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  • PHP's openssl_sign generates different signature than SSCrypto's sign

    - by pascalj
    I'm writing an OS X client for a software that is written in PHP. This software uses a simple RPC interface to receive and execute commands. The RPC client has to sign the commands he sends to ensure that no MITM can modify any of them. However, as the server was not accepting the signatures I sent from my OS X client, I started investigating and found out that PHP's openssl_sign function generates a different signature for a given private key/data combination than the Objective-C SSCrypto framework (which is only a wrapper for the openssl lib): SSCrypto *crypto = [[SSCrypto alloc] initWithPrivateKey:self.localPrivKey]; NSData *shaed = [self sha1:@"hello"]; [crypto setClearTextWithData:shaed]; NSData *data = [crypto sign]; generates a signature like CtbkSxvqNZ+mAN... The PHP code openssl_sign("hello", $signature, $privateKey); generates a signature like 6u0d2qjFiMbZ+... (For my certain key, of course. base64 encoded) I'm not quite shure why this is happening and I unsuccessfully experimented with different hash-algorithms. As the PHP documentation states SHA1 is used by default. So why do these two functions generate different signatures and how can I get my Objective-C part to generate a signature that PHPs openssl_verify will accept? Note: I double checked that the keys and the data is correct!

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  • Apache proxy to Lighttpd: changing $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] in php

    - by watain
    I have a WordPress blog running on lighttpd-1.4.19, listening on at www00:81. On the same host, apache-2.2.11 listens on port 80, which creates a proxy connection from http://blog.mydomain.org:80 to http://blog.mydomain.org:81. The Apache virtualhost looks as follows: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName blog.mydomain.org ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ ProxyPassReverse / http://blog.mydomain.org:81/ </VirtualHost> Using debug.log-request-handling = "enable" I get the following log entry when I browse http://blog.mydomain.org:80 (notice the Host headers): 2010-05-10 08:47:14: (request.c.294) fd: 6 request-len: 853 GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: blog.mydomain.org:81 [...] 2010-05-10 08:47:15: (request.c.294) fd: 8 request-len: 754 GET /wp-content/uploads/2010/01/image.gif?w=280 HTTP/1.1 Host: www00:81 My problem: as far as I know, the PHP environment variable $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] is set to that Host header variable. Unfortunately, WordPress uses that variable in their system to create URLs to pictures on the blog. These URLs won't be accessible behind a firewall of course. How can I force the host header to be blog.mydomain.org instead of blog.mydomain.org:81, respectively www00:81? I already added set server.name = "blog.mydomain.org" to my lighttpd.conf, but this didn't work. Any suggestions are appreciated, thank you.

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  • How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

    - by HDave
    Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

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  • How can I control the height of a ListView in WPF, using a complex DataTemplate with DataTriggers?

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a ListView element with a DataTemplate for each ListViewItem defined as follows. When run, the ListView's height is not collapsed onto the items in the view, which is undesirable behavior: <DataTemplate x:Key="LicenseItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding company}"></TextBlock> <Grid Grid.Row="1" Style="{StaticResource HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle}"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Button Grid.Row="0">ClickIt</Button> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> The second row of the outer grid has a style applied which looks like this. The purpose of the style is to : <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle" > <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Visible" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The ListView renders like this: The desired appearance is this, when none of the elements are selected: ...with, of course, the ListView's height adjusting to accommodate the additional content when the second grid is made visible by selection. What can I do to get the desired behavior?

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • Developing on both Windows & Linux machines simultaneously

    - by Jamie
    Sorry for the bad title (couldn't think of a better way to describe it) I have a windows machine which I do development on. However, I have a new project which needs to interact with a linux system (executing linux commands etc.). So, obviously I can't do development on my windows machine..and I don't wish to code on the dev machine, svn commit and then svn update it on the linux machine. Is there a way where any changes I make on my dev machine will be quickly mirrored to the linux machine? SVN is not a very quick alternative and of course some changes will be very minor. Any ideas? A network share I guess....but that's not very pretty (bit slow too). As fellow developers I would like to know if you've been in a similar situation and how you've resolved it. On a furthernote, I can't just install Ubuntu as my development machine and mirror the commands, applications etc. from the linux machine because it's a cluster 'master' machine and so therefore it has quite a special configuration. Thanks guys! EDIT: I've also thought about having web services on the linux machine and then just calling them from code thus seperating platform development dependency. What do you think about that too? thanks

