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• Where to store site settings: DB? XML? CONFIG? CLASS FILES?

  - by Emin

  I am re-building a news portal of which already have a large number of visits every day. One of the major concerns when re-building this site was to maximize performance and speed. Having said this, we have done many things from caching, to all sort of other measures to ensure speed. Now towards the end of the project, I am having a dilemma of where to store my site settings that would least affect performance. The site settings will include things such as: Domain, DefaultImgPath, Google Analytics code, default emails of editors as well as more dynamic design/display feature settings such as the background color of specific DIVs and default color for links etc.. As far as I know, I have 4 choices in storing all these info. Database: Storing general settings in the DB and caching them may be a solution however, I want to limit the access to the database for only necessary and essential functions of the project which generally are insert/update/delete news items, author articles etc.. XML: I can store these settings in an XML file but I have not done this sort of thing before so I don't know what kind of problems -if any- I might face in the future. CONFIG: I can also store these settings in web.config CLASS FILE: I can hard code all these settings in a SiteSettings class, but since the site admin himself will be able to edit these settings, It may not be the best solution. Currently, I am more close to choosing web.config but letting people fiddle with it too often is something I do not want. E.g. if somehow, I miss out a validation for something and it breaks the web.config, the whole site will go down. My concern basically is that, I cannot forsee any possible consequences of using any of the methods above (or is there any other?), I was hoping to get this question over to more experienced people out here who hopefully help make my decision.

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• How can I exclude words with apostrophes when reading into a table of strings?

  - by rearden

  ifstream fin; string temp; fin.open("engldict.txt"); if(fin.is_open()) { bool apos = false; while(!fin.eof()) { getline(fin, temp, '\n'); if(temp.length() > 2 && temp.length() < 7) { for(unsigned int i = 0; i < temp.length(); i++) { if(temp.c_str()[i] == '\'') apos = true; } if(!apos) dictionary.insert(temp); } } } This code gives me a runtime error: Unhandled exception at 0x00A50606 in Word Jumble.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000014. and throws me a break point at: size_type size() const _NOEXCEPT { // return length of sequence return (this->_Mysize); } within the xstring header. This exception is thrown no matter what character I use, so long as it is present within the words I am reading in. I am aware that it is probably a super simple fix, but I just really need another set of eyes to see it. Thanks in advance.

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• Combinationally unique MySQL tables

  - by Jack Webb-Heller

  So, here's the problem (it's probably an easy one :P) This is my table structure: CREATE TABLE `users_awards` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `award_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `duplicate` int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT '0', UNIQUE KEY `award_id` (`award_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 So it's for a user awards system. I don't want my users to be granted the same award multiple times, which is why I have a 'duplicate' field. The query I'm trying is this (with sample data of 3 and 2) : INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('3','2') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1 So my MySQL is a little rusty, but I set user_id to be a primary key, and award_id to be a UNIQUE key. This (kind of) created the desired effect. When user 1 was given award 2, it entered. If he/she got this twice, only one row would be in the table, and duplicate would be set to 1. And again, 2, etc. When user 2 was given award 1, it entered. If he/she got this twice, duplicate updated, etc. etc. But when user 1 is given award 1 (after user 2 has already been awarded it), user 2 (with award 1)'s duplicate field increases and nothing is added to user 1. Sorry if that's a little n00bish. Really appreciate the help! Jack

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• Two entities with @ManyToOne should join the same table

  - by Ivan Yatskevich

  I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

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• What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

  - by Rupert

  Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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• How to enter text into the "Write something..." box on Facebook and click Submit

  - by Peter Payne

  Hello, I am trying to manipulate Facebook pages in various ways, using Javascript browser elements. I'd need to be able to insert some text into the top "Type something..." box that shows on my site's fan page (or alternately, "click into" the field and I can type the text using GUI scripting), then click the "submit" button as if i'd done it by hand. It's tricky since the page is very Ajax heavy and I can't find the names of the elements I need to manipulate, let alone how to manipulate them as they're not using traditional form fields I'm used to. Can anyone help me figure out how to do this with javascript commands, which I'd be calling from Applescript on the Mac? Many thanks in advance. UPDATE Thanks for the comments below. Believe me, I am not trying to do anything spammy or douchy, mainly posting links to products that have gone live on page facebook page, but do it during the business day when people are on rather than at strange hours of the day. I am located in Japan so my sleep period is right when people are using FB. The solution I came up with for clicking the button was got using UI Browser, an outstanding tool if you're trying to script on the Mac. The script that clicked the button for me was: tell application "Safari" activate set thename to name of (get current tab of window 1) delay 3 tell application "System Events" tell process "Safari" try click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 3 of window thename -- this one works on the mini? on error click button "Share" of group 1 of group 2 of list 3 of group 9 of UI element 1 of scroll area 1 of group 2 of window thename -- did not work end try end tell end tell end tell Hope this is useful to anyone.

