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  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

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  • Alpha blending colors in .NET Compact Framwork 2.0

    - by Adam Haile
    In the Full .NET framework you can use the Color.FromArgb() method to create a new color with alpha blending, like this: Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, color); or Color blended = Color.FromArgb(alpha, red, green , blue); However in the Compact Framework (2.0 specifically), neither of those prototypes are valid, you only get: Color.FromArgb(int red, int green, int blue); and Color.FromArgb(int val); The first one, obviously, doesn't even let you enter an alpha value, but the documentation for the latter shows that "val" is a 32bit ARGB value (as 0xAARRGGBB as opposed to the standard 24bit 0xRRGGBB), so it would make sense that you could just build the ARGB value and pass it to the function. I tried this with the following: private Color FromARGB(byte alpha, byte red, byte green, byte blue) { int val = (alpha << 24) | (red << 16) | (green << 8) | blue; return Color.FromArgb(val); } But no matter what I do, the alpha blending never works, the resulting color always as full opacity, even when setting the alpha value to 0. Has anyone gotten this to work on Compact Framework?

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Static Libraries on iPhone device

    - by Akusete
    I have two projects, a Cocoa iPhone application and a static library which it uses. I've tested it successfully on the iPhone simulator, but when I try to deploy it to my iPhone device I get (symbol not found) link errors. If I remove the dependancy of the library the project builds/runs fine. I have made sure all the build settings are set to iPhoneOS not the simulator. Im sure its something simple, but has anyone run into similar problems moving from iPhone simulator to device? --EDIT: I have managed to create new projects (one for the application and one for the static library), and successfully get them to run on the iPhone or simulator. But I have a very strange problem... for each specific project I cannot get it working for BOTH the device and the simulator... I have double checked the build settings, made sure the libraries that are being references are for the matching build settings (I believe) but I cannot resolve these linking errors. I think I must be doing something very wrong... all the apple documentation says 'its super simple - one click' but this is giving me a lot of problems. This is probably something to do with xCode build settings, but I cannot seem to understand why selecting the different build platforms and rebuilding the libraries does not work.

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  • Advanced All In One .NET Framework

    - by alfredo dobrekk
    Hi, i m starting a new project that would basically take input from user and save them to database among about 30 screens, and i would like to find a framework that will allow the maximum number of these features out of the box : .net c#. windows form. unit testing continuous integration screens with lists, combo boxes, text boxes, add, delete, save, cancel that are easy to update when you add a property to your classes or a field to your database. auto completion on controls to help user find its way use of an orm like nhibernate easy multithreading and display of wait screens for user easy undo redo tabbed child windows search forms ability to grant access to some functionnalities according to user profiles mvp/mvvm or whatever design patterns either some code generation from database to c# classe or generation of database schema from c# classes some kind of database versioning / upgrade to easily update database when i release patches to application once in production automatic control resizing code metrics analysis some code generator i can use against my entities that would generate some rough form i can rearrange after code documentation generator ... Any ideas ? I know its lot but i really would like to use existing code to build upon so i can focus on business rules. Could splitting the requirements on 3 or 4 existing open source framework be possible ? Do u have any suggestion to add to the list before starting ? What open source tools would u use to achieve these ?

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  • Apply a Quartz filter while saving PDF under Mac OS X 10.6.3

