Search Results

Search found 9332 results on 374 pages for 'an original alias'.

Page 289/374 | < Previous Page | 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296  | Next Page >

  • Does this use of Monitor.Wait/Pulse have a race condition?

    - by jw
    I have a simple producer/consumer scenario, where there is only ever a single item being produced/consumed. Also, the producer waits for the worker thread to finish before continuing. I realize that kind of obviates the whole point of multithreading, but please just assume it really needs to be this way (: This code doesn't compile, but I hope you get the idea: // m_data is initially null // This could be called by any number of producer threads simultaneously void SetData(object foo) { lock(x) // Line A { assert(m_data == null); m_data = foo; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line B while(m_data != null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line C } } // This is only ever called by a single worker thread void UseData() { lock(x) // Line D { while(m_data == null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line E // here, do something with m_data m_data = null; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line F } } Here is the situation that I am not sure about: Suppose many threads call SetData() with different inputs. Only one of them will get inside the lock, and the rest will be blocked on Line A. Suppose the one that got inside the lock sets m_data and makes its way to Line C. Question: Could the Wait() on Line C allow another thread at Line A to obtain the lock and overwrite m_data before the worker thread even gets to it? Supposing that doesn't happen, and the worker thread processes the original m_data, and eventually makes its way to Line F, what happens when that Pulse() goes off? Will only the thread waiting on Line C be able to get the lock? Or will it be competing with all the other threads waiting on Line A as well? Essentially, I want to know if Pulse()/Wait() communicate with each other specially "under the hood" or if they are on the same level with lock(). The solution to these problems, if they exist, is obvious of course - just surround SetData() with another lock - say, lock(y). I'm just curious if it's even an issue to begin with.

    Read the article

  • iPad start in Landscape receive only touch within 768x768

    - by user1307179
    It works perfect fine when starting in portrait and also works when you rotate from portrait to landscape and back. It does not work when starting in landscape. But then it works when you rotate from landscape to portrait and back. In landscape starting mode, the screen does not respond with any touch where screen coordinateX greater than 768. What happens in code is, I use status bar orientation to determine original orientation and rotate each view manually. The views display correctly but does not receive touch properly. Then my root view controller will get called when ipad start rotating with: - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration which will rotate every subviews. Root controller: - (void)loadView { self.view = [[UIView alloc]init ]; //initialize child views [self willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:0 duration:0]; } - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration { if ([model isLandscape]) { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 768-80); } else { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 1024-80); } //rotate child views } My code [model isLandscape] works so I don't need to provide details as to how it works but here are the code anyway: - (bool)isLandscape { if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) return true; else return false; } -(id) init { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(orientationChanged:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; } - (void)orientationChanged:(NSNotification *)notification { UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = curOrientation; ((AppDelegate*)([UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate)).savedOrientationForRestart = orientation; NSLog(@"changed"); } } -(void)validateOrientation { //first time when initializing orientation UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortrait && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; } }

    Read the article

  • Android java.lang.VerifyError for private method with annotated argument.

    - by alex2k8
    I have a very simple project that compiles, but can't be started on Emulator. The problem is with this method: private void bar(@Some String a) {} // java.lang.VerifyError The issue can be avoided if annotation removed private void bar(String a) {} // OK or the method visibility changed: void bar(@Some String a) {} // OK public void bar(@Some String a) {} // OK protected void bar(@Some String a) {} // OK Any idea what is wrong with original method? Is this a dalvik bug, or? If some one whould like to experiment with code, here it is: Test.java: public class Test { private void bar(@Some String a) {} public void foo() { bar(null); } } Some.java: public @interface Some {} MainActivity.java: public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); new Test().foo(); } } Stack trace: ERROR/dalvikvm(1358): Could not find method com.my.Test.bar, referenced from method com.my.Test.foo WARN/dalvikvm(1358): VFY: unable to resolve direct method 11: Lcom/my/Test;.bar (Ljava/lang/String;)V WARN/dalvikvm(1358): VFY: rejecting opcode 0x70 at 0x0001 WARN/dalvikvm(1358): VFY: rejected Lcom/my/Test;.foo ()V WARN/dalvikvm(1358): Verifier rejected class Lcom/my/Test; DEBUG/AndroidRuntime(1358): Shutting down VM WARN/dalvikvm(1358): threadid=3: thread exiting with uncaught exception (group=0x4000fe70) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): java.lang.VerifyError: com.my.Test ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at com.my.MainActivity.onCreate(MainActivity.java:13) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1123) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2231) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2284) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$1800(ActivityThread.java:112) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1692) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:3948) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:782) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:540) ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1358): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method)

