Search Results

Search found 9124 results on 365 pages for 'general dba'.

Page 283/365 | < Previous Page | 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290  | Next Page >

• "SignTool error: Access is denied" in TFS 2010 build process

  - by user351352

  I'm getting "SignTool Error: Access is Denied" when I attempt to sign a file. When I use an administrator cmd, all works fine. However, this process is going to be used in a TFS 2010 build process and using the InvokeProcess task with signtool gives the same access denied message as a non-administrator command prompt. More info: On a Win2008 R2 enterprise machine. User is machine admin and on the domain. The TFS Build service is also set to run as this user. Using a self signed certificate created using these instructions: How do I create a self-signed certificate for code signing on Windows? After following these instructions I have the following files: MyCA.cer MyCA.pvk MySPC.cer MySPC.pvk MySPC.pfx MyCA is in my Trusted Root Certification Authorities I imported MySPC.pfx into personal certificates, following the advice here: SignTool error: Access is denied To do the signing I'm using the thumbprint of the MySPC.pfx that was imported into the Personal section so my signtool command looks like: sign /sha1 1e9d7b5ad98552d9c58944e3f3903e6b929f4819 /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timestamp.dll "FileName" Once again this works in Admin mode. This also works when running cmd as administrator: sign /f "C:\Code Signing Non-Release\MySPC.pfx" /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timestamp.dll "FileName" New to code signing in general, so any help is welcome.

  Read the article

• Configuring WCF 4 with routing (global.asax) for both http & https endpoints

  - by jammer59

  I'm still a newbie with wcf and not too well informed in .net in general. I have a WCF 4 web service that uses the global.asax routing approach and very simplified web.config using the standard endpoint method. This wcf service runs as an application with the default web site on iis 7.5 at present. I need it support both http and https interfaces, if possible. If that's too complex then only https. How is that best handled maintaining the current approach? The contents of the global.asax.cs and web.config files are pretty basic: public class Global : HttpApplication { void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { RegisterRoutes(); } private void RegisterRoutes() { // Edit the base address of Service1 by replacing the "ippay" string below RouteTable.Routes.Add(new ServiceRoute("myservice", new WebServiceHostFactory(), typeof(myservice))); } } <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <standardEndpoints> <webHttpEndpoint> <standardEndpoint name="" helpEnabled="true" contentTypeMapper="myservice.Util.RawMapper,myservice"> </standardEndpoint> </webHttpEndpoint> </standardEndpoints>

  Read the article

• Silverlight 4 with WCF RIA architecture applying DDD

  - by doteneter

  Hello, In my ASP.NET MVC applications I use DDD and it works very well. I'm new to Silverlight development and would like to know how could I apply DDD to build a new architecture. I had a look on WCF RIA Services and what is exposed by default it's the simple CRUD methods. I would like to use MVVM pattern. I thought about general architecture and don't know if what I'm thinking about make sense in Silverlight development. I thought about creating Domain Model on the top of SVC. I would than expose by WCF RIA some operation that deals with aggreates in my Domain Model instead of simple CRUD. What I would aloso expose is the ViewModel entieties that could be used by the view. I don't know if it's make sense, if I'm going in a good direction or if applying DDD in Silverlight 4 development is a good practice. I didn't find much informations on Internet. I'll appreciate if you could point me to some interesting links or if you can give me some hints. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Extending Programming Languages

  - by chpwn

  (Since I just posted this in another question, but my browser had to be annoying and submit it without content first, here it is again:) I'm a fan of clean code. I like my languages to be able to express what I'm trying to do, but I like the syntax to mirror that too. For example, I work on a lot of programs in Objective-C for jailbroken iPhones, which patch other code using the method_setImplementation() function of the runtime. Or, in pyobjc, I have to use the syntax UIView.initWithFrame_(), which is also pretty awful and unreadable with the way the method names are structured. In both cases, the language does not support this in syntax. I've found three basic ways that this is done: Insane macros. Take a look at this "CaptainHook", it does what I'm looking for in a usable way, but it isn't quite clean and is a major hack. There's also "Logos", which implements a very nice syntax, but is written in Perl parsing my code with a ton of regular expressions. This scares me. I like the idea of adding a %hook ClassName, but not by using regular expressions to parse C or Objective-C. Finally, there is Cycript. This is an extension to JavaScript which interfaces with the Objective-C runtime and allows you to use Objective-C style code in your JavaScript, and inject that into other processes. This is likely the cleanest as it actually uses a parser for the JavaScript, but I'm not a huge fan of that language in general. Basically, this is a two part question. Should, and how should, I create an extension to Python and Objective-C to allow me to do this? Is it worth writing a parser for my language to transform the syntax into something nicer, if it is only in a very specialized niche like this? Should I just live with the horrible syntax of the default Objective-C hooking or pyobjc?