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• LinqToSQL: Not possible to update PrimaryKey?

  - by Zuhaib

  I have a simple table (lets call it Table1) that has a NVARCHAR field as the PK. Table1 has no association with any other tables. When I update Table1's PK column using LinqToSQL it fails. If I update other column it succeeds. I could delete this row and insert new one in Table1, but I don't want to. There is a transaction table which has Table1's PK column as a column. When the PK of Table1 is changed I want no effect in the transaction table. But when the row from Table1 is deleted, I want the transaction rows to be deleted. The cascading is done via Trigger. As there is not association between these two tables, if I update the PK column of Table1 using normal SQL, it works and there is no effect on the transaction table as expected. When I delete the row the trigger deletes the rows from transaction table. For this reason I can't delete and then add new row in Table1. So what can be done to successfully update the PrimaryKey of the Table1?

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• Creating a global variable on the fly. [PHP ENCRYPTION]

  - by stormdrain

  Is there a way to dynamically create constant variables on the fly? The idea is that upon logging into the system, a user would be asked to upload a small text file that would be fread, and assigned to a var that would be accessible throughout the system. If this is possible, just to be clear, would this variable then only be accessible to that user and only while the session is alive? Security being the main concern here, would it be more practical to store the var in a session variable? The plan: Data in the db will be encrypted via mcrypt, and the key will be stored on USB thumbdrives. The user will insert the thumbdrive when going to access the system. Upon logging in, the app will prompt the user to upload the key. They will navigate to the thumbdrive and key. Via fopen and fread, the key will be assigned to a global var which will then allow access to encrypted data, and will be used to encrypt new info being entered to the db. When the user logs out, or session times out, the global var will become empty. Thanks!

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• In SQL can I return a tables with a varying number of columns

  - by Matt

  I have a somewhat more complicated scenario, but I think it should be possible. I have a large SPROC whose result is a set of characteristics for a set of persons. So the Table would look something like this: Property | Client1 Client 2 Client3 ----------------------------------------------------------- Sex | M F M Age | 67 56 67 Income | Low Mid Low It's built using cursors, iterating over different datasets. The problem I am facing is that there is a varying number of Clients and Properties, so an equally valid result over different input sets might be: Property | Client1 Client 2 ------------------------------------------- Sex | M F Age | 67 56 Weight | 122 122 The different number of properties is easy, those are just extra rows. My problem is that I need to declare a temporary table with a varying number of columns. There could be 2 clients or 100. Every client in guaranteed to have every property ultimately listed. What SQL structure would statisfy this and how can I declare it and insert things into it? I can't just flip the columns and rows either because there is a variable number of each.

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• PostgreSQL: return select count(*) from old_ids;

  - by Alexander Farber

  Hello, please help me with 1 more PL/pgSQL question. I have a PHP-script run as daily cronjob and deleting old records from 1 main table and few further tables referencing its "id" column: create or replace function quincytrack_clean() returns integer as $BODY$ begin create temp table old_ids (id varchar(20)) on commit drop; insert into old_ids select id from quincytrack where age(QDATETIME) > interval '30 days'; delete from hide_id where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_mks where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_cl where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from related_comment where id in (select id from old_ids); delete from quincytrack where id in (select id from old_ids); return select count(*) from old_ids; end; $BODY$ language plpgsql; And here is how I call it from the PHP script: $sth = $pg->prepare('select quincytrack_clean()'); $sth->execute(); if ($row = $sth->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) printf("removed %u old rows\n", $row['count']); Why do I get the following error? SQLSTATE[42601]: Syntax error: 7 ERROR: syntax error at or near "select" at character 9 QUERY: SELECT select count(*) from old_ids CONTEXT: SQL statement in PL/PgSQL function "quincytrack_clean" near line 23 Thank you! Alex

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• After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

  - by Brandi

  I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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• Receive JSON payload with ZEND framework and / or PHP

