Search Results

Search found 18860 results on 755 pages for 'enigma machine'.

Page 281/755 | < Previous Page | 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288  | Next Page >

  • How-to diagnose and fix such "on-site" crash of dotnet application?

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    Hello! I'm working on some application which has auto-update function. The implemented idea is simple as following: - There are some "starter" application which is installed to "Program Files/whatever/...". It's the application which is intended to be started by user. - Each time the "starter" application is executed it checks server for updates and downloads it to "%APPDATA%/some/...". And then it starts some application from that folder. Above approach is working on my development machine (running Vista) and on some other machines under XP, but under some different machine (running Windows 7) it isn't working. When "starter" executes the real application it crashes with some unknown problem (Signature = System.UnauthorizedAccess). When real application is executed manually from %APPDATA%/some/ folder then everything is working fine. I've tried to set same working directory in ProcessStartInfo, so "starter" will also execute real application in that folder, but this isn't helped me. How can I diagnose and/or fix that issue?

    Read the article

  • Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

    - by justSteve
    I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

    Read the article

  • Periodic GPU performance problem

    - by Peter Lillevold
    Hi folks! I have a WinForms application that uses XNA to animate 3D models in a control. The app have been doing just fine for months but recently I've started to experience periodic pauses in the animation. Setting out to investigate what is going on I have established these facts: It (currently) happens on my machine only Removing everything from my render loop does not improve the problem In 2. I didn't actually remove everything, I limited my loop to set the viewport on my GraphicsDevice and then do a GraphicsDevice.Present. Trying to dig further I fired up PIX to capture some statistics. Screenshots of two PIX runs can be viewed here (Run6) and here (Run14). Run6 is using my original render loop and Run14 is using the bare-bones Present loop. PIX tells me that the GPU is periodically doing something, and I assume this is causing the pauses. What could be the cause of this? Or how do I go about finding out what the GPU is actually doing? Note: I'm using XNA 3.1 on a Windows 7 x64 dual-core machine with 8GB RAM. Note2: also posted this question on the XNA Creators forums here.

    Read the article

  • Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

    - by MaseBase
    I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

    Read the article

  • Boost Include Files in VC++

    - by Dr. K
    For the last few years, I have been exclusively a C# developer. Previously, I developed in C++ and have a C++ application that I built about 3 years ago using VS2005. It made extensive use of the Boost libraries. I recently decided to brush off the old app and rebuild it in VS2008 with the latest version of Boost (the latest version with the "easy" installation program from BoostPro Computing), 1.39. Previously when I had the program running I was at 1.33. Also, the last time the program was running was at least 2 OS installations ago. The Boost installation is located on my machine at: "C:\Program Files\boost\boost_1_39". Anyway, I have done the following: Set the project's "Additional Include Directories" directory to "C:\Program Files\boost\boost_1_39" Added "C:\Program Files\boost\boost_1_39" to VS2008's Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - VC++ Directories - Include Files I have a number of Boost includes in my stdafx.h file. The compiler fails upon attempting to open the first one - #include <boost/algorithm/string/string.hpp> I have confirmed that the above file is indeed located at "C:\Program Files\boost\boost_1_39\boost\algorithm\string\string.hpp" I continue to get: fatal error C1083: Cannot open include file: 'boost/algorithm/string/string.hpp': No such file or directory Any tips on what else to check would be greatly appreciated. Again, this is an application that compiled fine a few years ago, but the source has now been moved to a new machine/compiler.

