Search Results

Search found 9035 results on 362 pages for 'common misunderstandings'.

Page 284/362 | < Previous Page | 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291  | Next Page >

  • nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

    Read the article

  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

    Read the article

  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

    Read the article

  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

    Read the article

  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

    Read the article

  • Bash script to insert code from one file at a specific location in another file?

    - by Kurtosis
    I have a fileA with a snippet of code, and I need a script to insert that snippet into fileB on the line after a specific pattern. I'm trying to make the accepted answer in this thread work, but it's not, and is not giving an error so not sure why not: sed -e '/pattern/r text2insert' filewithpattern Any suggestions? pattern (insert snippet on line after): def boot { also tried escaped pattern but no luck: def\ boot\ { def\ boot\ \{ fileA snippet: LiftRules.htmlProperties.default.set((r: Req) => new Html5Properties(r.userAgent)) fileB (Boot.scala): package bootstrap.liftweb import net.liftweb._ import util._ import Helpers._ import common._ import http._ import sitemap._ import Loc._ /** * A class that's instantiated early and run. It allows the application * to modify lift's environment */ class Boot { def boot { // where to search snippet LiftRules.addToPackages("code") // Build SiteMap val entries = List( Menu.i("Home") / "index", // the simple way to declare a menu // more complex because this menu allows anything in the // /static path to be visible Menu(Loc("Static", Link(List("static"), true, "/static/index"), "Static Content"))) // set the sitemap. Note if you don't want access control for // each page, just comment this line out. LiftRules.setSiteMap(SiteMap(entries:_*)) // Use jQuery 1.4 LiftRules.jsArtifacts = net.liftweb.http.js.jquery.JQuery14Artifacts //Show the spinny image when an Ajax call starts LiftRules.ajaxStart = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.show("ajax-loader").cmd) // Make the spinny image go away when it ends LiftRules.ajaxEnd = Full(() => LiftRules.jsArtifacts.hide("ajax-loader").cmd) // Force the request to be UTF-8 LiftRules.early.append(_.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8")) } }

    Read the article

  • Best practice to structure large html-based project

    - by AntonAL
    I develop Rails based website, enjoying using partials for some common "components" Recently, i faced a problem, that states with CSS interference. Styles for one component (described in css) override styles for another components. For example, one component has ... <ul class="items"> ... and another component has it too. But that ul's has different meaning in these two components. On the other hand, i want to "inherit" some styles for one component from another. For example: Let, we have one component, called "post" <div class="post"> <!-- post's stuff --> <ul class="items"> ... </ul> </div And another component, called "new-post": <div class="new-post"> <!-- post's stuff --> <ul class="items"> ... </ul> <!-- new-post's stuff --> <div class="tools">...</div> </div Post and new-post have something similar ("post's stuff") and i want to make CSS rules to handle both "post" and "new-post" New post has "subcomponents", for example - editing tools, that has also: <ul class="items"> This is where CSS rules starting to interfer - some rules, targeted for ul.items (in post and new-post) applies subcomponent of new-post, called "tools" On the one hand - i want to inherit some styles On the other hand, i want to get better incapsulation What are the best practices, to avoid such kind of problems ?

    Read the article

  • Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

    Read the article

  • How to model has_many with polymorphism?

    - by Daniel Abrahamsson
    I've run into a situation that I am not quite sure how to model. Suppose I have a User class, and a user has many services. However, these services are quite different, for example a MailService and a BackupService, so single table inheritance won't do. Instead, I am thinking of using polymorphic associations together with an abstract base class: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :services end class Service < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :implementation_id, :implementation_type belongs_to :user belongs_to :implementation, :polymorphic = true delegate :common_service_method, :name, :to => :implementation end #Base class for service implementations class ServiceImplementation < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :on => :create has_one :service, :as => :implementation has_one :user, :through => :service after_create :create_service_record #Tell Rails this class does not use a table. def self.abstract_class? true end #Default name implementation. def name self.class.name end protected #Sets up a service object def create_service_record service = Service.new(:user_id => user_id) service.implementation = self service.save! end end class MailService < ServiceImplementation #validations, etc... def common_service_method puts "MailService implementation of common service method" end end #Example usage MailService.create(..., :user_id => user.id) BackupService.create(...., :user_id => user.id) user.services.each do |s| puts "#{user.name} is using #{s.name}" end #Daniel is using MailService, Daniel is using BackupService So, is this the best solution? Or even a good one? How have you solved this kind of problem?

