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  • nServiceBus - Not all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

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  • How to keep confirmation messages after POST while doing a post-submit redirect?

    - by MicE
    Hello, I'm looking for advise on how to share certain bits of data (i.e. post-submit confirmation messages) between individual requests in a web application. Let me explain: Current approach: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, user is shown a confirmation with links to: submit a new resource (for "add" form) view the submitted/edited resource view all resources (one step above in hierarchy) user then has to click on one of the three links to proceed (i.e. to the page "above") Progmatically, the form and its confirmation page are one set of classes. The page above that is another. They can technically share code, but at the moment they are both independent during processing of individual requests. We would like to amend the above as follows: user submits an add/edit form for a resource if there were no errors, the user is redirected to the page with all resources (one step above in hierarchy) with one or more confirmation messages displayed at the top of the page (i.e. success message, to whom was the request assigned, etc) This will: save users one click (they have to go through a lot of these add/edit forms) the post-submit redirect will address common problems with browser refresh / back-buttons What approach would you recommend for sharing data needed for the confirmation messages between the two requests, please? I'm not sure if it helps, it's a PHP application backed by a RESTful API, but I think that this is a language-agnostic question. A few simple solutions that come to mind are to share the data via cookies or in the session, this however breaks statelessness and would pose a significant problem for users who work in several tabs (the data could clash together). Passing the data as GET parameters is not suitable as we are talking about several messages which are dynamic (e.g. changing actors, dates). Thanks, M.

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  • Why do InterruptedExceptions clear a thread's interrupted status?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    If a thread is interrupted while inside Object.wait() or Thread.join(), it throws an InterruptedException, which resets the thread's interrupted status. I. e., if I have a loop like this inside a Runnable.run(): while (!this._workerThread.isInterrupted()) { // do something try { synchronized (this) { this.wait(this._waitPeriod); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { if (!this._isStopping()) { this._handleFault(e); } } } the thread will continue to run after calling interrupt(). This means I have to explicitly break out of the loop by checking for my own stop flag in the loop condition, rethrow the exception, or add a break. Now, this is not exactly a problem, since this behaviour is well documented and doesn't prevent me from doing anything the way I want. However, I don't seem to understand the concept behind it: Why is a thread not considered interrupted anymore once the exception has been thrown? A similar behaviour also occurs if you get the interrupted status with interrupted() instead of isInterrupted(), then, too, the thread will only appear interrupted once. Am I doing something unusual here? For example, is it more common to catch the InterruptedException outside the loop? (Even though I'm not exactly a beginner, I tagged this "beginner", because it seems like a very basic question to me, looking at it.)

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  • Need help make these classes use Visitor Pattern and generics

    - by Shervin
    Hi. I need help to generify and implement the visitor pattern. We are using tons of instanceof and it is a pain. I am sure it can be modified, but I am not sure how to do it. Basically we have an interface ProcessData public interface ProcessData { public setDelegate(Object delegate); public Object getDelegate(); //I am sure these delegate methods can use generics somehow } Now we have a class ProcessDataGeneric that implements ProcessData public class ProcessDataGeneric implements ProcessData { private Object delegate; public ProcessDataGeneric(Object delegate) { this.delegate = delegate; } } Now a new interface that retrieves the ProcessData interface ProcessDataWrapper { public ProcessData unwrap(); } Now a common abstract class that implements the wrapper so ProcessData can be retrieved @XmlSeeAlso( { ProcessDataMotorferdsel.class,ProcessDataTilskudd.class }) public abstract class ProcessDataCommon implements ProcessDataWrapper { protected ProcessData unwrapped; public ProcessData unwrap() { return unwrapped; } } Now the implementation public class ProcessDataMotorferdsel extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataMotorferdsel() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } similarly public class ProcessDataTilskudd extends ProcessDataCommon { public ProcessDataTilskudd() { unwrapped = new ProcessDataGeneric(this); } } Now when I use these classes, I always need to do instanceof ProcessDataCommon pdc = null; if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataMotorferdsel) { pdc = (ProcessDataMotorferdsel) processData.getDelegate(); } else if(processData.getDelegate() instanceof ProcessDataTilskudd) { pdc = (ProcessDataTilskudd) processData.getDelegate(); } I know there is a better way to do this, but I have no idea how I can utilize Generics and the Visitor Pattern. Any help is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • Switch gettext translated language with original language