    Read the article

  • javac will not compile enum, ( Windows Sun 1.6 --> OpenJDK 1.6)

    - by avgvstvs
    package com.scheduler.process; public class Process { public enum state { NOT_SUBMITTED, SUBMITTED, BLOCKED, READY, RUNNING, COMPLETED } private state currentState; public state getCurrentState() { return currentState; } public void setCurrentState(state currentState) { this.currentState = currentState; } } package com.scheduler.machine; import com.scheduler.process.Process; import com.scheduler.process.Process.state; public class Machine { com.scheduler.process.Process p = new com.scheduler.process.Process(); state s = state.READY; //fails if I don't also explicitly import Process.state p.setCurrentState(s); //says I need a declarator id after 's'... this is wrong. p.setCurrentState(state.READY); } Modified the example to try and direct to the issue. I cannot change the state on this code. Eclipse suggests importing Process.state like I had on my previous example, but this doesn't work either. This allows state s = state.READY but the call to p.setCurrentState(s); fails as does p.setCurrentState(state.READY);

    Read the article

  • Design for fastest page download

    - by mexxican
    I have a file with millions of URLs/IPs and have to write a program to download the pages really fast. The connection rate should be at least 6000/s and file download speed at least 2000 with avg. 15kb file size. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps. My approach so far has been: Creating 600 socket threads with each having 60 sockets and using WSAEventSelect to wait for data to read. As soon as a file download is complete, add that memory address(of the downloaded file) to a pipeline( a simple vector ) and fire another request. When the total download is more than 50Mb among all socket threads, write all the files downloaded to the disk and free the memory. So far, this approach has been not very successful with the rate at which I could hit not shooting beyond 2900 connections/s and downloaded data rate even less. Can somebody suggest an alternative approach which could give me better stats. Also I am working windows server 2008 machine with 8 Gig of memory. Also, do we need to hack the kernel so as we could use more threads and memory. Currently I can create a max. of 1500 threads and memory usage not going beyond 2 gigs [ which technically should be much more as this is a 64-bit machine ]. And IOCP is out of question as I have no experience in that so far and have to fix this application today. Thanks Guys!

    Read the article

  • TCP/IP RST being sent differently in different browsers.

    - by Brian
    On Mac OS X (10.6), if I start a YouTube video download and pull the Ethernet cable for 5 or so seconds, then plug it back in, I get varying results depending on the browser. With Opera and Chrome, after I plug the cable back in the video continues to load. But with Safari and Firefox, it never does. Using Wireshark to look at the traffic, I found that Opera and Chrome simply ACK the first packet from YouTube after the cable has been plugged back in, but Safari and Firefox set the RST flag (0x4) in the TCP header and no more traffic follows. I can put a HUB in between the machine and the internet connection, the problem goes away and all four browsers continue loading the video when the cable is plugged back into the HUB. Again, looking at the Wireshark logs, it's evident that the machine doesn't see the Mulitcast connection close and there is simply a delay in the packets flowing through. So it seems that if Safari and Firefox sees a Multicast connection close, and then later see data on that same connection, they will send a RST. My question is why? What is the correct course of action, and why are 2/4 browsers doing it one way, while the other 2/4 are doing it another way? Is there somewhere in the code that I can see where this is happening in Firefox, for instance? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • IIS6 throws error for jquery.

    - by user309557
    Hi, on my master page, I have referenced jquery file. I am doing simple hover function. When mouse hover, I change the css and when hover out, change the css back to originial. Nothing fancy. but my page throws jquery error when I run in IIS6 on server 2003. When I run on IIS5.1 on local xp machine, it works perfectly fine. Any idea? I access both pages from my machine so IE settings is not the problem. I opened the both js file and the error line is nothing but the end of the file ( i.e last line of the js file) Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3) Timestamp: Mon, 5 Apr 2010 21:59:18 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 4377 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Syntax error Line: 6183 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Object expected Line: 189 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://server-test/myapplication/

