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  • ORDER BY in a Sql Server 2008 view

    - by eidylon
    Hi all... we have a view in our database which has an ORDER BY in it. Now, I realize views generally don't order, because different people may use it for different things, and want it differently ordered. This view however is used for a VERY SPECIFIC use-case which demands a certain order. (It is team standings for a soccer league.) The database is Sql Server 2008 Express, v.10.0.1763.0 on a Windows Server 2003 R2 box. The view is defined as such: CREATE VIEW season.CurrentStandingsOrdered AS SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT *, season.GetRanking(TEAMID) RANKING FROM season.CurrentStandings ORDER BY GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, POINTS DESC, FORFEITS, GOALS_AGAINST, GOALS_FOR DESC, DIFFERENTIAL, RANKING It returns: GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID, CLUB, NAME, WINS, LOSSES, TIES, GOALS_FOR, GOALS_AGAINST, DIFFERENTIAL, POINTS, FORFEITS, RANKING Now, when I run a SELECT against the view, it orders the results by GENDER, TEAMYEAR, CODE, TEAMID. Notice that it is ordering by TEAMID instead of POINTS as the order by clause specifies. However, if I copy the SQL statement and run it exactly as is in a new query window, it orders correctly as specified by the ORDER BY clause.

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

    - by Fly_Trap
    I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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  • WPF C# Client/Server announcement system

    - by manemawanna
    I'm currently in the process of creating an announcement system at my place of work. The role of this system will be to replace all users email due to people misusing it and generally abusing the facility. The system will consist of: Web Portal: Will allow staff to enter any important announcements (this will be restricted via AD). SQL Server 2k5 DB: Will hold the announcements along with records of staff members and if they've read the announcements etc. Front End: Created in WPF & C# which is nearly complete, it will display the announcements to the users. Web Page: Client will contact every so often, which will return an xml file for the client to read. However my boss has now shifted the goal posts and would like the announcements to appear to the user once they are written to the database, rather than waiting on the client to contact the webpage. So now I'm a bit unsure as to how to go about this. I have one idea where I would create a small server application to monitor for new announcements then contact the clients to inform them to approach the website for the information they need. But I'm just looking to see if theres a better or more efficient way to do this or if someone else has a more appropriate idea or suggestion.

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • Best Practice: Protecting Personally Identifiable Data in a ASP.NET / SQL Server 2008 Environment

    - by William
    Thanks to a SQL injection vulnerability found last week, some of my recommendations are being investigated at work. We recently re-did an application which stores personally identifiable information whose disclosure could lead to identity theft. While we read some of the data on a regular basis, the restricted data we only need a couple of times a year and then only two employees need it. I've read up on SQL Server 2008's encryption function, but I'm not convinced that's the route I want to go. My problem ultimately boils down to the fact that we're either using symmetric keys or assymetric keys encrypted by a symmetric key. Thus it seems like a SQL injection attack could lead to a data leak. I realize permissions should prevent that, permissions should also prevent the leaking in the first place. It seems to me the better method would be to asymmetrically encrypt the data in the web application. Then store the private key offline and have a fat client that they can run the few times a year they need to access the restricted data so the data could be decrypted on the client. This way, if the server get compromised, we don't leak old data although depending on what they do we may leak future data. I think the big disadvantage is this would require re-writing the web application and creating a new fat application (to pull the restricted data). Due to the recent problem, I can probably get the time allocated, so now would be the proper time to make the recommendation. Do you have a better suggestion? Which method would you recommend? More importantly why?

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  • IPad SQLite Push and Pull Data from external MS SQL Server DB

    - by MattyD
    This carries on from my previous post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4182664/ipad-app-pull-and-push-relational-data). My plan is that when the ipad application starts I am going to pull data (config data i.e. Departments, Types etc etc relational data that is used across the system) from a webhosted MS SQL Server DB via a webservice and populate it into an SQL Lite DB on the IPad. Then when I load a listing I will pull the data over the line again via a webservice and populate it into the SQL Lite db on the ipad (than just run select commands to populate the listing). My questions are: 1. What is the most efficient way to transfer data across the line via the web? Everyone seems to do it a different way. My idea is that I will have a webService for each type of data pull (e.g. RetrieveContactListing) that will query the db and than convert that data into "something" to send across the line. My question really is what is the "something" that it should be converting into? 2. Everyone talks about odata services. Is this suited for applications where complex read and writes are needed? Ive created a simple iphone app before that talked to an sql server db (i just sent my own structured xml across the line) but now with this app the data calls are going to be a lot larger so efficiency is key.