    - by Ruben
    Hi everyone, I started my PHP application with all text in German, then used gettext to extract all strings and translate them to English. So, now I have a .po file with all msgids in German and msgstrs in English. I want to switch them, so that my source code contains the English as msgids. There are numerous reasons for this: More translators will know English, so it is only appropriate to serve them up a file with msgids in English. I could always switch the file before I give it out and after I receive it It would help me to write English object & function names and comments if the content text was also English. I'd like to do that, so the project is more open to other Open Source collaborators (more likely to know English than German). I could do this manually and this is the sort of task where I anticipate it will take me more time to write an automated routine for it (because I'm very bad with shell scripts) than do it by hand. But I also anticipate despising every minute of manual computer labour (feels like a oxymoron, right?) like I always do. Has someone done this before? I figured this would be a common problem, but couldn't find anything. Many thanks ahead. Sample Problem: <title><?=_('Routinen')?></title> #: /users/ruben/sites/v/routinen.php:43 msgid "Routinen" msgstr "Routines"

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  • [Database] How to model this one-to-one relation?

    - by pbean
    I have several entities which respresent different types of users who need to be able to log in to a particular system. Additionally, they have different types of information associated with them. For example: a "general user", which has an e-mail address and "admin user", which has a workstation number (note that this a hypothetical case). Both entities also share common properties like first name, surname, address and telephone number. Finally, they naturally need to have a (unique) user name and a password to log in. In the application, the user just has to fill in his user name and password, and the functionality of the application changes slightly according to the type of the user. You can imagine that the username needs to be unique for this work. How should I model this effectively? I can't just create two tables, because then I can't force a unique constaint on the user name. I also can't put them all in just one table, because they have different types of specific information associated to them. I think I might need 3 seperate tables, one for "users" (with user name and password), one for the "general users" and another one for the "admin users", but how would the relations between these work? Or is there another solution? (By the way, the target DBMS is MySQL, so I don't think generalization is supported in the database system itself).

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  • Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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  • looking to streamline my RSS feed mashup

    - by Mark Cejas
    Hello crafty developers, I have aggregated RSS feeds from various sources with RSSowl, fetching directly from the social mention API. The RSS feeds are categorized into the following major categories: blogs, news, twitter, Q&A and social networking sites. Each major category is nested with a common group of RSS feeds that represent a particular client/brand ontology. Merging these feeds into the RSSowl reader application, allows me to conduct and save refined search queries (from the aggregated data) into a single file - that I can then tag and further segment for analysis. This scheme is utilized for my own research needs and has helped me considerably. However, I find this RSS mashup scheme kinda clumsy, it requires quite a bit of time to initially organize all of the feeds and I would like to be able to do further natural language processing to the data as well as eventually be able to rank the collected list of URL's into some order of media prominence - right I don't want to pay the ridiculous radian6 web analytics fees, when my intuition is telling me that with a bit of 'elbow grease' I can maybe leverage some available resources online to develop a functional low scale web mining application and get some good intelligence from it. I am now starting to learn a little about computer science - my background is in physical science/statistics so is my thinking in the right track? So, I guess I am imagining an application that allows me to query in a refined manner. A manner that allows me to search for keyword combinations, applying AND/OR operators, selectively focus my queries into particular sources - like a collection of blogs or twitter, or social networking communities, then save the results of my queries into a structured format that can then be manipulated and explored. Am I dreaming? I just had to get all of this out. any bit of advice and insight would be hugely appreciated. my best, Mark

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  • Research and replace Word Rtf

    - by Perello
    I'm working on an application which has a workflow for postal mails. These postal mails are generated according to my application business rules. Models are in html or Rtf and it works perfectly as long the user do not create the rtf with word. This is not within the specs, but my hierarchy would welcome a Word compatibility if it don't involve too much work, and it would please and ease the life of our customer. The Rtf models have tags which are replaced by application values. In most RTF, tags are not splitted, so the search and replace works perfectly. I wish to be handle word with few modifications. Example data : [[FooBuzz]] in most rtf it's not splited. In word 2003 : {\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 [[}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid2708730 FooBuzz}{\rtlch\fcs1 \af0 \ltrch\fcs0 \insrsid5517131 ]]} And their word (word 2007) splitted also Foo{garbage inside} Buzz. So i wish to be able to handle common RTF perfectly, and detect tags even if they are splitted. I have 2 constraints. First no regression, second it has to stay simple. Performance is not an issue here. I'm using symfony 1.4. The actual relevant research code part : $regExpression = '/\[\[([^\[\]]*)\]\]/'; preg_match_all($regExpression, $sTemplate, $outKeys);

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  • How frequently IP packets are fragmented at the source host?

