Search Results

Search found 43366 results on 1735 pages for 'entity attribute value'.

Page 28/1735 | < Previous Page | 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35  | Next Page >

  • Entity Framework 4.0 Unit Testing

    - by Steve Ward
    Hi, I've implemented unit testing along the lines of this article with a fake object context and IObjectSet with POCO in EF4. http://blogs.msdn.com/adonet/archive/2009/12/17/test-driven-development-walkthrough-with-the-entity-framework-4-0.aspx But I'm unsure how to implement a couple of methods on my fake object context for testing. I have CreateQuery and ExecuteFunction methods on my object context interface so that I can execute ESQL and Stored Procedures but I cant (easily) implement them in my fake object context. An alternative would be to use a test double of my repository instead of a double of my object context as suggested here: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/adonetefx/thread/c4921443-e8a3-4414-92dd-eba1480a07ad/ But this would mean my real repository isnt being tested and would seem to just bypass the issue. Can anyone offer any recommendations?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 with Existing Domain Model

    - by ace
    Hi, Im currently looking at migrating from fluent nHibernate to ADO.Net Entity Framework 4. I have a project containing the domain model (pocos) which I was using for nHibernate mappings. Ive read in blogs that it is possible to use my existing domain model with EF4 but ive seen no examples of it. Ive seen examples of T4 code generation with EF4 but havent come accross an example which shows how to use existing domain model objects with EF4. Im a newby with EF4 and would like to see some samples on how to get this done. Thanks Aiyaz

    Read the article

  • Correct association mapping in Entity Framework

    - by Matt Thrower
    Hi, Trying to change two relationships in our entity framework from many-to-one to many-to-many relationships. So I tried the obvious thing: clicked on each association on the diagram, changed the appropriate end of the association accordingly and then changed the name of the navigation property to a plural to reflect the change. This lead to the following build error, or one each for the two changes I've made: Error 3002: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1761:Potential runtime violation of table CustomerServices's keys (CustomerServices.Id): Columns (CustomerServices.Id) are mapped to EntitySet CompiledDatabaseCustomerService's properties (CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CustomerService.Id) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CompiledDatabase.Id, CompiledDatabaseCustomerService.CustomerService.Id) I'm not entirely sure why this is happening, so unsurprisngly I haven't had much luck fixing it. I've tried fiddling with the mapping details and adding referential constraints to no avail. Anyone point me in the right direction? cheers, Matt

    Read the article

  • VS 2010 Entity Repository Error

    - by Steve
    In my project I have it set up so that all the tables in the DB has the property "id" and then I have the entity objects inherit from the EntityBase class using a repository pattern. I then set the inheritance modifier for "id" property in the dbml file o/r designer to "overrides" Public MustInherit Class EntityBase MustOverride Property id() As Integer End Class Public MustInherit Class RepositoryBase(Of T As EntityBase) Protected _Db As New DataClasses1DataContext Public Function GetById(ByVal Id As Integer) As T Return (From a In _Db.GetTable(Of T)() Where a.id = Id).SingleOrDefault End Function End Class Partial Public Class Entity1 Inherits EntityBase End Class Public Class TestRepository Inherits RepositoryBase(Of Entity1) End Class the line Return (From a In _Db.GetTable(Of T)() Where a.id = Id).SingleOrDefault however produces the error "Class member EntityBase.id is unmapped" when i use VS 2010 using the 4.0 framework but I never received that error with the old one. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • VS2008 project with Entity Framework model results in "always dirty" compile

    - by Jeremy Lew
    In VS 2008, I have a simple .csproj that contains an Entity Framework .edmx (V1) file. Every time I build the project, the output DLL is updated, even though nothing has changed. I have reproduced this in the simplest-possible project (containing one ordinary .cs file and one edmx model). If I remove the edmx model and build repeatedly, the output assembly will not be touched. If I add the edmx model and build repeatedly, the output assembly is modified each time. This is a problem because the real project is a dependency of dozens of other projects and it is wreaking havoc with what times when working in higher layers of the application. Is this a known problem? Any way to fix it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Enumerable.Range in and Expression and Entity Framework

    - by eka808
    I'm currently developping an expression method (used in linq to entity queries) who has to give me a daycount for a given period (start date and end date) decrementing this daycount if specials days are in the period. My idea was the following : Generate an enumerable with all the dates (and with Enumerable.Range) Make a .Where on this enumerable to remove the specials dates Like a MyEnumerable.Where(a = a != "20120101") After that, return a MyEnumerable.Count() I come with this code : return (p) => Enumerable .Range(1, 4) .Where(a => a != 20120101) .AsQueryable() .Count() I tried to cast as a list, as a queryable, both (like the example) and no way ! it doesn't work ! I always get this error : LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[System.Int32] Range(Int32, Int32)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. Have you got an idea about that ? Using an enumerable is of course not mandatory, any working solutions is good ^^ Thank's by advance !