    Read the article

  • unbuffered I/O in Linux

    - by stuck
    I'm writing lots and lots of data that will not be read again for weeks - as my program runs the amount of free memory on the machine (displayed with 'free' or 'top') drops very quickly, the amount of memory my app uses does not increase - neither does the amount of memory used by other processes. This leads me to believe the memory is being consumed by the filesystems cache - since I do not intend to read this data for a long time I'm hoping to bypass the systems buffers, such that my data is written directly to disk. I dont have dreams of improving perf or being a super ninja, my hope is to give a hint to the filesystem that I'm not going to be coming back for this memory any time soon, so dont spend time optimizing for those cases. On Windows I've faced similar problems and fixed the problem using FILE_FLAG_NO_BUFFERING|FILE_FLAG_WRITE_THROUGH - the machines memory was not consumed by my app and the machine was more usable in general. I'm hoping to duplicate the improvements I've seen but on Linux. On Windows there is the restriction of writing in sector sized pieces, I'm happy with this restriction for the amount of gain I've measured. is there a similar way to do this in Linux?

    Read the article

  • Lightbox-style dialog shows below YouTube movie on Mac OS 10.6

    - by Mark
    This is a "but it works on my machine" one and could be tricky: I have a lightbox-style HTML dialog that shows a menu on top of a web page. It can be injected into any web page via a JavaScript bookmarklet. One of my users is trying to use it on YouTube.com with the result that the flash movie is rendered on top of the dialog (a div with high z-index). I can't reproduce this. It works just fine for me. The dialog shows up on top of everything else on youtube.com, the video included. I had him save the page in Safari as Webarchive and send it to me. Even that shows the menu rendered correctly for me. I use the exact same version of Safari (4.0.5/531.22.7) and Flash (10.1 r53, latest beta). Only difference I could find is that he uses Snow Leopard (10.6.6) and I "only" 10.5.8. Has anybody noticed similar problems? I'm afraid that the usual wmode recommendation won't solve this (I tried & it works on my machine anyway)... Thanks! Mark

    Read the article

  • What's a good way to do testing a plug-in on multiple Windows and Outlook versions?

    - by Andrei
    Hello, We're building a plug-in for Outlook that should work on multiple Windows versions (XP, Vista, 7) and also with different Outlook versions (2003, 2007, 2010). The testing problem I am facing right now, is that I can't figure out a good/convenient/thorough way to test the application on multiple Windows and Outlook versions. At the moment, I have a VirtualBox which runs many virtual machines, with different Windows versions and Outlook versions. So I would have a virtual machine with Windows 7 testing Outlook 2010, and another one with Windows 7 testing Outlook 2007, Windows Vista with Outlook 2010 and so on, going through some of the possible combinations. It kind of gets the job done, although it is cumbersome and takes a long time to test. Some of the testing included in the application is unit testing, but this is also rather tied in with the machine I test it on (windows 7 with outlook 2010). For example, I was using ManagementObject recently, which worked fine on my system (and thus passed the unit test for that method), however, using that object threw an exception in another person's system, which crashed the application. I work on Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate. The questions: Is there a more elegant way to make the testing process more streamline and more efficient? Any other testing methods you recommend? How would you deal with this problem? Thanks! Looking forward to your replies.

    Read the article

  • How to repair Java in Ubuntu after trying to switch to Java 6 using update-java-alternatives

    - by Kau-Boy
    I tried to switch from Java 5 to Java 6 using the "update-java-alternatives" command like explained on this page: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/Java But afterwards I get the following error when I tried to execute java: root@webserver:~# java Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not reserve enough space for object heap Could not create the Java virtual machine. I also tried to reinstall the java binaries using "apt-get" but I didn't succeed reinstalling it. I would like to post the "apt-get" errors, but unfortunately I don't know how to print out the error messages in English and not in German. My system is a Ubuntu 8.04 ROOT server. Here is the (Google translated) english text tring to install Java 6 again: root@server:~# apt-get install sun-java6-jdk Reading package lists ... Ready Dependency tree Reading state information ... Ready sun-java6-jdk is already the newest version. sun-java6-jdk set to manually installed. 0 upgraded, 0 newly installed, 0 to remove and 86 not upgraded. 1 not fully installed or removed. After this operation, 0B of additional disk space will be used. Set up a sun-java6-bin (6-03-0ubuntu2) ... Could not create the Java virtual machine. dpkg: error processing sun-java6-bin (- configure): Subprocess post-installation script returned error exit status 1 Errors were encountered while processing: sun-java6-bin E: Sub-process / usr / bin / dpkg returned an error code (1) I hope that this might help you helping me.