  Read the article

• jQuery, jQuery UI, and Dual Licensed Plugins (Dual Licensing)

  - by John Hartsock

  OK I have read many posts regarding Dual Licensing using MIT and GPL licenses. But Im curious still, as the wording seems to be inclusive. Many of the Dual Licenses state that the software is licensed using "MIT AND GPL". The "AND" is what confuses me. It seems to me that the word "AND" in the terms, means you will be licensing the product using both licenses. Most of the posts, here on stackoverflow, state that you can license the software using one "OR" the other. JQuery specifically states "OR", whereas JQuery UI specifically States "AND". Another Instance of the "AND" would be JQGrid. Im not a lawyer but, it seems to me that a legal interpretation of this would state that use of the software would mean that your using the software under both licenses. Has anyone who has contacted a lawyer gotten clarification or a definitive answer as to what is true? Can you use Dual licensed software products that state "AND" in the terms of agreement under either license? EDITED: Guys here is specifically what Im talking about on jquery.org/license you see the following stated: You may use any jQuery project under the terms of either the MIT License or the GNU General Public License (GPL) Version 2 but in the header of Jquery's and Jquery UI library you see this: * Dual licensed under the MIT and GPL licenses. * http://docs.jquery.com/License The site says MIT or GPL but the license statement in the software says MIT and GPL.

  Read the article

• WPF: How to set column width with auto fill in ListView with custom user control.

  - by powerk

  A ListView with Datatemplate in GridViewColumn: <ListView Name ="LogDataList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding LogDataCollection}" Background="Cyan"> <ListView.View> <GridView AllowsColumnReorder="true" ColumnHeaderToolTip="Event Log Information"> <GridViewColumn Header="Event Log Name" Width="100"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <l:MyTextBlock Height="25" DataContext="{Binding LogName, Converter={StaticResource DataFieldConverter}}" HighlightMatchCase="{Binding Element}" Loaded="EditBox_Loaded"/> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> ... </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> I have no idea about how to make column width autofill although I have tried a lot of way to walk up. The general idea for demo is : <ListView Name ="LogDataList" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding LogDataCollection}" Background="Cyan"> <ListView.Resources> <Style x:Key="ColumnWidthStyle" TargetType="{x:Null GridViewColumn}"> <Style.Setters> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" > </Setter> </Style.Setters> </Style> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView AllowsColumnReorder="true" ColumnHeaderToolTip="Event Log Information"> <GridViewColumn Header="Event Log Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=LogName}" HeaderContainerStyle="{StaticResource ColumnWidthStyle}"> It works, but not accord with my demand. I need to customize datatemplate with my custom user control(MyTextBlock) since the enhancement(HighlighMatchCase property) and binding datacontext. How can I set up ColumnWidthMode with Fill in the word? On-line'in. I really appreciate your help.

  Read the article

• Cant insert row with auto-increment key via FluentNhibernate

  - by Jeff Shattock

  I'm getting started with Fluent NHibernate, and NHibernate in general. I'm trying to do something that I feel is pretty basic, but I cant quite get it to work. I'm trying to add a new entry to a simple table. Here's the Entity class. public class Product { public Product() { id = 0; } public virtual int id {get; set;} public virtual string description { get; set; } } Here's its mapping. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(p => p.id).GeneratedBy.Identity().UnsavedValue(0); Map(p => p.description); } } I've tried that with and without the additional calls after Id(). And the insert code: var p = new Product() { description = "Apples" }; using (var s = _sf.CreateSession()) { s.Save(new_product); s.Flush(); } where _sf is a properly configured SessionSource. When I execute this code, I get: NHibernate.AssertionFailure : null identifier, which makes sense based on the SQL that NHibernate is executing: INSERT INTO "Product" (description) VALUES (@p0);@p0 = 'Apples' It doesnt seem to be trying to set the Id field, which seems ok (on its face) since the DB should generate that. But its not, I think. The DB schema is autogenerated by FNH: var config = Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlCeConfiguration.Standard.ShowSql().ConnectionString(@"Data Source=Database1.sdf")); var SessionSource = new SessionSource(config.BuildConfiguration().Properties, new ModelMappings()); var Session = SessionSource.CreateSession(); SessionSource.BuildSchema(Session); CreateInitialData(Session); Session.Flush(); Session.Clear(); I'm sure to be doing tons of things wrong, but whats the one thats causing this error?