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  • Working with complex objects in Prevayler commands

    - by alexantd
    The demos included in the Prevayler distribution show how to pass in a couple strings (or something simple like that) into a command constructor in order to create or update an object. The problem is that I have an object called MyObject that has a lot of fields. If I had to pass all of them into the CreateMyObject command manually, it would be a pain. So an alternative I thought of is to pass my business object itself into the command, but to hang onto a clone of it (keeping in mind that I can't store the BO directly in the command). Of course after executing this command, I would need to make sure to dispose of the original copy that I passed in. public class CreateMyObject implements TransactionWithQuery { private MyObject object; public CreateMyObject(MyObject business_obj) { this.object = (MyObject) business_obj.clone(); } public Object executeAndQuery(...) throws Exception { ... } } The Prevayler wiki says: Transactions can't carry direct object references (pointers) to business objects. This has become known as the baptism problem because it's a common beginner pitfall. Direct object references don't work because once a transaction has been serialized to the journal and then deserialized for execution its object references no longer refer to the intended objects - - any objects they may have referred to at first will have been copied by the serialization process! Therefore, a transaction must carry some kind of string or numeric identifiers for any objects it wants to refer to, and it must look up the objects when it is executed. I think by cloning the passed-in object I will be getting around the "direct object pointer" problem, but I still don't know whether or not this is a good idea...

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  • retrieve value from hashtable with clone of key; C#

    - by Johnny
    I would like to know if there is any possible way to retrieve an item from a hashtable using a key that is identical to the actual key, but a different object. I understand why it is probably not possible, but I would like to see if there is any tricky way to do it. My problem arises from the fact that, being as stupid as I am, I created hashtables with int[] as the keys, with the integer arrays containing indices representing spatial position. I somehow knew that I needed to create a new int[] every time I wanted to add a new entry, but neglected to think that when I generated spatial coordinate arrays later they would be worthless in retrieving the values from my hashtables. Now I am trying to decide whether to rearrange things so that I can store my values in ArrayLists, or whether to search through the list of keys in the Hashtable for the one I need every time I want to get a value, neither of the options being very cool. Unless of course there is a way to get //1 to work like //2! Thanks in advance. static void Main(string[] args) { Hashtable dog = new Hashtable(); //1 int[] man = new int[] { 5 }; dog.Add(man, "hello"); int[] cat = new int[] { 5 }; Console.WriteLine(dog.ContainsKey(cat)); //false //2 int boy = 5; dog.Add(boy, "wtf"); int kitten = 5; Console.WriteLine(dog.ContainsKey(kitten)); //true; }

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  • Low-Hanging Fruit: Obfuscating non-critical values in JavaScript

    - by Piskvor
    I'm making an in-browser game of the type "guess what place/monument/etc. is in this satellite/aerial view", using Google Maps JS API v3. However, I need to protect against cheaters - you have to pass a google.maps.LatLng and a zoom level to the map constructor, which means a cheating user only needs to view source to get to this data. I am already unsetting every value I possibly can without breaking the map (such as center and the manipulation functions like setZoom()), and initializing the map in an anonymous function (so the object is not visible in global namespace). Now, this is of course in-browser, client-side, untrusted JavaScript; I've read much of the obfuscation tag and I'm not trying to make the script bullet-proof (it's just a game, after all). I only need to make the obfuscation reasonably hard against the 1337 Java5kryp7 haxz0rz - "kid sister encryption", as Bruce Schneier puts it. Anything harder than base64 encoding would deter most cheaters by eliminating the lowest-hanging fruit - if the cheater is smart and determined enough to use a JS debugger, he can bypass anything I can do (as I need to pass the value to Google Maps API in plaintext), but that's unlikely to happen on a mass scale (there will also be other, not-code-related ways to prevent cheating). I've tried various minimizers and obfuscators, but those will mostly deal with code - the values are still shown verbatim. TL;DR: I need to obfuscate three values in JavaScript. I'm not looking for bullet-proof armor, just a sneeze-guard. What should I use?