    Read the article

  • Standard and reliable mouse-reporting with GLUT

    - by Victor
    Hello! I'm trying to use GLUT (freeglut) in my OpenGL application, and I need to register some callbacks for mouse wheel events. I managed to dig out a fairly undocumented function: api documentation But the man page and the API entry for this function both state the same thing: Note: Due to lack of information about the mouse, it is impossible to implement this correctly on X at this time. Use of this function limits the portability of your application. (This feature does work on X, just not reliably.) You are encouraged to use the standard, reliable mouse-button reporting, rather than wheel events. Fair enough, but how do I use this standard, reliable mouse-reporting? And how do I know which is the standard? Do I just use glutMouseFunc() and use button values like 4 and 5 for the scroll up and down values respectively, say if 1, 2 and 3 are the left, middle and right buttons? Is this the reliable method? Bonus question: it seems the `xev' tool is reporting different values for my buttons. My mouse buttons are numbered from 1 to 5 with xev, but glut is reporting buttons from 0 to 4, i.e. an off-by-one. Is this common?

    Read the article

  • How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

    Read the article

  • php automatically commented with apache

    - by clement
    We have installed apache 2.2, and activeperl to run bugzilla, all that on a Windows Server 2003. Here We want to install PHP on the server to install a wiki. I followed those steps: tutorial to install PHP and enable it from Apache. After all those steps, I restart couples of times, and When I try a simple phpinfo() on PHP, the whole PHP code is commented: < ! - - ?php phpinfo(); ? - - Now, the httpd.conf was already edited for the PERL and it can be those edits that make the mistake. Here is the whole httpd.conf file: ServerRoot "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2" Listen 6969 LoadModule actions_module modules/mod_actions.so LoadModule alias_module modules/mod_alias.so LoadModule asis_module modules/mod_asis.so LoadModule auth_basic_module modules/mod_auth_basic.so LoadModule php5_module "c:/php/php5apache2_2.dll" LoadModule authn_default_module modules/mod_authn_default.so LoadModule authn_file_module modules/mod_authn_file.so LoadModule authz_default_module modules/mod_authz_default.so LoadModule authz_groupfile_module modules/mod_authz_groupfile.so LoadModule authz_host_module modules/mod_authz_host.so LoadModule authz_user_module modules/mod_authz_user.so LoadModule autoindex_module modules/mod_autoindex.so LoadModule cgi_module modules/mod_cgi.so LoadModule dir_module modules/mod_dir.so LoadModule env_module modules/mod_env.so LoadModule include_module modules/mod_include.so LoadModule isapi_module modules/mod_isapi.so LoadModule log_config_module modules/mod_log_config.so LoadModule mime_module modules/mod_mime.so LoadModule negotiation_module modules/mod_negotiation.so LoadModule setenvif_module modules/mod_setenvif.so User daemon Group daemon ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot C:/bugzilla-4.4.2/ Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Options Indexes FollowSymLinks ExecCGI AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all ScriptInterpreterSource Registry-Strict DirectoryIndex index.html index.html.var index.cgi index.php Order allow,deny Deny from all Satisfy All ErrorLog "logs/error.log" LogLevel warn LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" common <IfModule logio_module> LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\" %I %O" combinedio </IfModule> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "C:/Program Files/Apache Software Foundation/Apache2.2/cgi-bin/" AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all DefaultType text/plain AddType application/x-compress .Z AddType application/x-gzip .gz .tgz AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AddType application/x-httpd-php .php SSLRandomSeed startup builtin SSLRandomSeed connect builtin PHPIniDir "c:/php"

    Read the article

  • Spring, Need to use a a bean declared in a ApplicationContextFactory servlet, in a DispatcherServlet