  Read the article

• How to Link VS2010 Database Project and LINQ to SQL

  - by Jason

  As I am working with the new database projects in VS2010, and as I am learning LINQ to SQL, I am curious as to the best way to link the two groups of information so that when I update one, the other updates along with it. From my research here at SO, as well as in Google, it appears the general rule of thumb is: "Build the database, and then create your LINQ to SQL classes." Of course, if I make a change in my database, the LINQ to SQL doesn't update automatically and I have to do it by hand. This is fairly simple right now as my database is small, but I am curious if there is an easier way for this to happen. In addition, the LINQ to SQL tool is pretty nice. The ability to create tables, add associations, and even create inheritance is very simple. As my second question, I am curious as to whether or not VS2010 can work the other way - I design the database in the DBLM file and then link it back to my database project. I appreciate any help with either of these two questions. I'm really interested in making this as easy as possible to reduce errors during development and improve the speed at which changes can be made.

  Read the article

• How to fix the endless printing loop bug in Nevrona Rave

  - by Sean B. Durkin

  Nevrona Designs' Rave Reports is a Report Engine for use by Embarcadero's Delphi IDE. This is what I call the Rave Endless Loop bug. In Rave Reports version 6.5.0 (VCL10) that comes bundled with Delphi 2006, there is a nortorious bug that plagues many Rave report developers. If you have a non-empty dataset, and the data rows for this dataset fit exactly into a page (that is to say there are zero widow rows), then upon PrintPreview, Rave will get stuck in an infinite loop generating pages. This problem has been previously reported in this newsgroup under the following headings: "error: generating infinite pages"; Hugo Hiram 20/9/2006 8:44PM "Rave loop bug. Please help"; Tomas Lazar 11/07/2006 7:35PM "Loop on full page of data?"; Tony Chistiansen 23/12/2004 3:41PM reply to (3) by another complainant; Oliver Piche "Endless lopp print bug"; Richso 9/11/2004 4:44PM In each of these postings, there was no response from Nevrona, and no solution was reported. Possibly, the problem has also been reported on an allied newsgroup (nevrona.public.rave.reports.general), to wit: 6. "Continuously generating report"; Jobard 20/11/2005 Although it is not clear to me if (6) is the Rave Endless loop bug or another problem. This posting did get a reply from Nevrona, but it was more in relation to multiple regions ("There is a problem when using multiple regions that go over a page-break.") than the problem of zero widows.

  Read the article

• In Asp.Net MVC 2 is there a better way to return 401 status codes without getting an auth redirect

  - by Greg Roberts

  I have a portion of my site that has a lightweight xml/json REST API. Most of my site is behind forms auth but only some of my API actions require authentication. I have a custom AuthorizeAttribute for my API that I use to check for certain permissions and when it fails it results in a 401. All is good, except since I'm using forms auth, Asp.net conveniently converts that into a 302 redirect to my login page. I've seen some previous questions that seem a bit hackish to either return a 403 instead or to put some logic in the global.asax protected void Application_EndRequest() that will essentially convert 302 to 401 where it meets whatever criteria. Previous Question Previous Question 2 What I'm doing now is sort of like one of the questions, but instead of checking the Application_EndRequest() for a 302 I make my authorize attribute return 666 which indicates to me that I need to set this to a 401. Here is my code: protected void Application_EndRequest() { if (Context.Response.StatusCode == MyAuthAttribute.AUTHORIZATION_FAILED_STATUS) { //check for 666 - status code of hidden 401 Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; } } Even though this works, my question is there something in Asp.net MVC 2 that would prevent me from having to do this? Or, in general is there a better way? I would think this would come up a lot for anyone doing REST api's or just people that do ajax requests in their controllers. The last thing you want is to do a request and get the content of a login page instead of json.