  - by kent3800

  I'm receiving a JSON payload from a webservice at my site's internal webpage at /asset/setjob. The following is the JSON payload being posted to /asset/setjob: [{"job": {"source_filename": "beer-drinking-pig.mpg", "current_step": "waiting_for_file", "encoding_profile_id": "nil", "resolution": "nil", "status_url": "http://example.com/api/v1/jobs/1.json", "id": 1, "bitrate": "nil", "current_status": "waiting for file", "current_progress": "nil", "remote_id": "my-own-remote-id"}}] This payload posts one time to this page. The page is not meant for viewing but parsing the JSON object for the id and current_status so that I can insert it into a database. I'm using Zend framework. HOW DO I receive this payload in Zend? Do I $_GET['json']? $_POST['job']? None of these seem to work. I essentially need to assign this payload to a php variable so that I can then manipulate it. I've tried: $jsonStrGet = var_dump($_GET); $jsonStrPost = var_dump($_POST); And I've tried: $response = $this-getResponse(); $body = $response-getBody(); Blockquote Any help would be much appreciated! Thanks.

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• Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

  - by b-gen-jack-o-neill

  Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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• Search dir using wildcard string, return filename, and loop.

  - by Charlie Murphy

  Hello all, I'm having some problems, and looking for some help. I'm trying to create a photo gallery in javascript, that will be able to 'update' it's self automatically. I need to be able to search a directory, and grab a file with a specific prefix. I need to output the followng HTML code: <li><a href="images/resize_FILENAME.ext"><img src="images/thumb_FILENAME.ext"></a></li> The 'resize_' and 'thumb_' use a timestamp to identify, so they have the same ending, just a different prefix. So, for example, if I search the directory for an image with a prefix of 'resize_', I need to insert that into the a tag, and then remove the '_resize' prefix, and add the '_thumb' prefix for the img tag. I then need to be able to do that for each image in the directory. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Oh, I should add: I'm assuming php would be easiest for this, but if an alternative exists that would work too. I'm also using jQuery if javascript would be better.

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• Replacing a unicode character in UTF-8 file using delphi 2010

  - by Jake Snake

  I am trying to replace character (decimal value 197) in a UTF-8 file with character (decimal value 65) I can load the file and put it in a string (may not need to do that though) SS := TStringStream.Create(ParamStr1, TEncoding.UTF8); SS.LoadFromFile(ParamStr1); //S:= SS.DataString; //ShowMessage(S); However, how do i replace all 197's with a 65, and save it back out as UTF-8? SS.SaveToFile(ParamStr2); SS.Free; -------------- EDIT ---------------- reader:= TStreamReader.Create(ParamStr1, TEncoding.UTF8); writer:= TStreamWriter.Create(ParamStr2, False, TEncoding.UTF8); while not Reader.EndOfStream do begin S:= reader.ReadLine; for I:= 1 to Length(S) do begin if Ord(S[I]) = 350 then begin Delete(S,I,1); Insert('A',S,I); end; end; writer.Write(S + #13#10); end; writer.Free; reader.Free;

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• Is it a good idea to use an integer column for storing US ZIP codes in a database?

  - by Yadyn

  From first glance, it would appear I have two basic choices for storing ZIP codes in a database table: Text (probably most common), i.e. char(5) or varchar(9) to support +4 extension Numeric, i.e. 32-bit integer Both would satisfy the requirements of the data, if we assume that there are no international concerns. In the past we've generally just gone the text route, but I was wondering if anyone does the opposite? Just from brief comparison it looks like the integer method has two clear advantages: It is, by means of its nature, automatically limited to numerics only (whereas without validation the text style could store letters and such which are not, to my knowledge, ever valid in a ZIP code). This doesn't mean we could/would/should forgo validating user input as normal, though! It takes less space, being 4 bytes (which should be plenty even for 9-digit ZIP codes) instead of 5 or 9 bytes. Also, it seems like it wouldn't hurt display output much. It is trivial to slap a ToString() on a numeric value, use simple string manipulation to insert a hyphen or space or whatever for the +4 extension, and use string formatting to restore leading zeroes. Is there anything that would discourage using int as a datatype for US-only ZIP codes?

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• C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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• How do I rewrite .after( content, content )?