    Read the article

  • Why might one app connect to SQL backend OK and a second app fail if they share the same connectionstring?

    - by hawbsl
    Trying to figure out a SQL connection error 26 in our app. We've got two closely related apps Foo and FooAddIn. Foo is a Winforms app built in VS2010 and runs fine and connects fine to our SQLExpress back end. FooAddIn is an Outlook AddIn which references Foo.exe and connects to the same SQL Express instance. Or rather, it doesn't connect, instead reporting: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) Now, both apps share the same connectionstring and we've verified they really do share the same connectionstring. At this stage we're just testing from within the same developer machine, so the apps are on the same machine, going via the same VS2010 IDE. So a lot of the advice online for this error doesn't apply because the fact that Foo connects through to SQL Express tells us the database is there and available and can be reached. What else is there to check? One thing is that Foo and FooAddIn are running different runtime versions of System.Data (v2.0.50727 and v4.0.30319). Could that be a factor?

    Read the article

  • Strange performance behaviour

    - by plastilino
    I'm puzzled with this. In my machine Direct calculation: 375 ms Method calculation: 3594 ms, about TEN times SLOWER If I place the method calulation BEFORE the direct calculation, both times are SIMILAR. Woud you check it in your machine? class Test { static long COUNT = 50000 * 10000; private static long BEFORE; /*--------METHOD---------*/ public static final double hypotenuse(double a, double b) { return Math.sqrt(a * a + b * b); } /*--------TIMER---------*/ public static void getTime(String text) { if (BEFORE == 0) { BEFORE = System.currentTimeMillis(); return; } long now = System.currentTimeMillis(); long elapsed = (now - BEFORE); BEFORE = System.currentTimeMillis(); if (text.equals("")) { return; } String message = "\r\n" + text + "\r\n" + "Elapsed time: " + elapsed + " ms"; System.out.println(message); } public static void main(String[] args) { double a = 0.2223221101; double b = 122333.167; getTime(""); /*--------DIRECT CALCULATION---------*/ for (int i = 1; i < COUNT; i++) { Math.sqrt(a * a + b * b); } getTime("Direct: "); /*--------METHOD---------*/ for (int k = 1; k < COUNT; k++) { hypotenuse(a, b); } getTime("Method: "); } }

    Read the article

  • Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

    - by bufferz
    I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

    Read the article

  • Can I get away with this or is it just too crude and unpractical ?

    - by The_AlienCoder
    I spent the whole of last night searching for a free AspNet web chat control that I could simply drag into my website. Well the search was in vain as I could not find a control that matched my needs i.e List of users, 1 to 1 chat, Ability to kick out users.. In the end I decided to create my own control from scractch. Although it works well on my machine Im concerned that It maybe a little crude and unpractical on a shared hosting enviroment. Basically this is what I did : Created an sql database that stores the chat messages. Wrote the stored procedures and and included a statement that clears old messages Then the 'crude' part : Dragged an update panel and timer control on my page Dragged a Repeater databound to the chat messages table inside the update panel Dragged another update panel and inside it put a textbox and a button Configured the timer control to tick every 5 seconds. ..and then I made it all work like this In the timer tick event I 'refreshed' the messages display by invoking Databind() on my repeater i.e protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyRepeater.DataBind(); } Then in my send button click event protected void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyDataLayer.InsertMessage(Message, Sender, CurrTime); } Well It works well on my machine and Ive got the other functionalities(users list, kick out user..) to work by simply creating more tables. But like I said it seems a little crude to me. so I need a proffesional opinion. Should I run with this or try another Approach ?

    Read the article

  • How to determine if a target will be executed?