    Read the article

  • Association in Entity Framework 4

    - by Marsharks
    I have two tables, a problem table and a problem history table. As you can expect, a problem can have many histories associated with it. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Problem]( [Last_Update] [datetime] NULL, [Problem_Id] [int] NOT NULL, [Incident_Count] [int] NULL ) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Problem] ADD CONSTRAINT [PK_Problem] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Problem_Id] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Problem_History]( [Last_Update] [datetime] NULL, [Problem_Id] [int] NOT NULL, [Severity_Chg_Flag] [char](1) NULL ) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Problem_History] ADD [Create_DateTime] [datetime] NOT NULL ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Problem_History] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Problem_History_Problem] FOREIGN KEY([Problem_Id]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Problem] ([Problem_Id]) The problem is when I drag this into an Entity Model, the associations are not included. Any ideas? I would like to point out that the problem history table has no separate key of its own, it shares the problem id

    Read the article

  • How do I setup a WCF Data Service with an ADO.NET Entity Entity Model in another assembly?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I have an ASP.NET 4.0 website that has an Entity Data Model hooked up to WCF Data Service. When the Service and Model are in the same assembly everything works. Unfortunately, when I move the Model to another "shared" assembly (and change the namespace) the service compiles but throws a 500 error when launched in a browser. The reason I want to have the Model in a common assembly (lets call it RiaTest.Shared) is that I want share common validation code between the client and service (by checking "Reuse types in referenced assemblies" in the Advanced tab of the Add Service Reference dialog). Anyway, I've spent a couple of hours on this to no avail so any help in the regard would be appreciated...

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework: a proxy collection for displaying a subset of data

    - by Jefim
    Imagine I have an entity called Product and a repository for it: public class Product { public int Id { get; set; } public bool IsHidden { get; set; } } public class ProductRepository { public ObservableCollection<Product> AllProducts { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<Product> HiddenProducts { get; set; } } All products contains every single Product in the database, while HiddenProducts must only contain those, whose IsHidden == true. I wrote the type as ObservableCollection<Product>, but it does not have to be that. The goal is to have HiddenProducts collection be like a proxy to AllProducts with filtering capabilities and for it to refresh every time when IsHidden attribute of a Product is changed. Is there a normal way to do this? Or maybe my logic is wrong and this could be done is a better way?

    Read the article

  • EF - Entity Sql contains clausule with string

    - by zikrija
    Hi all, I have one question about EF. If I understand correctly EF does not support Contains. I try to achieve this: I have column(nvarchar) with this: for ex.row1. 1;3;4;5,row2. 3;4;6 row3. 7;8;16 etc. I have list(of string) with 1,6. My goal is to get row1 and row2 in result set. I try with linq to entity and with linq to sql but i can't get this right. I stuck with this and any help would be appreciated... Tnx

    Read the article

  • Stop Entity Framework from updating edmx model with a column that isn't needed

    - by TMan
    I have rowguids in all my tables to help with change tracking in all my tables. I don't want/need these tables in my edmx or my entities. However, I do still need to make changes to other things sometimes so everytime i go to update model from database in the edmx it adds all the rowguids in all my tables everytime and i have to manually delete each one. Is there a way to handle this from happening? Is there a way I can maybe edit the T4 to maybe ignore that 'rowguid' column? Database first Entity framework

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4.0 - Code only Reference

    - by joe
    Hello All, I am trying to learn EF 4 and its code only features. I tried the following great articles and was able to make a sample application. http://blogs.taiga.nl/martijn/2009/11/22/entity-framework-4-0-a-fresh-start-with-demo-application/#reply http://blogs.msdn.com/efdesign/archive/2009/10/12/code-only-further-enhancements.aspx But I am looking for a good reference library / website on Code only feature. I tried searching MSDN but couldn't find it. Please help. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Delete Entity in Many to Many Relation. Don't get error but entity is not deleted

    - by Shapper
    I have, in EF5, two entities: User and Role. Between User and Role there is a many to many relation. I don't have an entity for the UserRoles database which sets the relation. I have a User and I want to delete a role without loading it from the database. Context context = new Context(); User user = context.Users.First(x => x.Id == 4); user.Roles = new List<Role>(); Role role = new Role { Id = 20 }; context.Roles.Attach(role); user.Roles.Remove(role); context.SaveChanges(); I don't get any error but the role is not removed. Any idea why? Thank you, Miguel

    Read the article

  • Map a property in the entity framework to a different type

    - by Tom
    I have a SQL Server 2008 database. I have a bunch of fields in TableA that are just strings that corresponds to booleans. So every value is either true or false. The edmx I generated using Entity Framework 4.0 has them as strings. This is technically correct but I would like to have them mapped as Booleans instead. Is this possible? If so how can I accomplish this? Thanks much!