  Read the article

• Visual C# GUI Designer - Recommended way of removing generated event handler-code & basic tutorial

  - by cusack

  Hi, I'm new to the Visual C# designer so these are general and pretty basic question on how to work with the designer. When we for instance add a label to a form and then double-click on it in the Visual C# designer (I'm using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition), the following things happen: The designer generates code within Form1.Designer.cs (assume default names for simplicity) to add the label, then with the double-click it will add the event handler label1_Click to the label within Form1.Designer.cs, using the following code this.label1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.label1_Click); and it adds the event handler method to Form1.cs private void label1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { } If I now remove the label only the code within Form1.Designer.cs will be removed but the label1_Click method will stay within Form1.cs even if it isn't used by anything else. But if I'm using reset within Properties-Events for the Click-event from within the designer even the label1_Click method in Form1.cs will be removed. 1.) Isn't that a little inconsistent behavior? 2.) What is the recommended way of removing such generated event handler-code? 3.) What is the best "mental approach"/best practice for using the designer? I would approach it by mental separation in the way that Form1.cs is 100% my responsibility and that on the other hand I'm not touching the code in Form1.Designer.cs at all. Does that make sense or not? Since sometimes the designer removes sth. from Form1.cs I'm not sure about this. 4.) Can you recommend a simple designer tutorial that assumes no Visual C# designer knowledge but expects/doesn't explain C#. The following one is an example of what I would not want it explains what a c#-comment is and I'd prefer text over video as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/beginner/bb964631.aspx

  Read the article

• Creating a Custom EventAggregator Class

  - by Phil

  One thing I noticed about Microsoft's Composite Application Guidance is that the EventAggregator class is a little inflexible. I say that because getting a particular event from the EventAggregator involves identifying the event by its type like so: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<MyEventType>(); But what if you want different events of the same type? For example, if a developer wants to add a new event to his application of type CompositePresentationEvent<int>, he would have to create a new class that derives from CompositePresentationEvent<int> in a shared library somewhere just to keep it separate from any other events of the same type. In a large application, that's a lot of little two-line classes like the following: public class StuffHappenedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<int> {} public class OtherStuffHappenedEvent : CompositePresentationEvent<int> {} I don't really like that approach. It almost feels dirty to me, partially because I don't want a million two-line event classes sitting around in my infrastructure dll. What if I designed my own simple event aggregator that identified events by an event ID rather than the event type? For example, I could have an enum such as the following: public enum EventId { StuffHappened, OtherStuffHappened, YetMoreStuffHappened } And my new event aggregator class could use the EventId enum (or a more general object) as a key to identify events in the following way: _eventAggregator.GetEvent<CompositePresentationEvent<int>>(EventId.StuffHappened); _eventAggregator.GetEvent<CompositePresentationEvent<int>>(EventId.OtherStuffHappened); Is this good design for the long run? One thing I noticed is that this reduces type safety. In a large application, is this really as important of a concern as I think it is? Do you think there could be a better alternative design?

  Read the article

• Kanban vs. Scrum

  - by Andrew Siemer

  Can someone with Kanban experience tell me how Kanban and Scrum differ? What are the pro's and con's of each of the different project management methodologies? Kanban seems to be getting a lot of press these days. I don't want to miss the hottest new way of tracking my teams failures (...and successes). Responses @S. Lott - What part of this article wasn't clear enough? infoq.com/articles/hiranabe-lean-agile-kanban/…. Do you have a more specific question? That is a great article but technically no it is not clear enough. That article gives a great amount of detail about kanban (and thank you for it...good read) but it does not specifically contrast Kanban vs. Scrum. That article will help someone like me make a decision but it most certainly won't help someone like my boss or in general someone less experienced! I was hoping for a quick overview of kanban pros and cons contrasted to scrum pros and cons. Thanks though! @S. Lott - Why do you say kanban vs. scrum? What leads you to conclude they are conflicting approaches? Can you make your question more specific? I don't think that they are necessarily conflicting. But they are different enough for a user to adhere to one over the other. Perhaps one fits a project or company better than the other? How would I sell one over the other when presenting a project management approach. Say I went to a company that was currently stuck in the rutt that is "water fall" - why would I sell one approach over the other?