    - by Ernest
    Hello, i have a web.xml with these 2 servlet: <servlet> <servlet-name>ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.bamboo.common.factory.ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> AND <servlet> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I need to use these bean declared on the ApplicationContextFactory: <bean id="**catalogFacadeTarget**" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.CatalogFacadeImpl"> <property name="categoryDAO"><ref local="categoryDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="containerDAO"><ref local="containerDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productDAO"><ref local="productDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productOptionDAO"><ref local="productOptionDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productStatusDAO"><ref local="productStatusDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="userDAO"><ref local="userDAOTarget"/></property> </bean> in the dispatcher-servlet like this: <bean name="welcome" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.Welcome"> <property name="successView"> <value>welcome</value> </property> <property name="catalogFacadeImpl"><ref local="**categoryDAOTarget**"/> </property> </bean> Is it posible some how? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Research and replace Word Rtf

    - by Perello
    I'm working on an application which has a workflow for postal mails. These postal mails are generated according to my application business rules. Models are in html or Rtf and it works perfectly as long the user do not create the rtf with word. This is not within the specs, but my hierarchy would welcome a Word compatibility if it don't involve too much work, and it would please and ease the life of our customer. The Rtf models have tags which are replaced by application values. In most RTF, tags are not splitted, so the search and replace works perfectly. I wish to be handle word with few modifications. Example data : [[FooBuzz]] in most rtf it's not splited. In word 2003 : {\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 [[}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid2708730 FooBuzz}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 ]]} And their word (word 2007) splitted also Foo{garbage inside} Buzz. So i wish to be able to handle common RTF perfectly, and detect tags even if they are splitted. I have 2 constraints. First no regression, second it has to stay simple. Performance is not an issue here. I'm using symfony 1.4. The actual relevant research code part : $regExpression = '/\[\[([^\[\]]*)\]\]/'; preg_match_all($regExpression, $sTemplate, $outKeys);

    Read the article

  • Hibernate 3.5.0 causes extreme performance problems

    - by user303396
    I've recently updated from hibernate 3.3.1.GA to hibernate 3.5.0 and I'm having a lot of performance issues. As a test, I added around 8000 entities to my DB (which in turn cause other entities to be saved). These entities are saved in batches of 20 so that the transactions aren't too large for performance reasons. When using hibernate 3.3.1.GA all 8000 entities get saved in about 3 minutes. When using hibernate 3.5.0 it starts out slower than with hibernate 3.3.1. But it gets slower and slower. At around 4,000 entities, it sometimes takes 5 minutes just to save a batch of 20. If I then go to a mysql console and manually type in an insert statement from the mysql general query log, half of them run perfect in 0.00 seconds. And half of them take a long time (maybe 40 seconds) or timeout with "ERROR 1205 (HY000): Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" from MySQL. Has something changed in hibernate's transaction management in version 3.5.0 that I should be aware of? The ONLY thing I changed to experience these unusable performance issues is replace the following hibernate 3.3.1.GA jar files: com.springsource.org.hibernate-3.3.1.GA.jar, com.springsource.org.hibernate.annotations-3.4.0.GA.jar, com.springsource.org.hibernate.annotations.common-3.3.0.ga.jar, com.springsource.javassist-3.3.0.ga.jar with the new hibernate 3.5.0 release hibernate3.jar and javassist-3.9.0.GA.jar. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

    Read the article

  • [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

    - by pbean
    I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

    Read the article

  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Tool to detect use/abuse of String.Concat (where StringBuilder should be used)

    - by Mark Rushakoff
    It's common knowledge that you shouldn't use a StringBuilder in place of a small number of concatenations: string s = "Hello"; if (greetingWorld) { s += " World"; } s += "!"; However, in loops of a significant size, StringBuilder is the obvious choice: string s = ""; foreach (var i in Enumerable.Range(1,5000)) { s += i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine(s); Is there a tool that I can run on either raw C# source or a compiled assembly to identify where in the source code that String.Concat is being called? (If you're not familiar, s += "foo" is mapped to String.Concat in the IL output.) Obviously, I can't realistically search through an entire project and evaluate every += to identify whether the lvalue is a string. Ideally, it would only point out calls inside a for/foreach loop, but I would even put up with all the false positives of noting every String.Concat. Also, I'm aware that there are some refactoring tools that will automatically refactor my code to use StringBuilder, but I am only interested in identifying the Concat usage at this point. I routinely run Gendarme and FxCop on my code, and neither of those tools identify what I've described.