    - by olpa
    Using Mac OS X API, I'm trying to save a PDF file with a Quartz filter applied, just like it is possible from the "Save As" dialog in the Preview application. So far I've written the following code (using Python and pyObjC, but it isn't important for me): -- filter-pdf.py: begin from Foundation import * from Quartz import * import objc page_rect = CGRectMake (0, 0, 612, 792) fdict = NSDictionary.dictionaryWithContentsOfFile_("/System/Library/Filters/Blue \ Tone.qfilter") in_pdf = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithProvider(CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename ("test .pdf")) url = CFURLCreateWithFileSystemPath(None, "test_out.pdf", kCFURLPOSIXPathStyle, False) c = CGPDFContextCreateWithURL(url, page_rect, fdict) np = CGPDFDocumentGetNumberOfPages(in_pdf) for ip in range (1, np+1): page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(in_pdf, ip) r = CGPDFPageGetBoxRect(page, kCGPDFMediaBox) CGContextBeginPage(c, r) CGContextDrawPDFPage(c, page) CGContextEndPage(c) -- filter-pdf.py: end Unfortunalte, the filter "Blue Tone" isn't applied, the output PDF looks exactly as the input PDF. Question: what I missed? How to apply a filter? Well, the documentation doesn't promise that such way of creating and using "fdict" should cause that the filter is applied. But I just rewritten (as far as I can) sample code /Developer/Examples/Quartz/Python/filter-pdf.py, which was distributed with older versions of Mac (meanwhile, this code doesn't work too): ----- filter-pdf-old.py: begin from CoreGraphics import * import sys, os, math, getopt, string def usage (): print ''' usage: python filter-pdf.py FILTER INPUT-PDF OUTPUT-PDF Apply a ColorSync Filter to a PDF document. ''' def main (): page_rect = CGRectMake (0, 0, 612, 792) try: opts,args = getopt.getopt (sys.argv[1:], '', []) except getopt.GetoptError: usage () sys.exit (1) if len (args) != 3: usage () sys.exit (1) filter = CGContextFilterCreateDictionary (args[0]) if not filter: print 'Unable to create context filter' sys.exit (1) pdf = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithProvider (CGDataProviderCreateWithFilename (args[1])) if not pdf: print 'Unable to open input file' sys.exit (1) c = CGPDFContextCreateWithFilename (args[2], page_rect, filter) if not c: print 'Unable to create output context' sys.exit (1) for p in range (1, pdf.getNumberOfPages () + 1): #r = pdf.getMediaBox (p) r = pdf.getPage(p).getBoxRect(p) c.beginPage (r) c.drawPDFDocument (r, pdf, p) c.endPage () c.finish () if __name__ == '__main__': main () ----- filter-pdf-old.py: end

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  • JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

    - by Rabarberski
    I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

    - by romkyns
    I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

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  • Is this a good job description? What title would you give this position?

    - by Zack Peterson
    Department: Information Technology Reports To: Chief Information Officer Purpose: Company's ________________ is specifically engaged in the development of World Wide Web applications and distributed network applications. This person is concerned with all facets of the software development process and specializes in software product management. He or she contributes to projects in an application architect role and also performs individual programming tasks. Essential Duties & Responsibilities: This person is involved in all aspects of the software development process such as: Participation in software product definitions, including requirements analysis and specification Development and refinement of simulations or prototypes to confirm requirements Feasibility and cost-benefit analysis, including the choice of architecture and framework Application and database design Implementation (e.g. installation, configuration, customization, integration, data migration) Authoring of documentation needed by users and partners Testing, including defining/supporting acceptance testing and gathering feedback from pre-release testers Participation in software release and post-release activities, including support for product launch evangelism (e.g. developing demonstrations and/or samples) and subsequent product build/release cycles Maintenance Qualifications: Bachelor's degree in computer science or software engineering Several years of professional programming experience Proficiency in the general technology of the World Wide Web: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) JavaScript Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) Proficiency in the following principles, practices, and techniques: Accessibility Interoperability Usability Security (especially prevention of SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks) Object-oriented programming (e.g. encapsulation, inheritance, modularity, polymorphism, etc.) Relational database design (e.g. normalization, orthogonality) Search engine optimization (SEO) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML (AJAX) Proficiency in the following specific technologies utilized by Company: C# or Visual Basic .NET ADO.NET (including ADO.NET Entity Framework) ASP.NET (including ASP.NET MVC Framework) Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) Language Integrated Query (LINQ) Extensible Application Markup Language (XAML) jQuery Transact-SQL (T-SQL) Microsoft Visual Studio Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Microsoft SQL Server Adobe Photoshop

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  • OS X: Terminal output of javac is garbled.