    - by Methos
    I know that if IP payload MTU then routers usually fragment the IP packet. Finally all the fragmented packets are assembled at the destination using the fields IP-ID, IP fragment offsets and fragmentation flags. Max length of IP payload is 64K. Thus its very plausible for L4 to hand over payload which is 64K. If the L2 protocol is Ethernet, which often is the case, then the MTU will be about 1600 bytes. Hence IP packet will be fragmented at the source host itself. However, a quick search about IP implementation in Linux tells me that in recent kernels, L4 protocols are fragment friendly i.e. they try to save the fragmentation work for IP by handing over buffers of size which is close to MTU. Considering these two facts, I am wondering about how frequently does the IP packet gets fragmented at the source host itself. Does it occur sometimes/rarely/never? Does anyone know if there are exceptions to the rule of fragmentation in linux kernel (i.e. are there situations where L4 protocols are not fragment friendly)? How is this handled in other common OSes like windows? In general how frequently IP packets are fragmented?

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  • implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

    - by masseyc
    Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Tool to detect use/abuse of String.Concat (where StringBuilder should be used)

    - by Mark Rushakoff
    It's common knowledge that you shouldn't use a StringBuilder in place of a small number of concatenations: string s = "Hello"; if (greetingWorld) { s += " World"; } s += "!"; However, in loops of a significant size, StringBuilder is the obvious choice: string s = ""; foreach (var i in Enumerable.Range(1,5000)) { s += i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine(s); Is there a tool that I can run on either raw C# source or a compiled assembly to identify where in the source code that String.Concat is being called? (If you're not familiar, s += "foo" is mapped to String.Concat in the IL output.) Obviously, I can't realistically search through an entire project and evaluate every += to identify whether the lvalue is a string. Ideally, it would only point out calls inside a for/foreach loop, but I would even put up with all the false positives of noting every String.Concat. Also, I'm aware that there are some refactoring tools that will automatically refactor my code to use StringBuilder, but I am only interested in identifying the Concat usage at this point. I routinely run Gendarme and FxCop on my code, and neither of those tools identify what I've described.

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

    - by Horace Loeb
    Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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  • Macro to improve callback registration readability

    - by Warren Seine
    I'm trying to write a macro to make a specific usage of callbacks in C++ easier. All my callbacks are member functions and will take this as first argument and a second one whose type inherits from a common base class. The usual way to go is: register_callback(boost::bind(&my_class::member_function, this, _1)); I'd love to write: register_callback(HANDLER(member_function)); Note that it will always be used within the same class. Even if typeof is considered as a bad practice, it sounds like a pretty solution to the lack of __class__ macro to get the current class name. The following code works: typedef typeof(*this) CLASS; boost::bind(& CLASS :: member_function, this, _1)(my_argument); but I can't use this code in a macro which will be given as argument to register_callback. I've tried: #define HANDLER(FUN) \ boost::bind(& typeof(*this) :: member_function, this, _1); which doesn't work for reasons I don't understand. Quoting GCC documentation: A typeof-construct can be used anywhere a typedef name could be used. My compiler is GCC 4.4, and even if I'd prefer something standard, GCC-specific solutions are accepted.

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  • Why is debugging better in an IDE?

