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  • Postback of delimited text from javascript and parsing on server side

    - by Alt_Doru
    In my ASP.NET page, I have a Javascript object, like this: var args = new Object(); args.Data1 = document.getElementById("Data1").value; args.Data2 = document.getElementById("Data2").value; args.Data3 = document.getElementById("Data3").value; The object is populated on client side using user input data. I am passing the data to a C# method, through an Ajax request: someObj.AjaxRequest(argsData1 + "|" + argsData2 + "|" + argsData3) Finally, I need to obtain the data in my C# code: string data1 = [JS args.Data1] string data2 = [JS args.Data2] string data3 = [JS args.Data3] My question is what's the best solution for this? As i am concatenating bits of user input, I don't think it's best to use "|" as a delimiter. Also, it's not clear to me how to actually parse the data in my C# code to populate the three variables with the original data.

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  • <Control>.Focus() from server side doesn't scroll into view

    - by George
    Custom Validation Control: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSex" runat="server" ErrorMessage="1.2 &lt;b&gt;Sex&lt;/b&gt; not specified" EnableClientScript="true" ClientValidationFunction="ValidateSex" SetFocusOnError="True">Selection required</asp:CustomValidator> Client Side validation routine: function ValidateSex(source, args) { var optMale = document.getElementById("<%=optMale.ClientID %>"); var optFemale = document.getElementById("<%=optFemale.ClientID %>"); if (!optMale.checked && !optFemale.checked) { args.IsValid = false; optMale.focus(); } else args.IsValid = true; } When the page is submitted and Sex is not specified, focus is set but the 2 radio buttons are not quite in view, vertical scrolling is required to bring them into view. Shouldn't the Focus() method have brought the focus control into view?

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  • securing a webservice for use from a custom iphone app only

    - by mme
    I want to create an iphone application which consists of two parts: The app itself and a server side component. On a users request, the app sends data to the server which is to be handled by human operators. To prevent abuse from an iphone app user, the id of the iphone is sent along with the request, and the operators can blacklist pranksters to deny their iphone access to the service. So far so good. Now the problem is: Someone could easily discover the address of the serverside component, and write a script to send bogus requests, using multiple IP addresses etc. So my question is: how can I defend myself against this? Captchas to protect against scripted attacks or requiring the user to register himself are not an option for this particular application. If I had control of the download, I would associate a unique ID with each downloaded app, but obviously this is not an option with the appstore. What would be your approach to make the server side part more secure?

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  • Server Side code Pushing Data to client Browser while current thread is busy Comet (programming)

    - by h_power11
    Hello Friends, I am writing one simple web page with bunch of textboxes and a button control. Now when user finished editing the values on this text boxes user has to click the button and this button invoke heavily process intensive algorithm on server side code based on the data received from client (Textboxes) And it could some time takes up to 30 to 45 minutes to complete the whole operation so the current thread is still inside the button click event handler function. That background task only provides one event, and the web page subscribes to it to get some text data after each stage of processing I was wandering if there is any way I can keep user up-to-date with what is the current progress on that background task. I have div element to print the current status information So I am looking for some sort of reverse mechanism then "get" and "post". I have read some articles on the Comet (programming) but I can't find any easy or definitive answer Thanks in advance

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  • Data manipulation without server side

    - by monczek
    Hi, I have to create a very simple webpage to show, filter and add data from not-yet-defined source (probably txt/xml/cvs). Records should be visible as a table, filtered using 3 criteria fields. There should be also possibility to add new records. My first thought was: XHTML + jQuery + csv2table + PicNet Table Filter. It does exactly what I want except adding rows - that is saving changes in source file (probably due to security risk). My question is - is there any possibility to do it without involving server side like asp.net, jee, php, sql? Source file is located on the server. Thanks for your ideas :-)

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  • save to sql server database fromclient side

    - by user281693
    I have a gridview with dropdownlist in it. When the user changes the item in the dropdownlist I want to save the new item in the database. I want this to happen using javascript and ajax like effect. I know how to access the dropdownlist inside gridview using javascript and I can get the new selectd item. But how can I save it to database without server side code? I know one way of doing this is using web services. I just want to know if there is/are any other ways to do it.

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  • Is it better to build HTML Code string on the server or on the client side?

    - by Ionut
    The result of the following process should be a html form. This form's structure varies from one to user. For example there might be a different number of rows or there may be the need for rowspan and colspan. When the user chooses to see this table an ajax call is made to the server where the structure of the table is decided from the database. Then I have to create the html code for the table structure which will be inserted in the DOM via JavaScript. The following problem comes to my mind: Where should I build the HTML code which will be inserted in the DOM? On the server side or should I send some parameters in the ajax call method and process the structure there? Therefore the main question involves good practice when it comes to decide between Server side processing or client side processing. Thank you!