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  • Some clarification needed about synchronous versus asynchronous asio operations

    - by Old newbie
    As far as I know, the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous operations. I.e. write() or read() vs async_write() and async_read() is that the former, don't return until the operation finish -or error-, and the last ones, returns inmediately. Due the fact that the asynchronous operations are controlled by an io_service.run() that does not finish until the controlled operations has finalized. It seems to me that in sequencial operations as those involved in TCP/IP connections with protocols such as POP3, in which the operaton is a sequence such as: C: <connect> S: Ok. C: User... S: Ok. C: Password S: Ok. C: Command S: answer C: Command S: answer ... C: bye S: <close> The difference between synchronous/asynchronous opperatons does not make much sense. Of course, in both operations there is allways the risk that the program flow stops indefinitely by some circunstance -there the use of timers-, but I would like know some more authorized opinions in this matter. I must admit that the question is rather ill-defined, but I like hear some advices about when use one or other, because I've problems in debugging with MS Visual Studio, asynchronous SSL operations in a POP3 client in wich I'm working now -about some of who surely I would write here soon-, and sometimes think that perhaps is a bad idea use asynchronous in this. Not to say that I'm an absolute newbie with this librarys, that additionally to the difficult with the idioma, and some obscure concepts in the STL, must suffer the brevity of the asio documentation.

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  • Thoughts about alternatives to barplot-with-error-bars

    - by gd047
    I was thinking of an alternative to the barplot-with-error-bars plot. To get an idea by example, I roughly 'sketched' what I mean using the following code library(plotrix) plot(0:12,type="n",axes=FALSE) gradient.rect(1,0,3,8,col=smoothColors("red",38,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(4,0,6,6,col=smoothColors("blue",38,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(2,2),c(5.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(10.5,10.5)) lines(c(2-.5,2+.5),c(5.5,5.5)) lines(c(5,5),c(4.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(7.5,7.5)) lines(c(5-.5,5+.5),c(4.5,4.5)) gradient.rect(7,8,9,10.5,col=smoothColors("red",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(7,5.5,9,8,col=smoothColors("white",100,"red"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(7,9),c(8,8),lwd=3) gradient.rect(10,6,12,7.5,col=smoothColors("blue",100,"white"),border=NA,gradient="y") gradient.rect(10,4.5,12,6,col=smoothColors("white",100,"blue"),border=NA,gradient="y") lines(c(10,12),c(6,6),lwd=3) The idea was to use bars like the ones in the second pair, instead of those in the first. However, there is something that I would like to change in the colors. Instead of a linear gradient fill, I would like to adjust the color intensity in accordance with the values of the pdf of the mean estimator. Do you think it is possible? A slightly different idea (where gradient fill isn't an issue) was to use one (or 2 back-to-back) bell curve(s) filled with (solid) color, instead of a rectangle. See for example the shape that corresponds to the letter F here. In that case the bell-curve(s) should (ideally) be drawn using something like plot(x, dnorm(x, mean = my.mean, sd = std.error.of.the.mean)) I have no idea though, of a way to draw rotated (and filled with color) bell curves. Of course, all of the above may be freely judged as midnight springtime dreams :-)

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  • Catch FileNotFoundException in AsyncTask method

    - by Musterknabe
    I'm getting the favicon of a website with a method. Of course not every website has a favicon. So I want to catch it. The app doesn't crash if the website doesn't have a favicon but I still get an FileNotFoundException in the LogCat. The problem I'm encountering is that I can't catch it When I add `catch (FileNotFoundException f) to my try-catch block it tells me Unreachable catch block for FileNotFoundException. This exception is never thrown from the try statement body. The options I have is to remove it or to add a throws declaration to the doInBackground-method. The latter is not possible. This is the whole Try-Catch try{ String baseURL = getBaseURL ( sourceURLArr[i] ); System.out.println(baseURL + "/favicon.ico"); Bitmap favicon = getBitmapFromURL( baseURL + "/favicon.ico"); Drawable fv = new BitmapDrawable(getResources(), Bitmap.createScaledBitmap(favicon, 20, 20, true)); source [i].setCompoundDrawablesWithIntrinsicBounds(fv, null, null, null); } catch(NullPointerException e){ } catch(FileNotFoundException f){ } I already tried to switch the FileNotFoundException with the NullPointerException but it was the same error. When I add the throws to the asynctask do in background method I get Exception FileNotFoundException is not compatible with throws clause in AsyncTask<Void,Void,Void>.doInBackground(Void[]) How can I now catch the FileNotFoundException?