    - by Bill Karwin
    I've been a software developer for over twenty years, programming in C, Perl, SQL, Java, PHP, JavaScript, and recently Python. I've never had a problem I could not debug using some careful thought, and well-placed debugging print statements. I respect that many people say that my techniques are primitive, and using a real debugger in an IDE is much better. Yet from my observation, IDE users don't appear to debug faster or more successfully than I can, using my stone knives and bear skins. I'm sincerely open to learning the right tools, I've just never been shown a compelling advantage to using visual debuggers. Moreover, I have never read a tutorial or book that showed how to debug effectively using an IDE, beyond the basics of how to set breakpoints and display the contents of variables. What am I missing? What makes IDE debugging tools so much more effective than thoughtful use of diagnostic print statements? Can you suggest resources (tutorials, books, screencasts) that show the finer techniques of IDE debugging? Sweet answers! Thanks much to everyone for taking the time. Very illuminating. I voted up many, and voted none down. Some notable points: Debuggers can help me do ad hoc inspection or alteration of variables, code, or any other aspect of the runtime environment, whereas manual debugging requires me to stop, edit, and re-execute the application (possibly requiring recompilation). Debuggers can attach to a running process or use a crash dump, whereas with manual debugging, "steps to reproduce" a defect are necessary. Debuggers can display complex data structures, multi-threaded environments, or full runtime stacks easily and in a more readable manner. Debuggers offer many ways to reduce the time and repetitive work to do almost any debugging tasks. Visual debuggers and console debuggers are both useful, and have many features in common. A visual debugger integrated into an IDE also gives you convenient access to smart editing and all the other features of the IDE, in a single integrated development environment (hence the name).

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  • Transitioning from Domain Authentication to SQL Server Authentication

    - by Albert Perrien
    Greetings all, I've run into a problem that has me stumped. I've put together a database in SQL Server Express, and I'm having a strange permissions problem. The database is on my development machine with a domain user: DOMAIN\albertp. My development database server is set for "SQL Server and Windows Authentication" mode. I can edit and query my database without any problems when I log in using Windows Authentication. However, when I log in to any user that uses SQL Server authentication (Including sa) I get this message when I run queries against my database. SELECT * FROM [Testing].[dbo].[AuditingReport] I get: Msg 18456, Level 14, State 1, Line 1 Login failed for user 'auditor'. I'm logged into the server from SQL Server Management Studio as 'auditor' and I don't see anything in the error log about the login failure. I've already run: Use Testing; Grant All to auditor; Go And I still get the same error. What permissions do I have to set for the database to be usable by others outside of my personal domain login? Or am I looking at the wrong problem? My ultimate goal is to have the database be accessible from a set of PHP pages, using a either a common login (hence 'auditor') or a login specific to a set of individual users.

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  • How to detect that the internet connection has got disconnected through a java desktop application?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am developing a Java Desktop Application that access internet. It is a multi-threaded application, each thread do the same work (means each thread is an instance of same Thread class). Now, as all the threads need internet connection to be active, there should be some mechanism that detects whether an internet connection is active or not. Q1. How to detect whether the internet connection is active or not? Q2. Where to implement this internet-status-check-mechanism code? Should I start a separate thread for checking internet status regularly and notifies all the threads when the status changes from one state to another? Or should I let each thread check for the internet-status itself? Q3. This issue should be a very common issue as every application accessing an internet should deal with this problem. So how other developers usually deal with this problem? Q4. If you could give me a reference to a good demo application that addresses this issue then it would greatly help me.

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  • Spring, Need to use a a bean declared in a ApplicationContextFactory servlet, in a DispatcherServlet

    - by Ernest
    Hello, i have a web.xml with these 2 servlet: <servlet> <servlet-name>ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.bamboo.common.factory.ApplicationContextFactory</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> AND <servlet> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> I need to use these bean declared on the ApplicationContextFactory: <bean id="**catalogFacadeTarget**" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.CatalogFacadeImpl"> <property name="categoryDAO"><ref local="categoryDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="containerDAO"><ref local="containerDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productDAO"><ref local="productDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productOptionDAO"><ref local="productOptionDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="productStatusDAO"><ref local="productStatusDAOTarget"/></property> <property name="userDAO"><ref local="userDAOTarget"/></property> </bean> in the dispatcher-servlet like this: <bean name="welcome" class="com.bamboo.catW3.business.impl.Welcome"> <property name="successView"> <value>welcome</value> </property> <property name="catalogFacadeImpl"><ref local="**categoryDAOTarget**"/> </property> </bean> Is it posible some how? Thank you!