  Read the article

• Dynamically specify and change a Silverlight DataGrid's columns during runtime (MVVM)

  - by Biggert

  What's the best method of dynamically specifying DataGrid columns in the Silverlight DataGrid control at runtime following the MVVM pattern? What I'd like to do would be bind the "DataGrid.Columns" property to a property in my ViewModel so that, if the user adds/removes columns, I simply update the ViewModel property and the DataGrid would change. Problem is, the "DataGrid.Columns" property can't be bound to (I don't think). Because this property isn't available nor is the DataGrid control itself available at the ViewModel level, my current approach is to step outside of the MVVM pattern for this particular implementation and capture certain events in View's code-behind using MVVM Light's Messenger class and then talk directly with the DataGrid control to achieve this capability. I know this is a general statement to this approach without details but is there an easier way... or maybe not so much easier, but a better way that adheres to the MVVM pattern a little better? It's driving me crazy that the DataGrid control's Columns property can't be bound... seems like such a simple thing. FYI - Before it's suggested to use AutoGenerateColumns = True, the class being bound for each item in the collection that's bound to DataGrid.ItemsSource does not have individual properties to identify what is bound to the columns... it's a collection property that contains the columns in order to keep them completely dynamic so that particular path is out. Also, handling the AutoGeneratingColumns and using e.Cancel to show/hide columns is also iffy for this same reason (I think).

  Read the article

• "Instance variable 'xxx' accessed in class method....why?

  - by Michael Levy

  So please forgive me as I am very new to stackoverflow and to ios programming in general. I am attempting to change the text of a button i have, replacing current text with a date string (dateStringForInput) I am passing in from another class. The button is called myTodayButton and is declared in my .h file for my class inputMilesViewController... @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIButton *myTodayButton; Below is the code from my .m. +(void) changeButtonText:(NSString*) dateStringForInput{ NSLog(@"we got to changebuttontext"); [_myTodayButton setTitle:dateStringForInput forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } I am getting the following error "Instance variable "_myTodayButton" accessed in class method. I understand that this is written in a class method rather than an instance method but i cant figure out how to get this change to happen. the button which prompts this call to changeButtonText is in the other class which is creating dateStringForInput. please help! thanks so much! be gentle with me....a bit overwhelmed . :-)

  Read the article

• Changing an xcode project Path with lowercase path issue

  - by joneswah

  I have a problem with an Xcode project which has a path of "/users/me/blah" with a lowercase 'u'. When I check my other projects (in the General Tab of the Project Info Window the Path starts with a uppercase "Users". This causes a couple of problems. When I try and add an existing file which is "relative to group" or "Relative to Project" it thinks it needs to change directory all the way to the root. For example the path for any included file ends up as "../../../../Users/me/blah" which then prevents the project working on other peoples machine because the "relative" is essentially an absolute path... sigh. The other side effect is that when you select "Add Existing Files" instead of greying out all of the already included files, it leaves ALL of the files available for selection. Because it thinks files in "Users" are different to "users". I have tried re checking out the project into a different directory but no difference. I am not sure how I ended up with the wrong path in the first instance. No doubt something stupid that I did. Anyone have a clue on how I change the project path or resolve this? thanks

  Read the article

• Problem with Informix JDBC, MONEY and decimal separator in string literals

  - by Michal Niklas

  I have problem with JDBC application that uses MONEY data type. When I insert into MONEY column: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') I got exception: Character to numeric conversion error The same SQL works from native Windows application using ODBC driver. I live in Poland and have Polish locale and in my country comma separates decimal part of number, so I tried: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') And it worked. I checked that in PreparedStatement I must use dot separator: 123.45. And of course I can use: insert into _money_test (amt) values (123.45) But some code is "general", it imports data from csv file and it was safe to put number into string literal. How to force JDBC to use DBMONEY (or simply dot) in literals? My workstation is WinXP. I have ODBC and JDBC Informix client in version 3.50 TC5/JC5. I have set DBMONEY to just dot: DBMONEY=. EDIT: Test code in Jython: import sys import traceback from java.sql import DriverManager from java.lang import Class Class.forName("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver") QUERY = "insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45')" def test_money(driver, db_url, usr, passwd): try: print("\n\n%s\n--------------" % (driver)) db = DriverManager.getConnection(db_url, usr, passwd) c = db.createStatement() c.execute("delete from _money_test") c.execute(QUERY) rs = c.executeQuery("select amt from _money_test") while (rs.next()): print('[%s]' % (rs.getString(1))) rs.close() c.close() db.close() except: print("there were errors!") s = traceback.format_exc() sys.stderr.write("%s\n" % (s)) print(QUERY) test_money("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver", 'jdbc:informix-sqli://169.0.1.225:9088/test:informixserver=ol_225;DB_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;CLIENT_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;charSet=CP1250', 'informix', 'passwd') test_money("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver", 'jdbc:odbc:test', 'informix', 'passwd') Results when I run money literal with dot and comma: C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- [123.45] sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: [Informix][Informix ODBC Driver][Informix]Character to numeric conversion error C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: Character to numeric conversion error sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- [123.45]