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  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

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  • Thumbnail image saved with worse quality on Windows Server 2003

    - by Angelo
    Hello, In asp.net 2.0 application I am trying to create thumbnails from uploaded images. However when I test the application on my PC under Windows7 it works fine, but on the real Windows 2003 Server the resized image has worse quality. Where this difference could come from? Different JPEG codec or what, if Yes how it can be updated on Win 2003 Server? Thanks! Here is the code: Resize of the Image: Bitmap newBmp = new Bitmap(imgWidth, imgHeight, PixelFormat.Format24bppRgb); newBmp.SetResolution(inputBmp.HorizontalResolution, inputBmp.VerticalResolution); //Create a graphics object attached to the new bitmap Graphics newBmpGraphics = Graphics.FromImage(newBmp); newBmpGraphics.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; newBmpGraphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.PixelOffsetMode = PixelOffsetMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.DrawImage(inputBmp, new Rectangle(0, 0, imgWidth, imgHeight), new Rectangle(0, 0, inputBmp.Width, inputBmp.Height), GraphicsUnit.Pixel); Save of the Image: System.IO.Stream imgStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); //Get the ImageCodecInfo for the desired target format ImageCodecInfo destCodec = FindCodecForType(ImageMimeTypes.JPEG); if (destCodec == null) { //No codec available for that format throw new ArgumentException("The requested format image/jpeg does not have an available codec installed", "destFormat"); } //Create an EncoderParameters collection to contain the //parameters that control the dest format's encoder EncoderParameters destEncParams = new EncoderParameters(1); EncoderParameter qualityParam = new EncoderParameter(System.Drawing.Imaging.Encoder.Quality,(long)quality); destEncParams.Param[0] = qualityParam; //Save w/ the selected codec and encoder parameters inputBmp.Save(imgStream, destCodec, destEncParams); Bitmap destBitmap = new Bitmap(imgStream);

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  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

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  • How to run stored procedures and ad-hoc scripts asynchronously with "loosely" connected SQL Server 2

    - by sanga
    Is there a way to initiate a script against an instance of SQL server when it is not connected then have it run on the instance the next time it connects? This needs to happen without any intervention from me. Background situation if you are interested: We have about 120 machines each with their own instance of SQL Server 2000. Most of them are laptops. We have merge replication set up with each one. From time to time, there is a need to delete "rogue" guids from some tables in some instances that overwrite legitimate records on the main publisher as well as perform administrative tasks via stored procedure or adhoc sql statements. The problem is there is no telling when each machine is going to be connected to the network. Some folks turn their machines completely off at the end of the day. Others disconnect their machines and take them on business trips, home for the weekend etc. Did I mention that about 35 of these machines are in utility trucks and "attempt" to sync over a wireless connection. Thanks in advance for any assistance or suggestions. Sanga

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  • SQL Server find and replace in TEXT field

    - by incubushead
    I have a database in SQL Server 2005 that was brought up from SQL Server 2000 and is still using TEXT type fields instead of varchar(max). I need to find and replace a string of characters in the text field but all of the examples of how to do this that I have found don't seem like they would work for me. It seems the UPDATETEXT command requires that the two parameters "insert_offset" and "delete_length" be set explicitly but the string i am searching for could show up in the text at any point or even at several points in the same cell. My understanding of these two parameters is that the string im searching for will always be in the same place, so that insert_offset is the number of spaces into the text that the UPDATETEXT command will start replacing text. Example: Need to find: &lt;u&gt; and Replace it with: <u> Text field example: *Everyone in the room was <b>&lt;u&gt;tired&lt;/u&gt;.</b><br>Then they woke <b>&lt;u&gt;up&lt;/u&gt;. Can anyone help me out with this? THANKS!

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  • jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

    - by Chiefy
    Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

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  • Managing modes in Windows application working directly with SQL Server 2008

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have a MS Access 97 application (but the question is general) working directly with SQL Server 2008 (without application server or anything). Numbers of users can be up to 1000. Windows Authentication is used. The question is: How to handle modes, so some users will be allowed to work in read-only mode some users won't have access to db for some time My versions: Using a table with a mode id for every group of users, that will work the same way. On Form Load application will query that table for mode id. Using trigger on the tables, that must work according to that mode. The trigger will query mode value and doesn't work if access is closed or it's in read-only mode I know it's not these are not the best solutions, that's why I'm asking for your advice. There's one more point. If the mode is changed to "access-is-closed" for a group of users, that group must not be able to query to DB starting that moment. With first solution I wrote it won't work, because user can be in application at that moment and no form load event will work. How can I do this? Is there any optimal solution? Thank you. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Give Access to a Subdirectory Without Giving Access to Parent Directories