    - by Don Werve
    I've got my computer set up in Japanese (hey, it's good language practice), and everything is all fine and dandy... except javac. It displays localized error messages out to the console, but they're in Shift-JIS, not UTF8: $ javac this-file-doesnt-exist.java javac: ?t?@?C??????????????: this-file-doesnt-exist.java ?g????: javac <options> <source files> ?g?p?\??I?v?V?????~??X?g?????A-help ???g?p???? If I pipe the output through nkf -w, it's readable, but that's not really much of a solution: $ javac this-file-doesnt-exist.java 2>&1 | nkf -w javac: ????????????: this-file-doesnt-exist.java ???: javac <options> <source files> ????????????????????-help ?????? Everything else works fine (with UTF8) from the command-line; I can type filenames in Japanese, tab-completion works fine, vi can edit UTF-8 files, etc. Although java itself spits out all its messages in English (which is fine). Here's the relevant bits of my environment: LC_CTYPE=UTF-8 LANG=ja_JP.UTF-8 From what it looks like, javac isn't picking up the encoding properly, and java isn't picking up the language at all. I've tried -Dfile.encoding=utf8 as well, but that does nada, and documentation on the localization of the JVM toolchain is pretty nonexistent, at least from Google.

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  • Using SiteMesh with RequestDispatcher's forward()

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm attempting to integrate SiteMesh into a legacy application using Tomcat 5 as my a container. I have a main.jsp that I'm decorating with a simple decorator. In decorators.xml, I've just got one decorator defined: <decorators defaultdir="/decorators"> <decorator name="layout-main" page="layout-main.jsp"> <pattern>/jsp/main.jsp</pattern> </decorator> </decorators> This decorator works if I manually go to http://example.com/my-webapp/jsp/main.jsp. However, there are a few places where a servlet, instead of doing a redirect to a jsp, does a forward: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/jsp/main.jsp").forward(request, response); This means that the URL remains at something like http://example.com/my-webapp/servlet/MyServlet instead of the jsp file and is therefore not being decorated, I presume since it doesn't match the pattern in decorators.xml. I can't do a <pattern>/*</pattern> because there are other jsps that do not need to be decorated by layout-main.jsp. I can't do a <pattern>/servlet/MyServlet*</pattern> because MyServlet may forward to main.jsp sometimes and perhaps error.jsp at other times. Is there a way to work around this without expansive changes to how the servlets work? Since it's a legacy app I don't have as much freedom to change things, so I'm hoping for something configuration-wise that will fix this. SiteMesh's documentation really isn't that great. I've been working mostly off the example application that comes with the distribution. I really like SiteMesh, and am hoping I can get it to work in this case.

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  • Python C API from C++ app - know when to lock

    - by Alex
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to write a C++ class that calls Python methods of a class that does some I/O operations (file, stdout) at once. The problem I have ran into is that my class is called from different threads: sometimes main thread, sometimes different others. Obviously I tried to apply the approach for Python calls in multi-threaded native applications. Basically everything starts from PyEval_AcquireLock and PyEval_ReleaseLock or just global locks. According to the documentation here when a thread is already locked a deadlock ensues. When my class is called from the main thread or other one that blocks Python execution I have a deadlock. Python Cfunc1() - C++ func that creates threads internally which lead to calls in "my class", It stuck on PyEval_AcquireLock, obviously the Python is already locked, i.e. waiting for C++ Cfunc1 call to complete... It completes fine if I omit those locks. Also it completes fine when Python interpreter is ready for the next user command, i.e. when thread is calling funcs in the background - not inside of a native call I am looking for a workaround. I need to distinguish whether or not the global lock is allowed, i.e. Python is not locked and ready to receive the next command... I tried PyGIL_Ensure, unfortunately I see hang. Any known API or solution for this ? (Python 2.4)

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  • OpenGL equivalent of GDI's HatchBrush or PatternBrush?