  - by Evan Carroll

  I've got this form working, but according to my previous question it might not be supported: it isn't in the docs either way -- but the intention is pretty obvious in the code. $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) , $('<span>OEM</span>') /*Notice this (a second) argument */ ); What this does is insert <div class="little check"> with a simple .click() callback, followed by a sibling of <span>OEM</span>. How else can I write this then? I'm having difficulty conjuring something working by chaining any combination of .after(), and .insertAfter()? I would expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ).after ( $('<span>OEM</span>') ) ); I would also expect this to work, but it doesn't: $(".section.warranty .warranty_checks :last").after( $('<span>OEM</span>').insertAfter( $('<div class="little check" />').click( function () { alert('hi') } ) ); );

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• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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• "Special case" records for foreign key constraints

  - by keithjgrant

  Let's say I have a mysql table, called foo with a foreign key option_id constrained to the option table. When I create a foo record, the user may or may not have selected an option, and 'no option' is a viable selection. What is the best way to differentiate between 'null' (i.e. the user hasn't made a selection yet) and 'no option' (i.e. the user selected 'no option')? Right now, my plan is to insert a special record into the option table. Let's say that winds up with an id of 227 (this table already has a number of records at this point, so '1' isn't available). I have no need to access this record at a database level, and it would act as nothing more than a placeholder that the foreign key in the foo table can reference. So do I just hard-code '227' in my codebase when I'm creating 'foo' records where the user has selected 'no option'? The hard-coded id seems sloppy, and leaves room for error as the code is maintained down the road, but I'm not really sure of another approach.

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• Does The Clear Method On A Collection Release The Event Subscriptions?

  - by DaveB

  I have a collection private ObservableCollection<Contact> _contacts; In the constructor of my class I create it _contacts = new ObservableCollection<Contact>(); I have methods to add and remove items from my collection. I want to track changes to the entities in my collection which implement the IPropertyChanged interface so I subscribe to their PropertyChanged event. public void AddContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Add(contact); } public void AddContact(int index, Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(Contact_PropertyChanged); _contacts.Insert(index, contact); } When I remove an entity from the collection, I unsubscribe from the PropertyChanged event. I am told this is to allow the entity to be garbage collected and not create memory issues. public void RemoveContact(Contact contact) { ((INotifyPropertyChanged)contact).PropertyChanged -= Contact_PropertyChanged; _contacts.Remove(contact); } So, I hope this is all good. Now, I need to clear the collection in one of my methods. My first thought would be to call _contacts.Clear(). Then I got to wondering if this releases those event subscriptions? Would I need to create my own clear method? Something like this: public void ClearContacts() { foreach(Contact contact in _contacts) { this.RemoveContact(contact); } } I am hoping one of the .NET C# experts here could clear this up for me or tell me what I am doing wrong.

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• Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

  - by eman

  Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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• Passing jquery JSON from Codeigniter controller to view

  - by dede

  I've been struggling to make it work, but cannot pass the inserted data from the controler to the view in CI using JSON. The input value from the form is successfully inserted into the database, but cannot make it appear in the view. This is my view file ajax_view.php: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php echo base_url(); ?>js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ var inp = $('#inp').val(); $.post("ajax/ajax_input", { 'send' : inp }, function(data){ alert(data.input_text); }, "json"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" method="post" action=""> <label for="inp">Text</label> <input type="text" name="inp" id="inp" /> <label for="submit"></label> <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit" /> And this is the ajax_input method of the ajax.php controller: <?php // Initializing controller ..... // ............................. //ajax method function ajax_input(){ $var_1 = trim($this->input->post('send')); $array = array('input_text' => $var_1); echo json_encode($array); $this->db->insert('ajax',$array); } Trying to debug it with Firebug, it gives me that data.input_text is empty. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: I'm using XAMPP on Win, so is it posible that json configuration is the problem?

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• MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

  - by cbp

  Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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• inserting unique date into txt document

  - by durian

  I'm trying this script to insert only a unique date into a text file, but it isn't working properly: $log_file_name = "logfile.txt"; $log_file_path = "log_files/$id/$log_file_name"; if(file_exists($log_file_path)){ $not = "not"; $todaydate = date('d,m,Y'); $today = "$todaydate;"; $strlength = strlen($today); $file_contents = file_get_contents($log_file_path); $file_contents_arry = explode(";",$file_contents); if(!in_array($todaytodaydate,$file_contents_arry)){ $append = fopen($log_file_path, 'a'); $write = fwrite($append,$today); //writes our string to our file. $close = fclose($append); //closes our file } else { $append = fopen($log_file_path, 'a'); $write = fwrite($append,$not); //writes our string to our file. $close = fclose($append); //closes our file } } else{ mkdir("log_files/$id", 0700); $todaydate = date('d,m,Y'); $today = "$todaydate;"; $strlength = strlen($today); $create = fopen($log_file_path, "w"); $write = fwrite($create, $today, $strlength); //writes our string to our file. $close = fclose($create); //closes our file } The problem is with the if else statement where it should be written if it's already in the array.

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