    Read the article

  • CLR Stored Procedures

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    In an ASP.NET application, I have a small number of fairly complex, frequently used operations to execute against a database. In these operations, one or more of several tables needs updates or inserts based a logical evaluation of both input parameters and values of certain tables. I've maintained a separation of logic and data access, so the operation currently looks like this: Request received from client Business layer invokes data layer to retrieve data from database Business layer processes result and determines which operation to execute Business layer invokes appropriate data operation Response sent to client As you can see, the client is kept waiting while two separate requests are made to the database. In searching for a solution to this, I've found CLR Stored Procedures, but I'm not sure if I have the right idea about what they are useful for. I have written a replacement for the code above which especially places steps 2-4 in a CLR SP. My understanding is that the SP will be executed locally by SQL Server and result in only one call being made to the server. My initial benchmark tests show this is actually orders of magnitude slower than my original code, but I attribute that recompilation of the code I have not worked out yet and/or some flaw in my environment. My question is basically, is this the intended use of CLR SPs or am I missing something? I realize this is a bit of a compromise structurally, so if there's a better way to do it I'd love to hear it.

    Read the article

  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

    Read the article

  • Three Checkboxes, One must be selected to enable submit button, needs Jquery?

    - by Jamie
    I have between 1-three checkboxes and by default they are all disabled. In order for the submit button to be active ove checkbox minumum must be selected. Can someone help me with a jquery snippet to achieve this? My markup looks like this and the site used jquery 1.42. Please and thankyou! <form action="/cart/add" method="post" id="pform"> <h3 class="goudy">Make your selection:</h3> <ul id="variants"> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="id[]" value="39601622" id="radio_39601622" style="vertical-align: middle;" class="required" /> <label for="radio_39601622[]">$38.00 - Original Antique Photo</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="id[]" value="39601632" id="radio_39601632" style="vertical-align: middle;" class="required" /> <label for="radio_39601632[]">$8.99 - SCAN</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="id" value="39777962" id="radio_39777962" style="vertical-align: middle;" class="required" /> <label for="radio_39777962">$2.99 - Rigid Sleeve</label> </li> </ul> <div class="buttons clearfix"> <input type="image" src="../images/add-to-cart.png" name="add" value="Add to Cart" id="add" class="send-to-cart" /> </div> </form>

    Read the article

  • NSString's stringByAppendingPathComponent: removes a '/' in http://

    - by Jasarien
    I've been modifying some code to work between Mac OS X and iPhone OS. I came across some code that was using NSURL's URLByAppendingPathComponent: (added in 10.6), which as some may know, isn't available in the iPhone SDK. My solution to make this code work between OS's is to use NSString *urlString = [myURL absoluteString]; urlString = [urlString stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"helloworld"]; myURL = [NSURL urlWithString:urlString]; The problem with this is that NSString's stringByAppendingPathComponent: seems to remove one of the /'s from the http:// part of the URL. Is this intended behaviour or a bug? Edit Ok, So I was a bit too quick in asking the question above. I re-read the documentation and it does say: Note that this method only works with file paths (not, for example, string representations of URLs) However, it doesn't give any pointers in the right direction for what to do if you need to append a path component to a URL on the iPhone... I could always just do it manually, adding a /if necessary and the extra string, but I was looking to keep it as close to the original Mac OS X code as possible...