    - by Ptah- Opener of the Mouth
    I have a VB6 application (please don't laugh) which does a lot of drawing via BitBlt and the standard VB6 drawing functions. I am running up against performance issues (yes, I do the regular tricks like drawing to memory). So, I decided to investigate other ways of drawing, and have come upon OpenGL. I've been doing some experimenting, and it seems straightforward to do most of what I want; the application mostly only uses very simple drawing -- relatively large 2D rectangles of solid colors and such -- but I haven't been able to find an equivalent to something like a HatchBrush or PatternBrush. More specifically, I want to be able to specify a small monochrome pixel pattern, choose a color, and whenever I draw a polygon (or whatever), instead of it being solid, have it automatically tiled with that pattern, not translated or rotated or skewed or stretched, with the "on" bits of the pattern showing up in the specified color, and the "off" bits of the pattern left displaying whatever had been drawn under the area that I am now drawing on. Obviously I could do all the calculations myself. That is, instead of drawing as a polygon which will somehow automatically be tiled for me, I could calculate all of the lines or pixels or whatever that actually need to be drawn, then draw them as lines or pixels or whatever. But is there an easier way? Like in GDI, where you just say "draw this polygon using this brush"? I am guessing that "textures" might be able to accomplish what I want, but it's not clear to me (I'm totally new to this and the documentation I've found is not entirely obvious); it seems like textures might skew or translate or stretch the pattern, based upon the vertices of the polygon? Whereas I want the pattern tiled. Is there a way to do this, or something like it, other than brute force calculation of exactly the pixels/lines/whatever that need to be drawn? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Are MEF's ComposableParts contracts instance-based?

    - by Dave
    I didn't really know how to phrase the title of my questions, so my apologies in advance. I read through parts of the MEF documentation to try to find the answer to my question, but couldn't find it. I'm using ImportMany to allow MEF to create multiple instances of a specific plugin. That plugin Imports several parts, and within calls to a specific instance, it wants these Imports to be singletons. However, what I don't want is for all instances of this plugin to use the same singleton. For example, let's say my application ImportManys Blender appliances. Every time I ask for one, I want a different Blender. However, each Blender Imports a ControlPanel. I want each Blender to have its own ControlPanel. To make things a little more interesting, each Blender can load BlendPrograms, which are also contained within their own assemblies, and MEF takes care of this loading. A BlendProgram might need to access the ControlPanel to get the speed, but I want to ensure that it is accessing the correct ControlPanel (i.e. the one that is associated with the Blender that is associated with the program!) This diagram might clear things up a little bit: As the note shows, I believe that the confusion could come from an inherently-poor design. The BlendProgram shouldn't touch the ControlPanel directly, and instead perhaps the BlendProgram should get the speed via the Blender, which will then delegate the request to its ControlPanel. If this is the case, then I assume the BlendProgram needs to have a reference to a specific Blender. In order to do this, is the right way to leverage MEF and use an ImportingConstructor for BlendProgram, i.e. [ImportingConstructor] public class BlendProgram : IBlendProgram { public BlendProgram( Blender blender) {} } And if this is the case, how do I know that MEF will use the intended Blender plugin?

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  • How to Make a DVCS Completely Interoperable with Subversion?