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 & WCF Data Service: N:M mapping

    - by JJO
    I have three tables in my database: An A table, a B table, and a many-to-many ABMapping table. For simplicity, A and B are keyed with identity columns; ABMapping has just two columns: AId and BId. I built an Entity Framework 4 model from this, and it did correctly identify the N:M mapping between A and B. I then built a WCF Data Service based on this EF model. I'm trying to consume this WCF Data Service. Unfortunately, I can't figure out how to get a mapping between As and Bs to map back to the database. I've tried something like this: A a = new A(); B b = new B(); a.Bs.Add(b); connection.SaveChanges(); But this doesn't seem to have worked. Any clues? What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Add Many-to-Many Entity Framework

    - by tomcamara
    I've got a question: I have 3 tables: Users Menu UserMenu UserMenu contains IdMenu and IdUser. In My DataModel Entity Framework 4.0, I'm filling my User Model and filling User.Menu (Menu is Navigation Properties) with an existing Menu of my table Menu. I have to save User and Save each related menu item in UserMenu table. I get the following exception: The ObjectStateManager does not contain an ObjectStateEntry with a reference to an object of type 'SGGED.Model.Menu'. Code Users objUser = new Users(); objUser.name = itemUsers.name.Trim(); objUser.email = itemUsers.email.Trim(); objUser.password = Util.HashString("12345"); objUser.effdt = DateTime.Now; objData.Users.AddObject(objUser); foreach (var itemMenu in itemUsers.Menu) { objData.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(itemMenu, EntityState.Unchanged); } affRows = objData.SaveChanges(); Whats the way to handle this issue? Best Regards, Miltom Camara

    Read the article

  • The data reader returned by the store data provider does not have enough columns

    - by molgan
    Hello I get the following error when I try to execute a stored procedure: "The data reader returned by the store data provider does not have enough columns" When I in the sql-manager execute it like this: DECLARE @return_value int, @EndDate datetime EXEC @return_value = [dbo].[GetSomeDate] @SomeID = 91, @EndDate = @EndDate OUTPUT SELECT @EndDate as N'@EndDate' SELECT 'Return Value' = @return_value GO It returns the value properly.... @SomeDate = '2010-03-24 09:00' And in my app I have: if (_entities.Connection.State == System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) _entities.Connection.Open(); using (EntityCommand c = new EntityCommand("MyAppEntities.GetSomeDate", (EntityConnection)this._entities.Connection)) { c.CommandType = System.Data.CommandType.StoredProcedure; EntityParameter paramSomeID = new EntityParameter("SomeID", System.Data.DbType.Int32); paramSomeID.Direction = System.Data.ParameterDirection.Input; paramSomeID.Value = someID; c.Parameters.Add(paramSomeID); EntityParameter paramSomeDate = new EntityParameter("SomeDate", System.Data.DbType.DateTime); SomeDate.Direction = System.Data.ParameterDirection.Output; c.Parameters.Add(paramSomeDate); int retval = c.ExecuteNonQuery(); return (DateTime?)c.Parameters["SomeDate"].Value; Why does it complain about columns? I googled on error and someone said something about removing RETURN in sp, but I dont have any RETURN there. last like is like SELECT @SomeDate = D.SomeDate FROM .... /M

    Read the article

  • Attributes of attributevalue element in SAML 2 Attribute Statement

    - by AJ
    I am building a web service that receives a SAML attribute query and responds with an attribute statement. I know I can return one or multiple values of a SAML attribute. I have some values that are dependent on the other attribute values. I need to show that relationship. Let us say, the query is for the Subject Dave and the return values are his company and job title. Dave can work at multiple companies with job title at each company. I have two options of sending this data back: Send this as a complextype by defining an attribute organization and return xml within that attribute. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <saml:AttributeValue> <company name="company1" jobtitle="CIO"/> <company name="company2" jobtitle="VP"/> </saml:AttributeValue> Try to send multiple values of attributes somehow sending a reference in attributevalue element. <saml:Attribute name="company"> <attributeValue>company1</attributeValue> <attributeValue>company2</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> <saml:Attribute name="jobTitle> <attributeValue company="company1">CIO</attributeValue> <attributeValue company="company2">VP</attributeValue> </saml:Attribute> Which approach will you prefer? Why? I am biased towards second approach as it does not require client to know about any schema. It does require them to know about non-standard attribute company in the attribute value.