    Read the article

  • how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

    - by Michael Robinson
    I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY> <!-- Q-ImageUploader www.quadroland.com --> <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

    Read the article

  • Overlaying 2D paths on UIImage without scaling artifacts

    - by tat0
    I need to draw a path along the shape of an image in a way that it is always matching its position on the image independent of the image scale. Think of this like the hybrid view of Google Maps where streets names and roads are superimposed on top of the aerial pictures. Furthermore, this path will be drawn by the user's finger movements and I need to be able to retrieve the path keypoints on the image pixel coordinates. The user zooms-in in order to more precisely set the paths location. I manage to somehow make it work using this approach: -Create a custom UIView called CanvasView that handles touches interaction and delivers scaling, rotation, translation values to either the UIImageView or PathsView (see bellow) depending on a flag: deliverToImageOrPaths. -Create a UIImageView holding the base image. This is set as a children of CanvasView -Create a custom UIView called PathsView that keeps track of the 2D paths geometry and draws itself with a custom drawRect. This is set as children of the UIImageView. So hierarchy: CanvasView - UIImageView -PathsView In this way when deliverToImageOrPaths is YES, finger gestures transforms both the UIImageView and its child PathsView. When deliverToImageOrPaths is NO the gestures affect only the PathsView altering its geometry. So far so good. QUESTION: The problem I have is that when scaling the base UIImageView (via its .transform property) the PathsView is scaled with aliasing artifacts. drawRect is still being called on the PathsView but I guess it's performing the drawing using the original buffer size and then interpolating. How can I solve this issue? Are there better ways to implement these features? PS: I tried changing the PathsView layer class to CATiledLayer with levelsOfDetailBias 4 and levelsOfDetail 4. It solves the aliasing problem to some extent but it's unacceptable slow to render.

    Read the article

  • Problem in Adding Button in Dynamically created Gridview with Auto Generated Columns True

    - by Anuj Koundal
    Hi Guys I am using Gridview with auto columns true to Display data, I am using Dataset to bind Grid as Dataset gives me Crosstab/Pivot data on Dropdown's slected Index changed Here is the code I am using protected void ddl_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { fillGridview(Convert.ToInt32(ddl.SelectedValue)); bindHeader(); } //===================//Bind GridColumns //================= void bindHeader() { GridViewRow headerRow; headerRow = gridDashboard.HeaderRow; foreach (GridViewRow grdRow in gridDashboard.Rows) { int count = grdRow.Cells.Count; int siteId=Convert.ToInt32(grdRow.Cells[4].Text); for (int j = 0; j < count; j++) { if (j >= 5) { int id=Convert.ToInt32(grdRow.Cells[j].Text); string headText =headerRow.Cells[j].Text.ToString(); string[] txtArray=headText.Split('-'); int stepId=Convert.ToInt32(txtArray[0]); //headerRow.Cells[j].Text = txtArray[1].ToString(); string HeadName = txtArray[1].ToString(); LinkButton lb = new LinkButton(); lb.Style.Add("text-decoration","none"); if (id > 0) { string Details = getDashBoardSiteStepDetails(id); lb.Text = Details; } else { lb.Text = " - "; } lb.CommandName = "HideColumn"; lb.CommandArgument = siteId.ToString() + "/" + stepId.ToString(); grdRow.Cells[j].Controls.Add(lb); } } } int cnt = headerRow.Cells.Count; for (int j = 0; j { if (j >= 5) { string hdText = headerRow.Cells[j].Text.ToString(); string[] txtArray = hdText.Split('-'); // int stepId = Convert.ToInt32(txtArray[0]); headerRow.Cells[j].Text = txtArray[1].ToString(); } } In above code I am trying to add button dynamically in each cell and button in text have text of that cell, IT works Great but when I click the link button created, link buttons Disappear and the original text of the cell Displays. please help I also want to create onclick of these link buttons Thanks