    - by David M
    What architectural changes would a DVCS need to be completely interoperable with Subversion? Many DVCSs have some kind of bidirectional interface with Subversion, but there are limitations and caveats. For instance, git-svn can create a repository that mirrors Subversion, and changes to that repo can be sent back to Subversion via 'dcommit'. But the git-svn manpage explicitly cautions against making clones of that repository, so essentially, it's a Subversion working copy that you can use git commands on. Bazaar has a bidirectional Subversion capability too, but its documentation notes that Subversion properties aren't supported at all. Here's the end that I'm pursuing. I want a Subversion repository and a DVCS repository that, in the steady state, have identical content. When something is changed on one, it's automatically mirrored to the other. Subversion users interact with the Subversion repository normally. DVCS users clone the DVCS repository, pull changes from it, and push changes back to it. Most importantly, they don't need to know that this special DVCS repository is associated with a Subversion repository. It would probably be nifty if any clone of the special repository is itself a special repository and could commit directly to Subversion, but it might be sufficient if only the special repository directly interacts with Subversion. I think that's what mostly needed is to improve the bidirectional capability so that changes to Subversion properties are translated to changes in the DVCS repository. Some changes in the DVCS repository would be translated to changes to Subversion properties. Or is the answer to create a new capability in Subversion that interacts with a DVCS repository, using the DVCS repository as just a special storage layer such as fsfs or bdb? If there's not a direct mapping between the things that Subversion and a DVCS regard as having versions, does that imply that there's always going to be some activity that cannot be recorded properly on one or the other?

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  • Different Scala Actor Implementations Overview

    - by Stefan K.
    I'm trying to find the 'right' actor implementation for my thesis. I realized there is a bunch of them and it's a bit confusing to pick one. Personally I'm especially interested in remote actors, but I guess a complete overview would be helpful to many others. This is a pretty general question, so feel free to answer just for the implementation you know about. I know about the following Scala Actor implementations (SAI). Please add the missing ones. Scala 2.7 (difference to) Scala 2.8 Akka (http://www.akkasource.org/) Lift (http://liftweb.net/) Scalaz (http://code.google.com/p/scalaz/) What are the target use-cases for these SAIs (lightweight vs. "heavy" enterprise framework)? do they support remote actors? What shortcomings do remote actors have in the SAIs? How is their performace? How active is there community? How easy are they to get started? How good is the documentation? How easy are they to extend? How stable are they? Which projects are using them? What are their shortcomings? What are their design principles? Are they thread based or event based (receive/ react) or both? Nested receiveS hotswapping the Actor’s message loop

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  • JUnit Test method with randomized nature

    - by Peter
    Hey, I'm working on a small project for myself at the moment and I'm using it as an opportunity to get acquainted with unit testing and maintaining proper documentation. I have a Deck class with represents a deck of cards (it's very simple and, to be honest, I can be sure that it works without a unit test, but like I said I'm getting used to using unit tests) and it has a shuffle() method which changes the order of the cards in the deck. The implementation is very simple and will certainly work: public void shuffle() { Collections.shuffle(this.cards); } But, how could I implement a unit test for this method. My first thought was to check if the top card of the deck was different after calling shuffle() but there is of course the possibility that it would be the same. My second thought was to check if the entire order of cards has changed, but again they could possibly be in the same order. So, how could I write a test that ensures this method works in all cases? And, in general, how can you unit test methods for which the outcome depends on some randomness? Cheers, Pete

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • django-social-auth for Facebook is redirecting home and not logging in

    - by Scott Rogowski
    I have had django-social-auth working for Google for quite some time now but am having problems with Facebook. I am at the point where clicking on the /login/facebook/ link will take me to the Facebook authorization page. I then click "go to app" and it redirects me to my home page but does not log in or create a user but does put some strange "#=" onto the back of my URL. Reading up on that, here https://developers.facebook.com/blog/post/552/, and here https://github.com/omab/django-social-auth/issues/199, it seems that would be happening if the redirect uri was not defined. However, on my facebook app settings, I have the following (replacing my site with example.com): + App Namespace: "example" + Site URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" + Site Domain: "example.com" + Sandbox Mode: "On" + Post-Authorize Redirect URL: "http://apps.facebook.com/example/" + Deauthorize URL: "http://www.example.com/" + Post-Authorize URL: "http://example.com/complete/facebook/" The request that django-social-auth is sending to facebook is (replacing my info again): "https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?scope=email&state=*&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fexample.com%2Fcomplete%2Ffacebook%2F%3Fredirect_state%3D***&client_id=*" The /complete/facebook/ is what is in the documentation and google works as /complete/google/ What am I missing here?