    Read the article

  • Problem deleting record using Entity Framework and System.Data.SQLite

    - by jamone
    I have a SQLite DB that is set up so when I delete a Person the delete is cascaded. This works fine when I manually delete a Person (all records that reference the PersonID are deleted). But when I use Entity Framework to delete the Person I get an error: System.InvalidOperationException: The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted. I don't understand why this is occurring. My trigger is set to clean up all related objects before deleting the object it was told to delete. When I go into the model editor and check the properties of the relationship it shows no action for the OnDelete property. Why isn't this set correctly by pulling it from the DB? Here's the relivent SQL for my tables. CREATE TABLE [SomeTable] ( [SomeTableID] INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, [PersonID] INTEGER NOT NULL REFERENCES [Person](PersonID) ON DELETE CASCADE ) CREATE TABLE [Person] ( [PersonID] INTEGER NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT )

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

    Read the article

  • EF4 CTP5 Conflicting changes detected. This may happen when trying to insert multiple entities with the same key.

    - by user658332
    hi, I am new to EF4 CTP5. I am just hanging at one problem.. I am using CodeFirst without Database, so when i execute application, it generated DB for me. here is my scenario, i have following Class structure... public class KVCalculationWish { public KVCalculationWish() { } public int KVCalculationWishId { get; set; } public string KVCalculationWishName { get; set; } public int KVSingleOfferId { get; set; } public virtual KVSingleOffer SingleOffer { get; set; } public int KVCalculationsForPersonId { get; set; } public virtual KVCalculationsForPerson CaculationsForPerson { get; set; } } public class KVSingleOffer { public KVSingleOffer() { } public int KVSingleOfferId { get; set; } public string KVSingleOfferName { get; set; } public KVCalculationWish CalculationWish { get; set; } } public class KVCalculationsForPerson { public KVCalculationsForPerson() { } public int KVCalculationsForPersonId { get; set; } public string KVCalculationsForPersonName { get; set; } public KVCalculationWish CalculationWish { get; set; } } public class EntiyRelation : DbContext { public EntiyRelation() { } public DbSet<KVCalculationWish> CalculationWish { get; set; } public DbSet<KVSingleOffer> SingleOffer { get; set; } public DbSet<KVCalculationsForPerson> CalculationsForPerson { get; set; } protected override void OnModelCreating(System.Data.Entity.ModelConfiguration.ModelBuilder modelBuilder) { base.OnModelCreating(modelBuilder); modelBuilder.Entity<KVCalculationWish>().HasOptional(m => m.SingleOffer).WithRequired(p => p.CalculationWish); modelBuilder.Entity<KVCalculationWish>().HasOptional(m => m.CaculationsForPerson).WithRequired(p => p.CalculationWish); } } i want to use KVCalcuationWish object in KVCalcuationsForPerson and KVSingleOffer class. So when i am creating object of KVCalcuationForPerson and KVSingleOffer class i initialize both object with New KVCalcuationWish object. like this KVCalculationsForPerson calcPerson = new KVCalculationsForPerson(); KVCalculationWish wish = new KVCalculationWish() { CaculationsForPerson = calcPerson }; calcPerson.KVCalculationsForPersonName = "Person Name"; calcPerson.CalculationWish = wish; KVSingleOffer singleOffer = new KVSingleOffer(); KVCalculationWish wish1 = new KVCalculationWish() { SingleOffer = singleOffer }; singleOffer.KVSingleOfferName = "Offer Name"; singleOffer.CalculationWish = wish1; but my problem is when i save this records using following code try { db.CalculationsForPerson.Add(calcPerson); db.SingleOffer.Add(singleOffer); db.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { } i can save successfully in DB, but in Table KVCalcuationWish i am not able to get the ID of SingleOffer and CalcuationsForPerson class object. Following is the data of KVCalcuationWish table. KVCalcuationWishID KVCalcuationWishName KVSingleOfferID KVCalcuationsForPersonID 1 NULL 0 0 Following is the data of KVSingleOFfer Table KVSingleOfferID KVSingleOfferName 1 Offer Name Follwing is the data of KVCalcuationsForPerson Table KVSingleOfferID KVSingleOfferName 1 Person Name I want to have following possible output in KVCalcuationWish table. KVCalcuationWishID KVCalcuationWishName KVSingleOfferID KVCalcuationsForPersonID 1 NULL 1 NULL 2 NULL NULL 1 so what i want to achieve is ...... when i am save KVSingleOffer object i want separate record to be inserted and when i save KVCalcuationsForPerson object another separate record should be save to KVCalcuationwish table. Is that possible? Sorry for long description... but i really hang on this situation... Thanks & Regards, Joyous Suhas

    Read the article

  • How to update model in the database, from asp.net MVC2, using Entity Framework?

