and when I click on it the current item would toggle. basically it is a horizontal menu with background images that can be toggled; mimicking the job of a radio button. I have done it like this; <div id="options"> <ul id="list"> <li class="active"><a href="#" class="option1 active" id="link1"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option2" id="link2"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option3" id="link3"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> </ul> </div> The CSS for option1, option2 and option3 simply define the background image. #options LI{list-style-type: none; display : inline} a.option1{ background:url('../images/option1.png') no-repeat;} a.option2{ background:url('../images/option2.png') no-repeat;} a.option3{ background:url('../images/option3.png') no-repeat;} a.option1, a.option2, a.option3{ background-position:top; display:inline; width:230px; height:40px; } And the hover & active css part simply sets the background position like so- a.option1:hover, a.option2:hover, a.option3:hover{ background-position:bottom; } a.active{ background-position:bottom !important; } This works fine, however on top of the background I get the words "XXXXX" as text links and I'm struggling to hide them. They are interfering with the hover action and preventing rollover (even if I replace XXXXX with a period or something short). I can't just remove the text from the link as it would hide the whole LI element. I have tried to use display:none; or text-indent:-999px but then the whole UI element becomes invisible. I can't understand what I'm doing wrong. Are you able to help? Thanks

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• Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

  - by Tony A.

  I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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• Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

  - by Greggo

  I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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• How does your team work together in a remote setup?

  - by Carl Rosenberger

  Hi, we are a distributed team working on the object database db4o. The way we work: We try to program in pairs only. We use Skype and VNC or SharedView to connect and work together. In our online Tuesday meeting every week (usually about 1 hour) we talk about the tasks done last week we create new pairs for the next week with a random generator so knowledge and friendship distribute evenly we set the priority for any new tasks or bugs that have come in each team picks the tasks it likes to do from the highest prioritized ones. From Tuesday to Wednesday we estimate tasks. We have a unit of work we call "Ideal Developer Session" (IDS), maybe 2 or 3 hours of working together as a pair. It's not perfectly well defined (because we know estimation always is inaccurate) but from our past shared experience we have a common sense of what an IDS is. If we can't estimate a task because it feels too long for a week we break it down into estimatable smaller tasks. During a short meeting on Wednesday we commit to a workload we feel is well doable in a week. We commit to complete. If a team runs out of committed tasks during the week, it can pick new ones from the prioritized queue we have in Jira. When we started working this way, some of us found that remote pair programming takes a lot of energy because you are so focussed. If you pair program for more than 5 or 6 hours per day, you get drained. On the other hand working like this has turned out to be very efficient. The knowledge about our codebase is evenly distributed and we have really learnt lots from eachother. I would be very interested to hear about the experiences from other teams working in a similar way. Things like: How often do you meet? Have you tried different sprint lengths (one week, two week, longer) ? Which tools do you use? Which issue tracker do you use? What do you do about time zone differences? How does it work for you to integrate new people into the team? How many hours do you usually work per week? How does your management interact with the way you are working? Do you get put on a waterfall with hard deadlines? What's your unit of work? What is your normal velocity? (units of work done per week) Programming work should be fun and for us it usually is great fun. I would be happy about any new ideas how to make it even more fun and/or more efficient.

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• Refactoring Singleton Overuse

  - by drharris

  Today I had an epiphany, and it was that I was doing everything wrong. Some history: I inherited a C# application, which was really just a collection of static methods, a completely procedural mess of C# code. I refactored this the best I knew at the time, bringing in lots of post-college OOP knowledge. To make a long story short, many of the entities in code have turned out to be Singletons. Today I realized I needed 3 new classes, which would each follow the same Singleton pattern to match the rest of the software. If I keep tumbling down this slippery slope, eventually every class in my application will be Singleton, which will really be no logically different from the original group of static methods. I need help on rethinking this. I know about Dependency Injection, and that would generally be the strategy to use in breaking the Singleton curse. However, I have a few specific questions related to this refactoring, and all about best practices for doing so. How acceptable is the use of static variables to encapsulate configuration information? I have a brain block on using static, and I think it is due to an early OO class in college where the professor said static was bad. But, should I have to reconfigure the class every time I access it? When accessing hardware, is it ok to leave a static pointer to the addresses and variables needed, or should I continually perform Open() and Close() operations? Right now I have a single method acting as the controller. Specifically, I continually poll several external instruments (via hardware drivers) for data. Should this type of controller be the way to go, or should I spawn separate threads for each instrument at the program's startup? If the latter, how do I make this object oriented? Should I create classes called InstrumentAListener and InstrumentBListener? Or is there some standard way to approach this? Is there a better way to do global configuration? Right now I simply have Configuration.Instance.Foo sprinkled liberally throughout the code. Almost every class uses it, so perhaps keeping it as a Singleton makes sense. Any thoughts? A lot of my classes are things like SerialPortWriter or DataFileWriter, which must sit around waiting for this data to stream in. Since they are active the entire time, how should I arrange these in order to listen for the events generated when data comes in? Any other resources, books, or comments about how to get away from Singletons and other pattern overuse would be helpful.