    Read the article

  • SEO - Problems possibly related to 301 Moved Permanently

    - by ILMV
    Right, here's the story: We have had a website for one of our brands now for many years, the site design was very bad and recently did a complete overhaul, mostly design, but also some of the backend code. The original site was using links such as this example.com/products/item/127 and thus I wanted to change them to be move user friendly, especially to include the product name, the same link now reads example.com/product/127/my-jucy-product/. Since our switch over we have seen our Google results take a beating (we were on the first page for our normal search terms, now we're nearer the 4th!). The other problem we're having is that the links to the old products haven't updated to the new links despite me coding a 301 redirect from old to new. The 301 is not being fired from .htaccess, but in our PHP framework. I had a look at how the site is being loaded from a old link that is still in Google and here's what firebug is reporting: GET <google link> 302 Found GET example.com/products/item/127 302 Found GET example.com/products/item/127 301 Moved Permanently GET example.com/product/127/my-jucy-product/ 302 Found So the Google link has a 302, good. But when the old link comes in our framework is returning a 302! It's only afterwards when it finally hits the right part of the framework does it 301, so here's my question: Is the reason our old links have not changed and our Google Ranking has significantly nose dived because Google is seeing a 302 before the 301? At the time I was reluctant to mess with our .htaccess because it had become pretty complicated and I was under some pretty intense time constraints, now I'm wondering whether this was an incorrect disicion and perhaps I should revisit it. Many thanks! Edit Bugger, just signed up to the Webmaster Tools and I'm getting redirect errors all over the place, hundreds of them! I think this is my problem.

    Read the article

  • Loading one page inside another

    - by Robin I Knight
    User 'Citizen' provided an answer to the iframe situation with the ajax script from dynamic drive. As I predicted it although it loads one page inside another it does not work with the calculation scripts, collapsible panels, validation form. All of it simply not working. I have set up a test page that has the exact same HEAD section as the page that is loaded inside it, so it is not s problem of script location. Take a look and see if you can tell me what is going on. Baring in mind this is just a test page. On the test page the entire page is loaded from another and as you can see all the collapsible panels are open, all calculations except the duration are not working because another file that is loaded by ajax on the original page is not loading in this one, the accordion menu us not working and the validation form is not validating. It is as if all script triggers have been removed and left behind but like I said the HEAD section of the parent page contains all of the scripts as well. Any ideas http://www.divethegap.com/scuba-diving-programmes-dive-the-gap/programme-pages/dahab-divemaster/test.php

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Designer looses / ignores data

    - by Kempeth
    I'm writing my own control - a datagridviewcolumn that displays integer values as texts like the comboboxcolumn can but without showing the combobox unless the cell is edited. I'm mostly there but I have problems with the databinding. I managed to get the necessary properties to appear in the designer but every time I set the datasource and close the editor the changes are dropped. When I assign the same datasource later in code it works like a charm, I just would prefer not having to do that... public class DataGridViewLookupColumn : DataGridViewColumn { private DataGridViewLookupCell template; private Object datasource = null; private String displaymember = String.Empty; private String valuemember = String.Empty; private BindingSource bindingsource = new BindingSource(); public DataGridViewLookupColumn() : base() { this.template = new DataGridViewLookupCell(); } public override DataGridViewCell CellTemplate { get { return this.template; } set { } } [Category("Data")] [ DefaultValue(null), RefreshProperties(RefreshProperties.Repaint), AttributeProvider(typeof(IListSource)), DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible), ] public object DataSource { get { return this.bindingsource.DataSource; //return this.datasource; } set { this.bindingsource.DataSource = value; this.bindingsource.EndEdit(); } } [Category("Data")] [ DefaultValue(""), TypeConverterAttribute("System.Windows.Forms.Design.DataMemberFieldConverter, System.Design"), Editor("System.Windows.Forms.Design.DataMemberFieldEditor, System.Design", typeof(System.Drawing.Design.UITypeEditor)), DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible), ] public String DisplayMember { get { return this.displaymember; } set { this.displaymember = value; } } [Category("Data")] [ DefaultValue(""), TypeConverterAttribute("System.Windows.Forms.Design.DataMemberFieldConverter, System.Design"), Editor("System.Windows.Forms.Design.DataMemberFieldEditor, System.Design", typeof(System.Drawing.Design.UITypeEditor)), DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Visible), ] public String ValueMember { get { return this.valuemember; } set { this.valuemember = value; } } } EDIT: I experimenting I just found out that that original DataGridViewComboBoxColumn can be made to behave exactly like I wanted to. By setting the DisplayStyle to Nothing the combobox control is only shown in edit mode.