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  • Hidden/Shown AsyncFileUpload Control Doesn't Fire Server-Side UploadedComplete Event

    - by Bob Mc
    I recently came across the AsyncFileUpload control in the latest (3.0.40412) release of the ASP.Net Ajax Control Toolkit. There appears to be an issue when using it in a hidden control that is later revealed, such as a <div> tag with visible=false. Example: Page code - <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="act" %> . . . <act:ToolkitScriptManager runat="server" ID="ScriptManager1" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="upnlFileUpload"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnShowUpload" Text="Show Upload" /> <div runat="server" id="divUpload" visible="false"> <act:AsyncFileUpload runat="server" id="ctlFileUpload" /> </div> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Server-side Code - Protected Sub ctlFileUpload_UploadedComplete(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As AjaxControlToolkit.AsyncFileUploadEventArgs) Handles ctlFileUpload.UploadedComplete End Sub Protected Sub btnShowUpload_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnShowUpload.Click divUpload.Visible = True End Sub I have a breakpoint on the UploadedComplete event but it never fires. However, if you take the AsyncFileUpload control out of the <div>, making it visible at initial page render, the control works as expected. So, is this a bug within the AsynchUploadControl, or am I not grasping a fundamental concept (which happens regularly)?

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  • ASP.Net: Adding client side onClick to a HyperlinkField in GridView

    - by Nir
    I have an existing GridView which contains the field "partner name". It is sortable by partner name. Now I need to change the Partner Name field and in some condition make it clickable and alert() something. The existing code is: <asp:GridView ID="gridViewAdjustments" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AllowSorting="True" OnSorting="gridView_Sorting" OnRowDataBound="OnRowDataBoundAdjustments" EnableViewState="true"> <asp:BoundField DataField="PartnerName" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="PartnerName"/> I've added the column: <asp:hyperlinkfield datatextfield="PartnerName" SortExpression="PartnerName" headertext="Name" ItemStyle-CssClass="text2"/> which enables me to control the CSS and sort. However, I can't find how to add a client side javascript function to it. I found that adding : <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Edit"> <ItemTemplate> <a id="lnk" runat="server">Edit</a> enable me to access "lnk" by id and add to its attributes. However, I lose the Sort ability. What's the correct solution in this case? Thanks.

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  • C# mvc2 client side form validation with xval, prevent post

    - by Rob
    I'm using xval to use client side validation in my asp.net mvc2 webapplication. Despite the errors it's giving when i enter text in a nummeric field it still tries to post the form to the database. The incorrect values are being replaced by 0 and saved to the database. But instead it shouldn't even be possible to try and submit the form. Can anyone help me out here? I've set the attributes as below; [Property] [ShowColumnInCrud(true, label = "FromPriceInCents")] [Required] //[Range(1, Int32.MaxValue)] public virtual Int32 FromPriceInCents{ get; set; } The controller catching the request looks as below; I'm getting no errors in this part. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [Transaction] [ValidateInput(false)] public override ActionResult Create() { //some foo happens } My view looks like below; <div class="label"><label for="Price">FromPrice</label></div> <div class="field"> <%= Html.TextBox("FromPriceInCents")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("product.FromPriceInCents")%></div> And at the end of the view i have the following rule which in html code generates the correct validation rules <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<Product>("Product") %> I hope someone can helps me out with this issue, thanks in advance!

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  • How to check for server side update in iPhone application Web service request

    - by Nirmal
    Hello All.... I have kind of Listing application for iPhone application, which always calling a web service to my php server and fetching the data and displaying it onto iPhone screen. Now, the thing to consider in this scenario is, my iPhone application everytime requesting on the server and fetching the data. But now my requirement is like I want to replace following set of actions with above one : - Everytime when my application is launched in iPhone, it should check for the new data at the server`. - And if server replies "true" then only my iPhone application will made a request to fetch the data. - In case of "false", my iPhone application will display the data which is already cached in local phone memory. Now to implement this scenario at server side (which has php, mysql), I am planning with the following solution : Table : tblNewerData id newDataFlag == ============ 1 true Trigger : tgrUpdateNewData Above trigger will update the tblNewerData - newDataFlag field on Insert case of my main table. And every time my iPhone app will request for tblNewerData-newDataFlag field, and if it found true then only it will create new request, and if it founds false then the cached version of data will be displayed. So, I want to know that, is it the correct way to do so ? or else any other smart option available ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a workaround for JDBC w/liquibase and MySQL session variables & client side SQL instructions