    - by Scott Langham
    Hi, I'm writing an msbuild file and have something like this: <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateA</ValidateDependsOn> <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn> <Target Name="BuildA"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="BuildB"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateA"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildA --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateB"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildB --> </Target> Builds can take a while. Originally we had the Build steps depending on the Validate steps, but sometimes a validate step wouldn't run until the middle of the build and you would have wasted time getting there. So, we moved the validate steps to the start by using the ValidateDependsOn pattern to insert the targets to run up front. The problem now though is that sometimes during a build BuildB may not actually run, and this means I don't need and in fact, don't want ValidateB to run. Is there any way I can selectively update ValidateDependsOn by conditionally knowing which targets will actually be run? I'm looking for something equivalent to: <ValidateDependsOn Condition="TargetWillRun(BuildB)">$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn>

    Read the article

  • Setting up App Engine to receive email addresses with ids in the address

    - by Mark M
    I am writing an App Engine app that is supposed to receive emails in this form: [email protected] (someID is an alphanumeric ID that I generate). I have this in my web.xml thinking it would catch emails that start with 'addcontact.': <servlet> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.mycompany.server.AddNewContactServlet</servlet- class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>addNewContactServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/_ah/mail/addcontact.*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> However, both on my dev machine and on google's servers email is not received. On the dev machine I get this message (I get a similar error in the deployed log) Message send failure HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /_ah/mail/ [email protected]. Reason: NOT_FOUND I can receive email at fully specified addresses or when I use /_ah/mail/* The google documentation made me believe it was possible to include partial email addresses in web.xml. Am I not using the wildcard correctly? Does the period have something to do with it? Can this be done somehow?

    Read the article

  • What is the correct install process to setup Node.js with Windows Azure Emulator

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    This question is related to this question: Node.js running under IIS Express Keeps Crashing to which I need help with reinstalling and getting node.js up and running in windows emulator working. Hello I am reinstalling my machine: Toshiha Laptop 2 GB Ram 32 bit processor What is the correct procedure from start to finish to get node.js development working, so far nothing has worked and the emulator (IIS Express) worker processor keeps crashing. No matter how many instances they all end up crashing. Up until two weeks ago my node development was working fine, but I had to do a reinstall, and since then I haven't been doing any node.js development on windows emulator because the latest June 2012 Azure SDK for Node.js is buggy. These are the steps I have taken: 1) Reformat HD 2) Insert Windows 7 N SP1 CD 3) Reboot machine into CD installation 4) Follow and wait until Windows 7 installed 5) Run Add/Remove programs + enable IIS + IIS management tools 6) Run Windows Update (installed about 53 updates) 7) Go here http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/develop/nodejs/ 8) Click Windows Installer June 2012 and install Windows Azure SDK for Node.js - June 2012 9) Run Azure Powershell 10) Navigate to c:\node\testSite\webrole1 11) launch site: start-azureemulator -launch 12) Play around on website (then crash!) Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iisexpress.exe Application Version: 8.0.8298.0 Application Timestamp: 4f620349 Fault Module Name: iiscore.dll Fault Module Version: 8.0.8298.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 4f63b65c Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 00021767 OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.28 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: f66d Additional Information 2: f66d807b515d6b2dc6f28f66db769a01 Additional Information 3: 7b2f Additional Information 4: 7b2f6797d07ebc2c23f2b227e779722e Am I missing a step in my resintall process? Do I have all the required files to do node.js windows azure emulator development? Why is IIS Express crashing all the time? Can I still do node.js windows azure emulator development without using IIS Express and use my local Windows 7 N (SP1) IIS 7.x that comes shipped?