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  • Python raw strings and trailing back slashes.

    - by dash-tom-bang
    I ran across something once upon a time and wondered if it was a Python "bug" or at least a misfeature. I'm curious if anyone knows of any justifications for this behavior. I thought of it just now reading "Code Like a Pythonista," which has been enjoyable so far. I'm only familiar with the 2.x line of Python. Raw strings are strings that are prefixed with an r. This is great because I can use backslashes in regular expressions and I don't need to double everything everywhere. It's also handy for writing throwaway scripts on Windows, so I can use backslashes there also. (I know I can also use forward slashes, but throwaway scripts often contain content cut&pasted from elsewhere in Windows.) So great! Unless, of course, you really want your string to end with a backslash. There's no way to do that in a 'raw' string. In [9]: r'\n' Out[9]: '\\n' In [10]: r'abc\n' Out[10]: 'abc\\n' In [11]: r'abc\' ------------------------------------------------ File "<ipython console>", line 1 r'abc\' ^ SyntaxError: EOL while scanning string literal In [12]: r'abc\\' Out[12]: 'abc\\\\' So one slash before the closing quote is an error, but two slashes gives you two slashes! Certainly I'm not the only one that is bothered by this? Thoughts on why 'raw' strings are 'raw, except for slash-quote'? I mean, if I wanted to embed a single quote in there I'd just use double quotes around the string, and vice versa. If I wanted both, I'd just triple quote. If I really wanted three quotes in a row in a raw string, well, I guess I'd have to deal, but is this considered "proper behavior"?

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  • Any danger in calling flash messages html_safe?

    - by PreciousBodilyFluids
    I want a flash message that looks something like: "That confirmation link is invalid or expired. Click here to have a new one generated." Where "click here" is of course a link to another action in the app where a new confirmation link can be generated. Two drawbacks: One, since link_to isn't defined in the controller where the flash message is being set, I have to put the link html in myself. No big deal, but kind of messy. Number two: In order for the link to actually display properly on the page I have to html_safe the flash display function in the view, so now it looks like (using Haml): - flash.each do |name, message| = content_tag :div, message.html_safe This gives me pause. Everything else I html_safe has been HTML I've written myself in helpers and whatnot, but the contents of the flash hash are stored in a cookie client-side, and could conceivably be changed. I've thought through it, and I don't see how this could result in an XSS attack, but XSS isn't something I have a great understanding of anyway. So, two questions: 1. Is there any danger in always html_safe-ing all flash contents like this? 2. The fact that this solution is so messy (breaking MVC by using HTML in the controller, always html_safe-ing all flash contents) make me think I'm going about this wrong. Is there a more elegant, Rails-ish way to do this? I'm using Rails 3.0.0.beta3.

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  • Reading/Writing DataTables to and from an OleDb Database LINQ

    - by jsmith
    My current project is to take information from an OleDbDatabase and .CSV files and place it all into a larger OleDbDatabase. I have currently read in all the information I need from both .CSV files, and the OleDbDatabase into DataTables.... Where it is getting hairy is writing all of the information back to another OleDbDatabase. Right now my current method is to do something like this: OleDbTransaction myTransaction = null; try { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + Database); conn.Open(); OleDbCommand command = conn.CreateCommand(); string strSQL; command.Transaction = myTransaction; strSQL = "Insert into TABLE " + "(FirstName, LastName) values ('" + FirstName + "', '" + LastName + "')"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.CommandText = strSQL; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.close(); catch (Exception) { // IF invalid data is entered, rolls back the database myTransaction.Rollback(); } Of course, this is very basic and I'm using an SQL command to commit my transactions to a connection. My problem is I could do this, but I have about 200 fields that need inserted over several tables. I'm willing to do the leg work if that's the only way to go. But I feel like there is an easier method. Is there anything in LINQ that could help me out with this?

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  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • What makes people think that NNs have more computational power than existing models?