    - by David
    Slowly building a starter changeSet xml file for one of three of my employer's primary schema's. The only show stopper has been incorporating the sizable library of MySQL stored procedures to be managed by liquibase. One sproc has been somewhat of a pain to deal with: The first few statements go like use TargetSchema; select "-- explanatory inline comment thats actually useful --" into vDummy; set @@session.sql_mode='TRADITIONAL' ; drop procedure if exists adm_delete_stats ; delimiter $$ create procedure adm_delete_stats( ...rest of sproc I cut out the use statement as its counter-productive, but real issue is the set @@session.sql_mode statement which causes an exception like liquibase.exception.MigrationFailedException: Migration failed for change set ./foobarSchema/sprocs/adm_delete_stats.xml::1293560556-151::dward_autogen dward: Reason: liquibase.exception.DatabaseException: Error executing SQL ... And then the delimiter statement is another stumbling block. Doing do dilligence research I found this rejected MySQL bug report here and this MySQL forum thread that goes a little bit more in depth to the problem here. Is there anyway I can use the sproc scripts that currently exist with Liquibase or would I have to re-write several hundred stored procedures? I've tried createProcedure, sqlFile, and sql liquibase tags without much luck as I think the core issue is that set, delimiter, and similar SQL commands are meant to be interpreted and acted upon by the client side interpreter before being delivered to the server.

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  • RMI on client side generating exception when getting a reference to the RMI server

    - by Noona
    When I try to run an RMI client after running the RMI server I get the following exception: EncodeInterface exception: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy30 cannot be cast to hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodeInterface java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy30 cannot be cast to hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodeInterface at hw2.chat.backend.main.EncodingRmiClient.initialiseRMIClient(EncodingRmiClient.java:26) And the relevant code in the RMI client is: EncodeInterface encodeInterface; Registry registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(host, portNumber); encodeInterface = (EncodeInterface)registry.lookup("RmiEncodingServer"); //line 26 And in the RMI server: try { EncodeInterface encodeInterface = new EncoderImpl(); Registry registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(); registry.rebind("RmiEncodingServer", encodeInterface); System.out.println("RmiEncodingServer is running..."); } EncodeInterface is the interface that extends Remote and that is present in the client side too. Host is "127.0.0.1" and portNumber is 1099 (I am assuming it should be the default value which is 1099 since I didn't specify it when I ran my RmiEncodingServer). If I don’t run the RMI server I get the same exception, any ideas as to why this is happening? thanks

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  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

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  • Enable/disable RequiredValidator on client-side / CustomValidator not firing

    - by Simeon
    I've got a drop-down where the user selects a Country. It is a required "field". Next to it, there is a textfield named State. If the user selects US, then the field State is required. If the user selects e.g. Sweden, the State is not required, since Sweden has no states. Example code: <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="Country"></asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="Country" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="State"></asp:TextBox> <asp:CustomValidator ClientValidationFunction="DoesntGetFiredIfStateIsEmpty" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> <!-- SO, RATHER THIS TOGETHER WITH CONDITIONAL FIRING --> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ControlToValidate="State" runat="server" Display="Static" ErrorMessage="Required field" /> My question to you is: How can I make this CustomValidator fire validation when it is empty? Or put simplier: How can I make a RequiredValidator fire conditionally? Or simplest: How can I enable/disable a RequiredValidator on client-side?

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  • FILE* issue PPU side code

    - by Cristina
    We are working on a homework on CELL programming for college and their feedback response to our questions is kinda slow, thought i can get some faster answers here. I have a PPU side code which tries to open a file passed down through char* argv[], however this doesn't work it cannot make the assignment of the pointer, i get a NULL. Now my first idea was that the file isn't in the correct directory and i copied in every possible and logical place, my second idea is that maybe the PPU wants this pointer in its LS area, but i can't deduce if that's the bug or not. So... My question is what am i doing wrong? I am working with a Fedora 7 SDK Cell, with Eclipse as an IDE. Maybe my argument setup is wrong tho he gets the name of the file correctly. Code on request: images_t *read_bin_data(char *name) { FILE *file; images_t *img; uint32_t *buffer; uint8_t buf; unsigned long fileLen; unsigned long i; //Open file file = (FILE*)malloc(sizeof(FILE)); file = fopen(name, "rb"); printf("[Debug]Opening file %s\n",name); if (!file) { fprintf(stderr, "Unable to open file %s", name); return NULL; } //....... } Main launch: int main(int argc,char* argv[]) { int i,img_width; int modif_this[4] __attribute__ ((aligned(16))) = {1,2,3,4}; images_t *faces, *nonfaces; spe_context_ptr_t ctxs[SPU_THREADS]; pthread_t threads[SPU_THREADS]; thread_arg_t arg[SPU_THREADS]; //intializare img_width img_width = atoi(argv[1]); printf("[Debug]Img size is %i\n",img_width); faces = read_bin_data(argv[3]); //....... } Thanks for the help.