    Read the article

  • How best to use XPath with very large XML files in .NET?

    - by glenatron
    I need to do some processing on fairly large XML files ( large here being potentially upwards of a gigabyte ) in C# including performing some complex xpath queries. The problem I have is that the standard way I would normally do this through the System.XML libraries likes to load the whole file into memory before it does anything with it, which can cause memory problems with files of this size. I don't need to be updating the files at all just reading them and querying the data contained in them. Some of the XPath queries are quite involved and go across several levels of parent-child type relationship - I'm not sure whether this will affect the ability to use a stream reader rather than loading the data into memory as a block. One way I can see of making it work is to perform the simple analysis using a stream-based approach and perhaps wrapping the XPath statements into XSLT transformations that I could run across the files afterward, although it seems a little convoluted. Alternately I know that there are some elements that the XPath queries will not run across, so I guess I could break the document up into a series of smaller fragments based on it's original tree structure, which could perhaps be small enough to process in memory without causing too much havoc. I've tried to explain my objective here so if I'm barking up totally the wrong tree in terms of general approach I'm sure you folks can set me right...

    Read the article

  • MS Source Server - source stream is apparently not there when viewing with srctool

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I have been playing around with the MS Source Server stuff in the MS Debugging Tools install. At present, I am running my code/pdbs through the Subversion indexing command, which is now running as expected. It creates the stream for a given pdb file and writes it to the pdb file. However when I use that DLL and associated pdb in visual studio 2008, it says the source code cannot be retrieved. If I check the pdb against srctool is says none of the source files contained are indexed, which is very strange as the process prior ran fine. If I check the stream that was generated from the svnindex.cmd run for the pdb, srctool says all source files are indexed. Why would there be a difference? I have opened the pdb file in a text editor and I can see the original references to the source files on my machine (also under the srcsrv header name) and the new "injected" source server links to my subversion repository). Should both references still exist in the pdb? I would have expected one to be removed? Either way, visual studio 2008 will not pick up my source references so I am a bit lost as to what to try next. As far as I can tell, I have done everything I should have. Anyone have similar experiences? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to handle media kept on a separate server (PHP)

    - by Sandman
    So, I have three server, and the idea was to keep all media (images, files, movies) on a media server. I never got around to do it but I think I probably should. So these are the three servers: WWW server DB server Media server Visitors obviously connect to the WWW server and currently image resizing and cache:ing is done on the WWW servers as the original files are kept there. So the idea for me is for image functions I have, that does all the image compositioning, resizing and cahceing would just pie the command over to the media server that would return ther path to the finnished file. What I don't know is how to handle functions such as file_exists() and figuring out image dimensions when needed before even any image management comes into play. Do I pipe all these commands to the other server, via HTTP? I was thinking along the ways of doing it this way: function image(##ARGS##){ if ($GLOBALS["media_host"] != "localhost"){ list ($src, $width, height) = file('http://$GLOBALS[media_host]/imgfunc.php?args=##ARGS##'); return "<img src='$src' height and width >"; } .... do other stuff here } Am I approaching this the wrong way? Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • WPF image cropping

    - by Califer
    I'm loading layers of images to make a single image. I'm currently stacking them all onto a canvas. I've got it set up so the user can specify the final dimensions of the single image, but even when I change the size of the canvas the images retain their original sizes. I tried to modify the image size as I was loading them in, but the sizes were NaN and the Actual Sizes were 0 so I couldn't change them there. I'm starting to think that canvas might not be the way to go. Any suggestions to how I could clip images to fit a specific size? canvas1.Children.Clear(); int totalImages = Window1.GetNumberOfImages(); if (drawBackground) canvas1.Background = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(a,r,g,b)); else canvas1.Background = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 0, 0, 0)); for (int i = 0; i < totalImages; i++) { Image image = new Image(); image.Source = Window1.GetNextImage(i); canvas1.Children.Add(image); }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC and NHibernate coupling