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  • rendering front-end of survey into an MVC app

    - by HotKey
    Lately I have been watching Pluralsight intro videos on MVC 3. I have never worked with the Model View Control approach before, but I'm starting to understand how these 3 crucial parts of an app are separated. I created a front-end prototype of a survey I would like to implement into a View of my MVC web app. The survey is in HTML, CSS, using jQuery to deliver content changes depending on the type of evaluation (6-11 questions), and jQuery UI for a couple slider ratings. I noticed through tutorials that you can use an HTML form and helpers that allow the user to edit content, but my prototype already allows the users to rate via radio buttons, comment text boxes, and sliders. Would I need to change any of my existing code if I just want to store this employee data to the Model, and depending on what survey's the employee has completed through the Controller, disable drop down fields? Also, would I store the current employee data on submit of survey through an HttpPost in the Controller to the Model? My apologies if my questions seem rather vague. Could someone point me in the right direction to a resource or documentation similar to my needs above? The Pluralsight videos are taking me in the wrong direction.

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  • Switching textstorage of NSTextViews back and forth

    - by Jakob Dam Jensen
    I'm trying to make a feature in a product which gives the user the ability to split a textview into two. The way this is done is by removing the textview from it's superview, making a NSSplitView and adding the textview as well as a new NSTextView instance to this splitview. Lastly I make these two textviews share the same textstorage in order to make them share the same content. It works great. But the problem is when I want to make one of the two textviews change textstorage. The replaceTextStorage method in NSLayoutManager causes both NSTextView to change textStorage. The API documentation states: replaceTextStorage: All NSLayoutManager objects sharing the original NSTextStorage object then share the new one. This method makes all the adjustments necessary to keep these relationships intact, unlike setTextStorage:. So it makes sense that it would do this. But the question is how do I make it possible to have two (or more) textviews first share the same storage and after that having them using their own? I've tried replacing the layoutManager and even making new instances of NSTextViews but no luck... Any suggestions?

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  • Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

    - by Emer
    Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

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  • Switch/case without break inside DllMain

    - by Sherwood Hu
    I have a Dllmain that allocates Thread local storage when a thread attaches to this DLL. Code as below: BOOL APIENTRY DllMain(HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { LPVOID lpvData; BOOL fIgnore; switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: onProcessAttachDLL(); // Allocate a TLS index. if ((dwTlsIndex = TlsAlloc()) == TLS_OUT_OF_INDEXES) return FALSE; // how can it jump to next case??? case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: // Initialize the TLS index for this thread. lpvData = (LPVOID) LocalAlloc(LPTR, MAX_BUFFER_SIZE); if (lpvData != NULL) fIgnore = TlsSetValue(dwTlsIndex, lpvData); break; ... } I know that for the main thread, the DLL_THREAD_ATTACH is not entered, as per Microsoft Documentation. However, the above code worked. I am using VC2005. When I entered the debugger, I saw that after it entered DLL_THREAD_ATTACH case when ul_reason_for_call = 1! How can that happen? If I add `break' at the end of DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH block, the DLL failed to work. How can this happen?

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  • On Render Callback For G+ Button

    - by Michael Robinson
    How might I go about performing an action only when a G+ button has finished rendering? Facebook allows one to do this using the following: FB.XFBML.parse(document, function() { alert('rendering done'); }); I've perused Google's documentation, but didn't see anything helpful. Currently my workaround is to monitor the G+ element until certain elements have been added, then perform my action: (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; po.onload = function() { var awaitRender = function(element) { if (element.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild && element.firstChild.firstChild.tagName.toUpperCase() === 'IFRAME') { alert('rendered!'); } else { window.setTimeout(function() { awaitRender(element) }, 100); } }; var buttons = document.getElementsByClassName('googleplus-button'); for(var i = 0; i < buttons.length; i++) { awaitRender(buttons[i]); } } var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })(); I'd like to know please, if there is either: A correct way one should do this for G+ buttons A better implementation that what I've hacked together above

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