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  • Achieving Thread-Safety

    - by Smasher
    Question How can I make sure my application is thread-safe? Are their any common practices, testing methods, things to avoid, things to look for? Background I'm currently developing a server application that performs a number of background tasks in different threads and communicates with clients using Indy (using another bunch of automatically generated threads for the communication). Since the application should be highly availabe, a program crash is a very bad thing and I want to make sure that the application is thread-safe. No matter what, from time to time I discover a piece of code that throws an exception that never occured before and in most cases I realize that it is some kind of synchronization bug, where I forgot to synchronize my objects properly. Hence my question concerning best practices, testing of thread-safety and things like that. mghie: Thanks for the answer! I should perhaps be a little bit more precise. Just to be clear, I know about the principles of multithreading, I use synchronization (monitors) throughout my program and I know how to differentiate threading problems from other implementation problems. But nevertheless, I keep forgetting to add proper synchronization from time to time. Just to give an example, I used the RTL sort function in my code. Looked something like FKeyList.Sort (CompareKeysFunc); Turns out, that I had to synchronize FKeyList while sorting. It just don't came to my mind when initially writing that simple line of code. It's these thins I wanna talk about. What are the places where one easily forgets to add synchronization code? How do YOU make sure that you added sync code in all important places?

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  • How to upload files to server using JSP/Servlet?

    - by Thang Pham
    How can I upload files to server using JSP/Servlet? I tried this: <form action="upload" method="post"> <input type="text" name="description" /> <input type="file" name="file" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> However, I only get the file name, not the file content. When I add enctype="multipart/form-data" to the <form>, then request.getParameter() returns null. During research I stumbled upon Apache Common FileUpload. I tried this: FileItemFactory factory = new DiskFileItemFactory(); ServletFileUpload upload = new ServletFileUpload(factory); List items = upload.parseRequest(request); // This line is where it died. Unfortunately, the servlet threw an exception without a clear message and cause. Here is the stacktrace: SEVERE: Servlet.service() for servlet UploadServlet threw exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Servlet execution threw an exception at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:313) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637)

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  • How can I bind a javascript dialog using Knockout?

    - by Brian
    I've got a list of data in an observableArray and I want to show it in a javascript dialog window (I'm using jQuery.blockUI if it matters). Unfortunately the dialog seems to come unbound after the page is loaded. The dialog initializes correctly (the data is displayed), but it isn't updating with changes. There are no Javascript errors and I've moved the binding to after the dialog is generated and added to the document (no effect). I've also tried calling ko.applyBinding on the main div that makes up the dialog but that, for some reason, causes part of the main page to hide (the DOM is there, but they are hidden). EDIT: I've created a project on jsfiddle that reproduces the problem. The main culprit seems to be wrapping the content of the dialog in a div. If I show the content directly it seems to work (of course I can't do that, the wrappers provide a common style for our dialogs). I'm recovering from the flu and could easily be missing something obvious, but I've been trying all day and nothing is coming to me. Any ideas?

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  • Web Hosting: Any web host that supports files more than 50,000 in number?

    - by Devner
    Hi all, For my PHP & mySQL based application, I am trying to buy website hosting from a host who does not have a limit on the number of files I carry in my hosting account. Almost all the websites have a common limit of 50,000 files (some websites call it 50,000 nodes). The rest(to the extent of my search) are not even close. I have gone through the various websites, Googled lot of information, have spoken with the customer service of the hosting companies and they said that they have a limit of 50,000 files and that's why they call it the LIMIT. Now I have my application, which is a kind of social networking website, where people can upload various files of varying file size. So say if 50,000 users were to join the website and upload 1 file each, the limit of 50,000 will be reached very easily and my 50,001 customer will start facing file upload problems (& so will my account). So I would like to know if there's any website hosting services that do NOT levy such restrictions. In summary, I need the following options: No maximum file limit (more than 50,000 files in account). No maximum file upload limit in server setting (10MB, 12MB, 15MB, 20MB, etc.). Ability to upload files of various types (zip, flv, jg, png, etc.). Ability to stream Audio and Video (live audio & video not necessary). Access to .htaccess Access to php.ini, my.cnf or my.ini (this would be a plus) Supports SSL. Provides dedicated hosting(& IP) as well. Monthly payments without contracts are a plus. If you know of any such website hosting services, please post a reply ( a link to the same will be appreciated ). Thank you.

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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