    - by allquixotic
    I have a scenario involving a Windows file server where the "owner" wants to dole out permissions to a group of users of the following sort: \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3: Read & Execute and Write \\server\dir1\dir2: No permissions. \\server\dir1: No permissions. \\server: Read & Execute To my understanding, it is not possible to do this because Read & Execute permission must be granted to all the parent directories in a directory chain in order for the operating system to be able to "see" the child directories and get to them. Without this permission, you can't even obtain the security context token when trying to access the nested directory, even if you have full access to the subdirectory. We are looking for ways to get around this, without moving the data from \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3 to \\server\dir4. One workaround I thought of, but which I am not sure if it will work, is creating some sort of link or junction \\server\dir4 which is a reference to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3. I am not sure which of the available options (if any) would work for this purpose if the user does not have Read & Execute permission on \\server\dir1\dir2 or \\server\dir1, but as far as I know, the options are these: NTFS Symbolic Link, Junction, Hard Link. So the questions: Are any of these methods suitable to accomplish my goal? Are there any other methods of linking or indirectly referencing a directory, which I haven't listed above, which might be suitable? Are there any direct solutions that don't involve granting Read & Execute to \\server\dir1 or \\server\dir2 but still allowing access to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3?

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  • Generating the query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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  • How to configure replication? - This database is not enabled for publication.

    - by truthseeker
    Hi, I'm trying to configure repication on SQL Server 2005. I can done it using wizard. But when I'm trying to run generated scripts by this wizard the error message appears: Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication, Line 159 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 18757, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication_snapshot, Line 66 Unable to execute procedure. The database is not published. Execute the procedure in a database that is published for replication. Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addarticle, Line 168 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 14294, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_verify_job_identifiers, Line 25 Supply either @job_id or @job_name to identify the job. It's a bit strange, because when I'm running this query on database where I clicked and then removed publication, everyting is going well. The problem is when I'm using my query on new database. What is more I'm using sp_replicationdboption stored procedure. When I'm tryin to run it, it says: The replication option 'publish' of database 'ReplicationTest00' has already been set to true. Please help me resolve this issue.

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  • Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

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  • Generating the SQL query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data in XML to a SQL Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data to Sql Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

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  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

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  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

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  • SSIS: "Failure inserting into the read-only column <ColumnName>"

    - by Cory
    I have an Excel source going into an OLE DB destination. I'm inserting data into a view that has an INSTEAD OF trigger that handles all inserts. When I try to execute the package I receive this error: "Failure inserting into the read-only column ColumnName" What can I do to let SSIS know that this view is safe to insert into because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger that will handle the insert? EDIT (Additional info): Some more additional info. I have a flat file that is being inserted into a normalized database. My initial problem was how do I take a flat file and insert that data into multiple tables while keeping track of all the primary/foreign key relationships. My solution was to create a VIEW that mimicked the structure of the flat file and then create an INSTEAD OF trigger on that view. In my INSTEAD OF trigger I would handle the logic of maintaining all the relationships between tables My view looks something like this. CREATE VIEW ImportView AS SELECT CONVERT(varchar(100, NULL) AS CustomerName, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address1, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address2, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS City, CONVERT(char(2), NULL) AS State, CONVERT(varchar(250), NULL) AS ItemOrdered, CONVERT(int, NULL) AS QuantityOrdered ... I will never need to select from this view, I only use it to insert data into it from this flat file I receive. I need someway to tell SQL Server that the fields aren't really read only because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger on this view.

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  • Generating Random Records Date Wise

    - by Julian
    I work for a non-profit organization where we send volunteers to aided schools everyday. I am creating a site to display this info and am using SQL server express. I want some help regarding a query so here's my first post We have 15 volunteers currently who will go to 4 different schools to teach. Here are some conditions: We have to create a 'new' group comprising of 1 Leader and 4 TeamSupporters 'every day' except Sunday who will go to teach everyday If a person becomes a Leader in a week, he cannot become a leader again for the same week. A leader can become a TeamSupporter in the same week. Moving ahead, we can have more number of school to target, so 4 is not a constant Here's how the output should look like School1 School2 School3 School4 Jun14 Leader V6 V6 V6 V6 Support1 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V12 V12 V12 V12 Support4 V1 V1 V1 V1 Jun15 Leader V2 V2 V2 V2 Support1 V7 V7 V7 V7 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V8 V8 V8 V8 Support4 V11 V11 V11 V11 Jun16 Leader V9 V9 V9 V9 Support1 V6 V6 V6 V6 Support2 V4 V4 V4 V4 Support3 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support4 V14 V14 V14 V14 and so on..

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  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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