  Read the article

• Updating a status on a Winform in BackgroundWorker

  - by Mike Wills

  I have a multi-step BackgroundWorker process. I use a marquee progress bar because several of these steps are run on a iSeries server so there isn't any good way to determine a percentage. What I am envisioning is a label with updates after every step. How would you recommend updating a label on a winform to reflect each step? Figured I would add a bit more. I call some CL and RPG programs via a stored procedure on an iSeries (or IBM i or AS/400 or a midrange computer running OS/400... er... i5/OS (damn you IBM for not keeping the same name year-to-year)). Anyway I have to wait until that step is fully complete before I can continue on the winform side. I was thinking of sending feedback to the user giving the major steps. Dumping data to iSeries Running month-end Creating reports Uploading final results I probably should have given this in the beginning. Sorry about that. I try to keep my questions general enough for others to make use of later rather than my specific task.

  Read the article

• Suppress "No Source Available" pane in 2010

  - by Jason

  Arg! I have a custom "harness" executable running my class library project. Every time I step into the harness's code, I get that "No Source Available" pane popping up. As I know there is no source available, and that this is completely expected, I don't want this very intrusive and useless pane popping up every time. How can I suppress it completely? I can make it smaller at least by making that window part of another smaller pane-set, such as with the watches/locals. It remembers its location from run to run, but its still useless. There might be a more general answer to this question - how can I suppress any particular pane/window from showing at all? I have a VSX package, originally built for VS 2008 (and must keep that compatibility) but I just don't know what command to run to do it. (I had the package commissioned, so I have the source, but not the know-how. This seems like a one/two liner). Thanks!

  Read the article

• Pass object to dynamically loaded ListView ItemTemplate

  - by mickyjtwin

  I have been following the following post on using multiple ItemTemplates in a ListView control. While following this example does produce output, I am trying ot figure out how to psas an object through to the ItemTemplate's user control, which I do not seem to be able to do/figure out. protected void lvwComments_OnItemCreated(object sender, ListViewItemEventArgs e) { ListViewDataItem currentItem = (e.Item as ListViewDataItem); Comment comment = (Comment)currentItem.DataItem; if (comment == null) return; string controlPath = string.Empty; switch (comment.Type) { case CommentType.User: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/General Comment.ascx"; break; case CommentType.Official: controlPath = "~/layouts/controls/Official Comment.ascx"; break; } lvwComments.ItemTemplate = LoadTemplate(Controlpath); } The User Control is as follows: public partial class OfficialComment : UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } } In the example, the values are being output in the ascx page: <%# Eval("ItemName") %> however I need to access the ListItem in this control to do other logic. I cannot figure out how I to send through my Comment item. The sender object and EventArgs do not contain the info.

  Read the article

• How to disable authentication schemes for WCF Data Services

  - by Schneider

  When I deployed my WCF Data Services to production hosting I started to get the following error (or similar depending on which auth schemes are active): IIS specified authentication schemes 'Basic, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. Apparently WCF Data Services (WCF in general?) cannot handle having more than once authentication scheme active. OK so I am aware that I can disable all-but-one authentication scheme on the web application via IIS control panel .... via a support request!! Is there a way to specify a single authentication scheme on a per-service level in the web.config? I thought this might be as straight forward as making a change to <system.serviceModel> but... it turns out that WCF Data Services do not configure themselves in the web config. If you look at the DataService<> class it does not implement a [ServiceContract] hence you cannot refer to it in the <service><endpoint>...which I presume would be needed for changing its configuration via XML. P.S. Our host is using II6, but both solutions for IIS6 & IIS7 appreciated.