    - by Ben
    I have just started learning NHibernate. Over the past few months I have been using IoC / DI (structuremap) and the repository pattern and it has made my applications much more loosely coupled and easier to test. When switching my persistence layer to NHibernate I decided to stick with my repositories. Currently I am creating a new session on each method call but of course this means that I can not benefit from lazy loading. Therefore I wish to implement session-per-request but in doing so this will make my web project dependent on NHibernate (perhaps this is not such a bad thing?). I was planning to inject ISession into my repositories and create and dispose sessions on beginrequest/endrequest events (see http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/05/do-you-need-a-framework.aspx) Is this a good approach? Presumably I cannot use session-per-request without having a reference to NHibernate in my web project? Having the web project dependent on NHibernate prompts my next (few) questions - why even bother with the repository? Since my web app is calling services that talk to the repositories, why not ditch the repositories and just add my NHibernate persistance code inside the services? And finally, is there really any need to split out into so many projects. Is a web project and an infrastructure project sufficient? I realise that I have veered off a bit from my original question but it seems that everyone seems to have their own opinion on these topics. Some people use the repository pattern with NHibernate, some don't. Some people stick their mapping files with the related classes, others have a separate project for this. Many thanks, Ben

    Read the article

  • Traversing from Bookmark Hashtags (#bookmark) in jQuery?

    - by HipHop-opatamus
    I am having trouble traversing from a bookmark has tag in jquery. Specifically, the following HTML: <a id="comment-1"></a> <div class="comment"> <h2 class="title"><a href="#comment-1">1st Post</a></h2> <div class="content"> <p>this is 1st reply to the original post</p> </div> <div class="test">1st post second line</div> </div> I am trying to traverse to where the class = "title", if the page is landed on with a bookmark hashtag in the URL (site.com/test.html#comment-1). The following is my code I'm using for testing: if(window.location.hash) { alert ($(window.location.hash).nextAll().html()); } It executes fine, and returns the appropriate html ( The problem is if I add a selector to it ($(window.location.hash).next('.title').html() ) I get a null result. Why is this so? Is nextAll not the correct Traversing function? (I've also tried next+find to no avail) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can I create template-based library objects in Dreamweaver CS5?

    - by Danjah
    At work we need two 'streams' of template. The first are general layout templates, like the ones already available in the MX through CS5 packages (except we'd have our own customised ones). The second are more granular objects, some of which are functional. In both cases, I don't want Jimmy to be able to wreak havoc inside anything other than the 'editable regions' which make up the templates. Now this is fine if I stick with the first scenario (layout templates) where there's simply a big chunk of editable region for good ole Jim to sprawl into, think of this as the 'body content' area. But I really do need these granular library (or snippet) objects to work in the same way. Unfortunately with my attempts so far they don't work as I'd have thought - perhaps for good reason? When I create a blank template and throw in my chunk of HTML (unobstrusive JS and external CSS use selectors in this HTML to provide style and function) and save it as a new library item or snippet, all looks well. Then I create a new document based on a layout template and save it as a plain html file (still all good so far). Next I drop in my custom library item... still all good... but then I go to save the document and it only allows me to save it as a new template! I expected it would just allow me to save it as HTML and have it simply respect the defined editable regions, as happens in the containing page 'body content' editable region. Apologies if that got specific and technical quite quickly, but it is quite particular. If you want some example files lemme know and I'll zip some up. Many thanks :) p.s It is not a requirement that library objects must somehow inject their dependency files into the newly created page - I already know what they'll be. Also, I know I must 'detatch from original' once I drop a library item into a document which then allows customisation of the library object.