    Read the article

  • Doing a virus check on a file from a build script

    - by the_mandrill
    I would like to be be able to invoke a virus check as the final stage of the build process (please don't question why a dev machine would get a virus, it's just a belt-and-braces approach to avoid the risk of getting sued by customers...). Also I'd like the option of having AV on a machine but switching the auto file system protection off (at least for the build directories). What I would like is a generic way of scanning a file using whatever AV system is in place. I'm assuming that there's an Windows API to do this, given that Windows detects the presence of an AV system, and browsers such as Firefox invoke a virus scan whenever a file is downloaded. So what's the API that they're using? There's the Microsoft AntiVirus API but that seems to be specific to Office documents. Does the approach involve using WMI? (and if you can detect the AV provider from there, how do you then invoke it to scan a file?) I know that I could write the script to manually call the AV scanner that I know to be installed, but as an intellectual exercise I'm more interested to know how apps like Firefox are doing this.

    Read the article

  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

    Read the article

  • Running Java Program linking to thirdpary library (java -jar) issue ( Multiple methods tried )

    - by bamachrn
    This issue is related to running a Java program (jar) dependent on thirdparty jar library even after setting classpath and trying so many other methods by reading articles in Internet. I want to use a thirdparty Pack1.jar (it is not a part of jvm) as dependency of my programme. I do not know where the Pack1.jar file could be in the deployment machine and I want the deployer to specify the path for the thirdparty libraries I have tried the following alternatives in vain Setting the java.class.path programatically String class_path = args[0]; System.setProperty("java.class.path",class_path); Here I am assuming that deployer would supply the classpath as first argument while running the program Setting the CLASSPATH env_var to locate the thirdparty directory While running, using the classpath option java -classpath /path/to/Pack1.jar -jar Pack2.jar I think this would not work because documentation says that classpath is ignored when program is run with "java -jar" Setting the java.ext.dirs programatically. Setting the java.library.path programatically. I do not want to specify the Class-Path in manifest because that takes only relative path and I do not know where the thirdparty library would be kept in deployment machine But I am unable to get the jar running. How can I fix this problem any help please.

    Read the article

  • encrypting passwords in a python conf file on a windows platform

    - by Richard
    Hello all. I have a script running on a remote machine. db info is stored in a configuration file. I want to be able to encrypt the password in the conf text so that no one can just read the file and gain access to the database. This is my current set up: My conf file sensitive info is encoded with base64 module. The main script then decodes the info. I have compiled the script using py2exe to make it a bit harder to see the code. My question is: Is there a better way of doing this? I know that base64 is not a very safe way of encrypting. Is there a way to encode using a key? I also know that py2exe can be reversed engineered very easily and the key could be found. Any other thoughts? I am also running this script on a windows machine, so any modules that are suggested should be able to run in a windows environment with ease. I know there are several other posts on this topic but I have not found one with a windows solution, or at least one that is will explained.

    Read the article

  • Windows service (hosting WCF service) stops immediately on start up

    - by Thr33Dii
    My Question: I cannot navigate to the base address once the service is installed because the service won't remain running (stops immediately). Is there anything I need to do on the server or my machine to make the baseAddress valid? Background: I'm trying to learn how to use WCF services hosted in Windows Services. I have read several tutorials on how to accomplish this and it seems very straight forward. I've looked at this MSDN article and built it step-by-step. I can install the service on my machine and on a server, but when I start the service, it stops immediately. I then found this tutorial, which is essentially the same thing, but it contains some clients that consume the WCF service. I downloaded the source code, compiled, installed, but when I started the service, it stopped immediately. Searching SO, I found a possible solution that said to define the baseAddress when instantiating the ServiceHost, but that didnt help either. My serviceHost is defined as: serviceHost = new ServiceHost( typeof( CalculatorService ), new Uri( "http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service" ) ); My service name, base address, and endpoint: <service name="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.CalculatorService" behaviorConfiguration="CalculatorServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ICalculator"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> I've verified the namespaces are identical. It's just getting frustrating that the tutorials seem to assume that the Windows service will start as long as all the stated steps are followed. I'm missing something and it's probably right in front of me. Please help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288  | Next Page >