    - by Bubba88
    I've read in Wikipedia that neural-network functions defined on a field of arbitrary real/rational numbers (along with algorithmic schemas, and the speculative `transrecursive' models) have more computational power than the computers we use today. Of course it was a page of russian wikipedia (ru.wikipedia.org) and that may be not properly proven, but that's not the only source of such.. rumors Now, the thing that I really do not understand is: How can a string-rewriting machine (NNs are exactly string-rewriting machines just as Turing machines are; only programming language is different) be more powerful than a universally capable U-machine? Yes, the descriptive instrument is really different, but the fact is that any function of such class can be (easily or not) turned to be a legal Turing-machine. Am I wrong? Do I miss something important? What is the cause of people saying that? I do know that the fenomenum of undecidability is widely accepted today (though not consistently proven according to what I've read), but I do not really see a smallest chance of NNs being able to solve that particular problem. Add-in: Not consistently proven according to what I've read - I meant that you might want to take a look at A. Zenkin's (russian mathematician) papers after mid-90-s where he persuasively postulates the wrongness of G. Cantor's concepts, including transfinite sets, uncountable sets, diagonalization method (method used in the proof of undecidability by Turing) and maybe others. Even Goedel's incompletness theorems were proven in right way in only 21-st century.. That's all just to plug Zenkin's work to the post cause I don't know how widespread that knowledge is in CS community so forgive me if that did look stupid. Thank you!

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  • CORBA on MacOS X (Cocoa)

    - by user8472
    I am currently looking into different ways to support distributed model objects (i.e., a computational model that runs on several different computers) in a project that initially focuses on MacOS X (using Cocoa). As far as I know there is the possibility to use the class cluster around NSProxy. But there also seem to be implementations of CORBA around with Objective-C support. At a later time there may be the need to also support/include Windows machines. In that case I would need to use something like Gnustep on the Windows side (which may be an option, if it works well) or come up with a combination of both technologies. Or write something manually (which is, of course, the least desirable option). My questions are: If you have experience with both technologies (Cocoa native infrastructure vs. CORBA) can you point out some key features/issues of either approach? Is it possible to use Gnustep with Cocoa in the way explained above? Is it possible (and reasonably feasible, i.e. simpler than writing a network layer manually) to communicate among all MacOS clients using Cocoa's technology and with Windows clients through CORBA?

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  • Simplest distributed persistent key/value store that supports primary key range queries

    - by StaxMan
    I am looking for a properly distributed (i.e. not just sharded) and persisted (not bounded by available memory on single node, or cluster of nodes) key/value ("nosql") store that does support range queries by primary key. So far closest such system is Cassandra, which does above. However, it adds support for other features that are not essential for me. So while I like it (and will consider using it of course), I am trying to figure out if there might be other mature projects that implement what I need. Specifically, for me the only aspect of value I need is to access it as a blob. For key, however, I need range queries (as in, access values ordered, limited by start and/or end values). While values can have structures, there is no need to use that structure for anything on server side (can do client-side data binding, flexible value/content types etc). For added bonus, Cassandra style storage (journaled, all sequential writes) seems quite optimal for my use case. To help filter out answers, I have investigated some alternatives within general domain like: Voldemort (key/value, but no ordering) and CouchDB (just sharded, more batch-oriented); and am aware of systems that are not quite distributed while otherwise qualifying (bdb variants, tokyo cabinet itself (not sure if Tyrant might qualify), redis (in-memory store only)).

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  • C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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  • JPA concatenating table names for parent/child @OneToMany

    - by Robert
    We are trying to use a basic @OneToMany relationship: @Entity @Table(name = "PARENT_MESSAGE") public class ParentMessage { @Id @Column(name = "PARENT_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer parentId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List childMessages; public List getChildMessages() { return this.childMessages; } ... } @Entity @Table(name = "CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP") public class ChildMessage { @Id @Column(name = "CHILD_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer childId; @ManyToOne(optional=false,targetEntity=ParentMessage.class,cascade={CascadeType.REFRESH}, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private ParentMessage parentMsg; public ParentMessage getParentMsg() { return parentMsg; } ... } ChildMessage child = new ChildMessage(); em.getTransaction().begin(); ParentMessage parentMessage = (ParentMessage) em.find(ParentMessage.class, parentId); child.setParentMsg(parentMessage); List list = parentMessage.getChildMessages(); if(list == null) list = new ArrayList(); list.add(child); em.getTransaction().commit(); We receive the following error. Why is OpenJPA concatenating the table names to APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP? Of course that table doesn't exist.. the tables defined are APP.PARENT_MESSAGE and APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP Caused by: org.apache.openjpa.lib.jdbc.ReportingSQLException: Table/View 'APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP' does not exist. {SELECT t1.CHILD_ID, t1.PARENT_ID, t1.CREATED_TIME, t1.USER_ID FROM APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t0 INNER JOIN APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t1 ON t0.CHILDMESSAGES_CHILD_ID = t1.CHILD_ID WHERE t0.PARENTMESSAGE_PARENT_ID = ?} [code=30000, state=42X05]