    Read the article

  • WPF compile error "IDictionary must have a Key attribute"

    - by the empirical programmer
    I've created control styles I want to use among multiple xaml pages in my WPF app. To do this I created a Resources.xaml and added the styles there. Then in my pages I add this code <Grid.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/SampleEventTask;component/Resources.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Grid.Resources> On two pages this works fine, but on the 3rd page I get a compile error that says: All objects added to an IDictionary must have a Key attribute or some other type of key associated with them. If I add a key to this, as such ResourceDictionary x:Key="x", then the compile error goes but on running the app it errors finding the style. I can make the compile error go away and have the app run by just moving original (no key specified) "ResourceDictionary" xaml from the top level Grid into a contained Grid on that page. But I don't understand what is going on here. Any suggestions as to what the problem is, I'm just missing something or doing something incorrectly. Is there a better way to share styles? thanks

    Read the article

  • Greasemonkey script for inserting math in gmail

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    I wish an easy way to communicate mathematical equations with gmail. There's a javascript script called AsciiMath, which should translate Tex-like equations into standard mathML. I thought that it would be nice to use this script with GM. I thought that before sending the email, this script would convert all the TeX-like equations in your email to MathML. Thus the reader which is using FF (or IE with MathPlayer installed) would be able to easily read those equations. Ideally, I wish to somehow keep the original TeX-like equations in a plain-text message, so that it would be readable by plain text email clients, such as mutt. Obviously the weakest link here is the client software, which most likely doesn't support MathML. Still if my correspondent is using Firefox and some kind of webmail (which is pretty reasonable) - it should work. My question is, is it possible? Did anyone do that? Do you see any technical problems with this approach (gmail filtering the MathML, client not parsing it correctly etc.)? Any smarter ideas?

    Read the article

  • WPF Textbox & Borders - curious resizing behavior

    - by CitizenParker
    The following XAML produces a window with strange behavior around the textbox: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <TextBox BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"></TextBox> </DockPanel> </Window> What happens, at least during my limited testing, is that the textbox renders with an inset border pattern (top/left is black, right/bottom is grey). However, when you resize to any position except the original, the entire textbox border goes to black. Whenever you return the window to the exact number of on-screen pixels the form had when it first loaded, it's inset again. I'm guessing it isn't pixel snapping as I can easily correct the problem with this code: <Window x:Class="WpfSandbox.CuriousExample" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CuriousExample" Height="300" Width="300"> <DockPanel Margin="15"> <Border BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF000000"> <TextBox BorderThickness="0" ></TextBox> </Border> </DockPanel> </Window> Anyone care to venture an explanation as to what I'm seeing? Or is it all in my head? Like I said, the above workaround can resolve this problem - just trying to understand what is happening here. Thanks, -Scott

    Read the article

  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

    Read the article

  • Best way to fork SVN project with Git

    - by Jeremy Thomerson
    I have forked an SVN project using Git because I needed to add features that they didn't want. But at the same time, I wanted to be able to continue pulling in features or fixes that they added to the upstream version down into my fork (where they don't conflict). So, I have my Git project with the following branches: master - the branch I actually build and deploy from feature_* - feature branches where I work or have worked on new things, which I then merge to master when complete vendor-svn - my local-only git-svn branch that allows me to "git svn rebase" from their svn repo vendor - my local branch that i merge vendor-svn into. then i push this (vendor) branch to the public git repo (github) So, my flow is something like this: git checkout vendor-svn git svn rebase git checkout vendor git merge vendor-svn git push origin vendor Now, the question comes here: I need to review each commit that they made (preferably individually since at this point I'm about twenty commits behind them) before merging them into master. I know that I could run git checkout master; git merge vendor, but this would pull in all changes and commit them, without me being able to see if they conflict with what I need. So, what's the best way to do this? Git seems like a great tool for handling forks of projects since you can pull and push from multiple repos - I'm just not experienced with it enough to know the best way of doing this. Here's the original SVN project I'm talking about: https://appkonference.svn.sourceforge.net/svnroot/appkonference My fork is at github.com/jthomerson/AsteriskAudioKonf (sorry - I couldn't make it a link since I'm a new user here)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296  | Next Page >