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• Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

  - by Todd Hartman

  I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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• Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

  - by Nailuj

  I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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• How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

  - by Chris

  I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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• Multiset container appears to stop sorting

  - by Sarah

  I would appreciate help debugging some strange behavior by a multiset container. Occasionally, the container appears to stop sorting. This is an infrequent error, apparent in only some simulations after a long time, and I'm short on ideas. (I'm an amateur programmer--suggestions of all kinds are welcome.) My container is a std::multiset that holds Event structs: typedef std::multiset< Event, std::less< Event > > EventPQ; with the Event structs sorted by their double time members: struct Event { public: explicit Event(double t) : time(t), eventID(), hostID(), s() {} Event(double t, int eid, int hid, int stype) : time(t), eventID( eid ), hostID( hid ), s(stype) {} bool operator < ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time < rhs.time ); } double time; ... }; The program iterates through periods of adding events with unordered times to EventPQ currentEvents and then pulling off events in order. Rarely, after some events have been added (with perfectly 'legal' times), events start getting executed out of order. What could make the events ever not get ordered properly? (Or what could mess up the iterator?) I have checked that all the added event times are legitimate (i.e., all exceed the current simulation time), and I have also confirmed that the error does not occur because two events happen to get scheduled for the same time. I'd love suggestions on how to work through this. The code for executing and adding events is below for the curious: double t = 0.0; double nextTimeStep = t + EPID_DELTA_T; EventPQ::iterator eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); while ( t < EPID_SIM_LENGTH ) { // Add some events to currentEvents while ( ( *eventIter ).time < nextTimeStep ) { Event thisEvent = *eventIter; t = thisEvent.time; executeEvent( thisEvent ); eventCtr++; currentEvents.erase( eventIter ); eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); } t = nextTimeStep; nextTimeStep += EPID_DELTA_T; } void Simulation::addEvent( double et, int eid, int hid, int s ) { assert( currentEvents.find( Event(et) ) == currentEvents.end() ); Event thisEvent( et, eid, hid, s ); currentEvents.insert( thisEvent ); }

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• How do I find the Next Closest Date to today from a list of dates in a Plist on iOS?

  - by user1173823

  Situation: In short, I have a football schedule. I would like to use a custom cell which provides more info for only the next game date in the schedule. Issue: How do I find only the next closest game in the schedule (for iOS)? I've watched the WWDC 2013 video for "Solutions to Common Date and Time Issues" however this primarily applies to the Mac. I've searched numerous posts here and some are close but not what I need to find ONLY the next date from my list of dates in the schedule. From other posts I see where I can compare two specific dates, but this is not what I want to do. I want to find the next closest date that is equal to or after today from a list of dates. This is where I am now. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Populate the table from the plist NSDictionary *season = _schedContentArray[indexPath.section]; NSArray *schedule = season[@"Schedule"]; NSDictionary *game = schedule[indexPath.row]; //find the closest game date after today's date ?? NSString *gameDateStr = game[@"GameDate"]; NSCalendar *calendar = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; dateFormatter.calendar=calendar; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"MM/dd/yy"]; NSDate *today = [NSDate date]; NSDate *gameDate = [dateFormatter dateFromString:gameDateStr]; //NSString *nextGame = NSLog(@"game date is %@",gameDate); The NSLog returns the game dates (except for the open date): 2013-11-11 16:10:05.979 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-08-31 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.982 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-07 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.985 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is (null) 2013-11-11 16:10:05.987 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.988 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-28 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.990 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-05 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.992 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-12 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.993 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.995 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-26 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.996 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-02 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.998 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-09 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.000 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-14 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.001 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-23 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.003 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-30 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.005 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-12-07 05:00:00 +0000 Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide. This seems like it should be simple but has been fairly frustrating. Let me know if you need additional info.

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• Custom cell in list in Flash AS3

  - by Stian Flatby

  I am no expert in Flash, and I need some quick help here, without needing to learn everything from scratch. Short story, I have to make a list where each cell contains an image, two labels, and a button. List/Cell example: img - label - label - button img - label - label - button As a Java-programmer, I have tried to quicly learn the syntax and visualness of Flash and AS3, but with no luck so far. I have fairly understood the basics of movie clips etc. I saw a tutorial on how to add a list, and add some text to it. So I dragged in a list, and in the code went list.addItem({label:"hello"}); , and that worked ofc. So i thought if I double-clicked the MC of the list, i would get to tweak some things. In there I have been wandering around different halls of cell-renderers etc. I have now come to the point that I entered the CellRenderer_skinUp or something, and customized it to my liking. When this was done, I expected i could use list.addItem(); and get an empty "version" of my cell, with the img, labels and the button. But AS3 expects an input in addItem. From my object-oriented view, I am thinking that i have to create an object of the cell i have made, but i have no luck reaching it.. I tried to go var test:CellRenderer = list.listItem; list.addItem(test); ..But with no luck. This is just for funsies, but I really want to make this work, however not so much that I am willing to read up on ALOT of Flash and AS3. I felt that I was closing in on the prize, but the compiler expected a semicolon after the variable (list.addItem({test:something});). Note: If possible, I do NOT want this: list.addItem({image:"src",label:"text",label"text",button:"text"}); Well.. It actually is what I want, but I would really like to custom-draw everything. Does anyone get what I am trying to do, and has any answers for me? Am I approaching this the wrong way? I have searched the interwebs for custom list-cells, but with no luck. Please, any guiding here is appreciated! Sti

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