  Read the article

• IEnumerable<T> and reflection

  - by Aren B

  Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

  Read the article

• Deserializing a complex JSON result (array of dictionaries) with TouchJSON

  - by jpm

  I did a few tests with TouchJSON last night and it worked pretty well in general for simple cases. I'm using the following code to read some JSON content from a file, and deserialize it: NSString *jsonString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:@"data.json"]; NSData *jsonData = [jsonString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; NSDictionary *items = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; NSLog(@"total items: %d", [items count]); NSLog(@"error: %@", [error localizedDescription]); That works fine if I have a very simple JSON object in the file (i.e. a dictionary): {"id": "54354", "name": "boohoo"} This way I was able to get access to the array of values, as I wanted to get the item based on its index within the list: NSArray *items_list = [items allValues]; NSString *name = [items_list objectAtIndex:1]; (I understand that I could have fetched the name with the dictionary API) Now I would like to deserialize a semi-complex JSON string, which represents an array of dictionaries. An example of such a JSON string is below: [{"id": "123456", "name": "touchjson"}, {"id": "3456", "name": "bleh"}] When I try to run the same code above against this new content in the data.json file, I don't get any results back. My NSLog() call says "total items: 0", and no error is coming back in the NSError object. Any clues on what is going on? I'm completely lost on what to do, as there isn't much documentation available for TouchJSON, and much less usage examples.

  Read the article

• Android threading and database locking

  - by Sena Gbeckor-Kove

  Hi, We are using AsyncTasks to access database tables and cursors. Unfortunately we are seeing occasional exceptions regarding the database being locked. E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): Couldn't open iviewnews.db for writing (will try read-only): E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): android.database.sqlite.SQLiteException: database is locked E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.native_setLocale(Native Method) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.setLocale(SQLiteDatabase.java:1637) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.<init>(SQLiteDatabase.java:1587) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:638) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openOrCreateDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:659) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteDatabase.openOrCreateDatabase(SQLiteDatabase.java:652) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.app.ApplicationContext.openOrCreateDatabase(ApplicationContext.java:482) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.content.ContextWrapper.openOrCreateDatabase(ContextWrapper.java:193) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteOpenHelper.getWritableDatabase(SQLiteOpenHelper.java:98) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.database.sqlite.SQLiteOpenHelper.getReadableDatabase(SQLiteOpenHelper.java:158) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at com.iview.android.widget.IViewNewsTopStoryWidget.initData(IViewNewsTopStoryWidget.java:73) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at com.iview.android.widget.IViewNewsTopStoryWidget.updateNewsWidgets(IViewNewsTopStoryWidget.java:121) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at com.iview.android.async.GetNewsTask.doInBackground(GetNewsTask.java:338) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at com.iview.android.async.GetNewsTask.doInBackground(GetNewsTask.java:1) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:185) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:256) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:122) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:648) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:673) E/SQLiteOpenHelper(15963): at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:1060) Does anybody have a general example for code which writes to a database from a different thread than the one reading and how can we ensure thread safety. One suggestion I've had is to use a ContentProvider, as this would handle the access of the database from multiple threads. I am going to look at this, but is this the recommended method of handling such a problem? It seems rather heavyweight considering we're talking about in front or behind Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• R and version control for the solo data analyst

  - by Jeromy Anglim

  Many data analysts that I respect use version control. For example: http://github.com/hadley/ See comments on http://permut.wordpress.com/2010/04/21/revision-control-statistics-bleg/ However, I'm evaluating whether adopting a version control system such as git would be worthwhile. A brief overview: I'm a social scientist who uses R to analyse data for research publications. I don't currently produce R packages. My R code for a project typically includes a few thousand lines of code for data input, cleaning, manipulation, analyses, and output generation. Publications are typically written using LaTeX. With regards to version control there are many benefits which I have read about, yet they seem to be less relevant to the solo data analyst. Backup: I have a backup system already in place. Forking and rewinding: I've never felt the need to do this, but I can see how it could be useful (e.g., you are preparing multiple journal articles based on the same dataset; you are preparing a report that is updated monthly, etc) Collaboration: Most of the time I am analysing data myself, thus, I woudln't get the collaboration benefits of version control. There are also several potential costs involved with adopting version control: Time to evaluate and learn a version control system A possible increase in complexity over my current file management system However, I still have the feeling that I'm missing something. General guides on version control seem to be addressed more towards computer scientists than data analysts. Thus, specifically in relation to data analysts in circumstances similar to those listed above: Is version control worth the effort? What are the main pros and cons of adopting version control? What is a good strategy for getting started with version control for data analysis with R (e.g., examples, workflow ideas, software, links to guides)?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290  | Next Page >