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  • Type-safe mapping from Class<T> to Thing<T>

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    I want to make a map-kind of container that has the following interface: public <T> Thing<T> get(Class<T> clazz); public <T> void put(Class<T> clazz, Thing<T> thing); The interesting point is that the Ts in each Class<T><- Thing<T> pair is the same T, but the container should be able to hold many different types of pairs. Initially I tried a (Hash)Map. But, for instance, Map<Class<T>, Thing<T>> is not right, because then T would be same T for all pairs in that map. Of course, Map<Class<?>, Thing<?>> works, but then I don't have type-safety guarantees so that when I get(String.class), I can't be sure that I get a Thing<String> instance back. Is there a way to accomplish the kind of type safety that I'm looking for?

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  • Default update detailViewController, HELP.

    - by DrBeak1
    I've created an app that allows users to add information (from an addViewController), which is then displayed in a UITableView on the rootViewController. When the user taps the tableViewCell the detailViewController then displays, you guessed it, more details regarding the inputted user information. What I'm trying to accomplish is to setup an editViewController that will allow users to edit information they've already submitted. Currently, I'm trying to auto-populate the editViewController with the information that was previously submitted by the user (after which they can press save and update the info). However, I'm getting stuck trying to perform this auto-populating and I'm not sure this is even the best route to accomplish this. Here is the edit method that is called to load the editViewController from the detailViewController. -(IBAction)editDetails:(id)sender { editViewController *evc = [[editViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"editViewController" bundle:nil]; rootViewController *rvc = [[rootViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:evc]; [[self navigationController] presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; ///For Style NSInteger styleCount = [[rvc scoreTypeArray] count]; NSInteger styleRows = [rvc.scoreTypeArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; ///HERE I GET AN ERROR MESSAGE SAYING THAT indexPath IS NOT DEFINED ///For Date NSInteger count = [[rvc dateArray] count]; NSInteger rows = [[rvc indexPath] row]; ///AND HERE I GET A WARNING MESSAGE SAYING rootViewController MAY NOT RESPOND TO INDEX PATH, AND OF COURSE IT DOESN'T WORK [[evc dateField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[evc dateArray] objectAtIndex:(count-1-rows)]]]; [[evc styleField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[rvc scoresArray] objectAtIndex:(styleCount-1-styleRows)]]]; [navigationController release]; [evc release]; [rvc release];} So here I'm trying to load the information from a saved array that is declared in my rootViewController. Any thoughts any body? Please and thank you : )

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  • How to do timer with Nios II assembly?

    - by Nick Rosencrantz
    I've got an assignment in a computer engineering course that I don't fully understand since it is so large. Anyway I started coding the parts of it and it seems we should make code for some sort of timer. I've started put together the subroutine for snaptime but I'm not sure what I want: .equ timer, 0x920 .global snaptime .text .align 2 snaptime: movia r8,timer # basadressen till timern stw r0,12(r8) # sparar 0 till snapl movi r9,0b0110 # spara 6 i r9 stw r9,16(r8) # spara r9 movi ... ? andi r10,r10,0xFFFF The manual for Nios II assembly is here and the C code for what I'm trying to do is: #define TIMER_1_BASE ((volatile unsigned int*) 0x920) int snaptime (void) { int snaphight; int snaplow; int snap; TIMER_1_BASE[4]=0; snaphigh = TIMER_1_BASE[5] & 0xffffff; snaplow = TIMER_1_BASE[4] & 0xffffff; snap = snaphigh*65536+snaplow; return (snap); } Perhaps you can inspect the C which should be properly defined and see how I make it with assembly since the spec says it should be assembly.

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