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  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • How to show a server side error message in a popup using php

    - by Fero
    Hi all, I found some of the similar questions here but they are all in C#. So kindly tell me the easiest way to show the server side error message using popup. The popup may be anything like thickbox, modalpopup etc... Here is the sample code. I didn't get the error message in the popup. <script type="text/javascript" src="thickbox/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="thickbox/thickbox.js"></script> <link href="thickbox/thickbox.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <span class="prtexterror" style="color:#FF0000;display:none;" id="hiddenModalContent" >{$error_login}</span> {literal} <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { tb_show("Please, login", "?tb_inline=true&inlineId=hiddenModalContent&height=180&width=300&modal=true", null); }); </script> {/literal} Any other ways are always welcome. thanks in advance

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  • Javascript function using "this = " gives "Invalid left-hand side in assignment"

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I am trying to get a Javascript object to use the "this" assignments of another objects' constructor, as well as assume all that objects' prototype functions. Here's an example of what I'm attempting to accomplish: /* The base - contains assignments to 'this', and prototype functions */ function ObjX(a,b) { this.$a = a, $b = b; } ObjX.prototype.getB() { return this.$b; } function ObjY(a,b,c) { // here's what I'm thinking should work: this = ObjX(a, b * 12); /* and by 'work' I mean ObjY should have the following properties: * ObjY.$a == a, ObjY.$b == b * 12, * and ObjY.getB() == ObjX.prototype.getB() * ... unfortunately I get the error: * Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment */ this.$c = c; // just to further distinguish ObjY from ObjX. } I'd be grateful for your thoughts on how to have ObjY subsume ObjX's assignments to 'this' (i.e. not have to repeat all the this.$* = * assignments in ObjY's constructor) and have ObjY assume ObjX.prototype. My first thought is to try the following: function ObjY(a,b,c) { this.prototype = new ObjX(a,b*12); } Ideally I'd like to learn how to do this in a prototypal way (i.e. not have to use any of those 'classic' OOP substitutes like Base2). It may be noteworthy that ObjY will be anonymous (e.g. factory['ObjX'] = function(a,b,c) { this = ObjX(a,b*12); ... }) -- if I've the terminology right. Thank you.

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  • Call ASP.NET 2.0 Server side code from Javascript

    - by Kannabiran
    I'm struggling with this for the past 3 days. I need to call asp.net serverside code from Javascript when the user closes the browser. I'm using the following code to accomplish this. In my asp.net form I have various validation controls. Even if there are some validation errors, When I close the form the server side code works perfectly in my development box(windows 7). But the same code doesnt work in my production environment(windows server). Does it have something to do with the Validation summary or Validation controls. The button control has Causes validation set to false. So even if there is a validation error still my form will post back. Am I correct? I suspect the form is not getting post back to the server when there is a validation error. But i'm disabling all the validation controls in the javascript before calling the button click event. Can someone throw some light on this issue. There are few blogs which suggests to use JQUERY, AJAX (Pagemethods and script manager). function ConfirmClose(e) { var evtobj = window.event ? event : e; if (evtobj == e) { //firefox if (!evtobj.clientY) { evtobj.returnValue = message; } } else { //IE if (evtobj.clientY < 0) { DisablePageValidators(); document.getElementById('<%# buttonBrowserCloseClick.ClientID %>').click(); } } } function DisablePageValidators() { if ((typeof (Page_Validators) != "undefined") && (Page_Validators != null)) { var i; for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { ValidatorEnable(Page_Validators[i], false); } } } //HTML <div style="display:none" > <asp:Button ID="buttonBrowserCloseClick" runat="server" onclick="buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click" Text="Button" Width="141px" CausesValidation="False" /> //Server Code protected void buttonBrowserCloseClick_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Some C# code goes here }

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  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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  • Validating JSP's and HTML Forms, Server-side or Client-side, or both?

    - by CitadelCSAlum
    I am aware that I can Google "HTML Form Validation" and would get a billion tutorials. I am well aware that I can use simple JavaScript to validate form input, but I have been told that this is not necessarily an efficient method. I have also heard that it is a best practice to validate both client and server-side code. OK! Well, What exactly does this mean besides writing code on both? Does it mean I do some with JavaScript and other with Servlet's or does it mean that I write identical validation methods on both? My real question is can anybody give me insight and direction as how to go about validation my HTML forms. I am using JSP's and Servlet's and I have tons of form validation to do. I have already done minor form validation with regex in Java, but want to figure out if Im heading in the right track before I write any more code. Only productive answers please, If I wanted negative feedback on how inexperienced I was, I would have gone to Reddit. Thanks!

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  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

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  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

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