    Read the article

  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

    - by masseyc
    Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

    Read the article

  • How to upload files to server using JSP/Servlet?

    - by Thang Pham
    How can I upload files to server using JSP/Servlet? I tried this: <form action="upload" method="post"> <input type="text" name="description" /> <input type="file" name="file" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> However, I only get the file name, not the file content. When I add enctype="multipart/form-data" to the <form>, then request.getParameter() returns null. During research I stumbled upon Apache Common FileUpload. I tried this: FileItemFactory factory = new DiskFileItemFactory(); ServletFileUpload upload = new ServletFileUpload(factory); List items = upload.parseRequest(request); // This line is where it died. Unfortunately, the servlet threw an exception without a clear message and cause. Here is the stacktrace: SEVERE: Servlet.service() for servlet UploadServlet threw exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Servlet execution threw an exception at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:313) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637)

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to increase the efficiency of shared_ptr by storing the reference count inside the co

    - by BillyONeal
    Hello everyone :) This is becoming a common pattern in my code, for when I need to manage an object that needs to be noncopyable because either A. it is "heavy" or B. it is an operating system resource, such as a critical section: class Resource; class Implementation : public boost::noncopyable { friend class Resource; HANDLE someData; Implementation(HANDLE input) : someData(input) {}; void SomeMethodThatActsOnHandle() { //Do stuff }; public: ~Implementation() { FreeHandle(someData) }; }; class Resource { boost::shared_ptr<Implementation> impl; public: Resource(int argA) explicit { HANDLE handle = SomeLegacyCApiThatMakesSomething(argA); if (handle == INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) throw SomeTypeOfException(); impl.reset(new Implementation(handle)); }; void SomeMethodThatActsOnTheResource() { impl->SomeMethodThatActsOnTheHandle(); }; }; This way, shared_ptr takes care of the reference counting headaches, allowing Resource to be copyable, even though the underlying handle should only be closed once all references to it are destroyed. However, it seems like we could save the overhead of allocating shared_ptr's reference counts and such separately if we could move that data inside Implementation somehow, like boost's intrusive containers do. If this is making the premature optimization hackles nag some people, I actually agree that I don't need this for my current project. But I'm curious if it is possible.

    Read the article

  • Need help make these classes use Visitor Pattern and generics

    - by Shervin
    Hi. I need help to generify and implement the visitor pattern. We are using tons of instanceof and it is a pain. I am sure it can be modified, but I am not sure how to do it. Basically we have an interface ProcessData public interface ProcessData { public setDelegate(Object delegate); public Object getDelegate(); //I am sure these delegate methods can use generics somehow } Now we have a class ProcessDataGeneric that implements ProcessData public class ProcessDataGeneric implements ProcessData { private Object delegate; public ProcessDataGeneric(Object delegate) { this.delegate = delegate; } } Now a new interface that retrieves the ProcessData interface ProcessDataWrapper { public ProcessData unwrap(); } Now a common abstract class that implements the wrapper so ProcessData can be retrieved @XmlSeeAlso( { ProcessDataMotorferdsel.class,ProcessDataTilskudd.class }) public abstract class ProcessDataCommon implements ProcessDataWrapper { protected ProcessData unwrapped; public ProcessData unwrap() { return unwrapped; } } Now the implementation public class ProcessDataMotorferdsel extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataMotorferdsel() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } similarly public class ProcessDataTilskudd extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataTilskudd() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } Now when I use these classes, I always need to do instanceof ProcessDataCommon pdc = null; if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataMotorferdsel) { pdc = (ProcessDataMotorferdsel) processData.getDelegate(); } else if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataTilskudd) { pdc = (ProcessDataTilskudd) processData.getDelegate(); } I know there is a better way to do this, but I have no idea how I can utilize Generics and the Visitor Pattern. Any help is GREATLY appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291  | Next Page >