    - by Eedoh
    Hello. I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 application, and using Entity Framework as ORM. I am having troubles updating object in the database. Every time I try entity.SaveChanges(), EF inserts new line in the table, regardless of do I want update, or insert to be done. I tried attaching (like in this next example) object to entity, but then I got {"An object with a null EntityKey value cannot be attached to an object context."} Here's my simple function for inserts and updates (it's not really about vehicles, but it's simpler to explain like this, although I don't think that this effects answers at all)... public static void InsertOrUpdateCar(this Vehicles entity, Cars car) { if (car.Id == 0 || car.Id == null) { entity.Cars.AddObject(car); } else { entity.Attach(car); } entitet.SaveChanges(); } I even tried using AttachTo("Cars", car), but I got the same exception. Anyone has experience with this?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve enum value based on XmlEnumAttribute name value

    - by CletusLoomis
    I need a Generic function to retrieve the name or value of an enum based on the XmlEnumAttribute "Name" property of the enum. For example I have the following enum defined: Public Enum Currency <XmlEnum("00")> CDN = 1 <XmlEnum("01")> USA= 2 <XmlEnum("02")> EUR= 3 <XmlEnum("03")> JPN= 4 End Enum The first Currency enum value is 1; the enum name is "CDN"; and the XMLEnumAttribute Name property value is "00". If I have the enum value, I can retrieve the XmlEnumAttribute "Name" value using the following generic function: Public Function GetXmlAttrNameFromEnumValue(Of T)(ByVal pEnumVal As T) As String Dim type As Type = pEnumVal.GetType Dim info As FieldInfo = type.GetField([Enum].GetName(GetType(T), pEnumVal)) Dim att As XmlEnumAttribute = CType(info.GetCustomAttributes(GetType(XmlEnumAttribute), False)(0), XmlEnumAttribute) 'If there is an xmlattribute defined, return the name Return att.Name End Function So using the above function, I can specify the Currency enum type, pass a value of 1, and the return value will be "00". What I need is a function to perform if the opposite. If I have the XmlEnumAttribute Name value "00", I need a function to return a Currency enum with a value of 1. Just as useful would be a function that would return the enum name "CDN". I could then simply parse this to get the enum value. Any assistance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to Entities Projection of Nested List

    - by Matthew
    Assuming these objects... class MyClass { int ID {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} List<MyOtherClass> Things {get;set;} } class MyOtherClass { int ID {get;set;} string Value {get;set;} } How do I perform a LINQ to Entities Query, using a projection like below, that will give me a List? This works fine with an IEnumerable (assuming MyClass.Things is an IEnumerable, but I need to use List) MyClass myClass = (from MyClassTable mct in this.Context.MyClassTableSet select new MyClass { ID = mct.ID, Name = mct.Name, Things = (from MyOtherClass moc in mct.Stuff where moc.IsActive select new MyOtherClass { ID = moc.ID, Value = moc.Value }).AsEnumerable() }).FirstOrDefault(); Thanks in advance for the help!

    Read the article

  • html.checkbox - explicit value to hidden field value

    - by Tassadaque
    Hi I am creating list of checkboxes in partial view by follwoing http://blog.stevensanderson.com/2010/01/28/editing-a-variable-length-list-aspnet-mvc-2-style/ code and Rendered HTML for checkboxes is as follows <%=Html.CheckBox("EmployeeID", new { value = user.EmployeeID, @class = "ccboxes", title = user.Designation + "(" + user.EmployeeName + ")" })%> <INPUT id=MemoUsers_a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be__EmployeeID class=boxes title=Programmer(Zia) value=6 type=checkbox name=MemoUsers[a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be].EmployeeID jQuery1276681299292="27"> <INPUT value=false type=hidden name=MemoUsers[a29f82e4-ebbc-47b0-8cdd-7d54f94143be].EmployeeID> In rendered html it can be seen that value attribute of hidden field is false. i want to assign explicit value(same as checkbox value) to this value. Is this possible using html.checkbox or html.checkboxfor. one way is recommended in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/626901/asp-net-mvc-rc2-checkboxes-with-explicit-values. Is there any other better way i want to do this as ModelState.IsValid is returning false because of hidden field value attribute Regards

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35  | Next Page >