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• What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

  - by Daniel DiPaolo

  We developers are in a unique position when it comes to the ability to not only be skeptical about the capabilities provided by open source software, but to actively analyze the code since it is freely available. In fact, one may even argue that open source software developers have a social responsibility to do so to contribute to the community. But at what point do you as a developer say, "I better take a look at what this is doing before I trust using it" for any given thing? Is it a matter of trusting code with your personal information? Does it depend on the source you're getting it from? What spurred this question on was a post on Hacker News to a javascript bookmarklet that supposedly tells you how "exposed" your information on Facebook is as well as recommending some fixes. I thought for a second "I'd rather not start blindly running this code over all my (fairly locked down) Facebook information so let me check it out". The bookmarklet is simple enough, but it calls another javascript function which at the time (but not anymore) was highly compressed and undecipherable. That's when I said "nope, not gonna do it". So even though I could have verified the original uncompressed javascript from the Github site and even saved a local copy to verify and then run without hitting their server, I wasn't going to. It's several thousand lines and I'm not a total javascript guru to begin with. Yet, folks are using it anyway. Even (supposedly) bright developers. What makes them trust the script? Did they all scrutinize it line by line? Do they know the guy personally and trust him not to do anything bad? Do they just take his word? What makes you trust that a piece of open source software is not malicious?

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• Navigation Controller not Pushing/Popping View Controllers

  - by senfo

  I'm working on a view-based iPhone app that has the following flow: search - (list | map) - details To accomplish the transitions between views, I have a UINavigationController, with the search view controller being the root. After a user performs a search, I transition to a view with a segmented control, which acts as a tab to switch between the list and map functionality (per a suggestion from a related question I had). This view contains a UIViewController, which allows me to switch between the list/map view when a user taps the segmented control. I'm fine up until this point. As you can see from the above mentioned flow, I would like to provide the ability to transition into a details view. Each row of my table in the list view contains a details disclosure button for allowing the user to drill down into a details view. The problem is, when I try to push the details view onto the navigation stack, nothing happens. Below is the delegate method (from my list view controller) to handle the details disclosure button being tapped. I've set up break points, so I know the code is running. The navigation controller simply doesn't want to push the detailsController onto the stack (my guess is that I don't have a pointer to the correct UINavigationController). - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView accessoryButtonTappedForRowWithIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (detailController == nil) { detailController = [[DetailsViewController alloc] init]; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Assuming I was probably missing a pointer to the navigation controller, I exposed a UINavigation property on my list and map views (navigationController is readonly) and initialized them with a pointer to the navigation controller from my SwitchViewController (the view responsible for switching between list/map views when a user changes the value of the segmented control). Unfortunately, this did not solve the problem. Am I on the right track? If so, how do I see to it that my view has a pointer to the correct navigation controller? Should I add a delegate, which allows me to call a function in the SwitchViewController that transitions into the details view (this seems messy)?

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• What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

  - by nopopem

  I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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• How to hide helper functions from public API in c

  - by emge

  I'm working on a project and I need to create an API. I am using sockets to communicate between the server (my application) and the clients (the other applications using my API). This project is in c not C++ I come from a linux background and this is my first project using Windows, Visual Studio 2008, and dll libraries. I have communication working between the client and server, but I have some that is duplicated on both projects. I would like to create a library (probably a dll file), that both projects can link to so I don't have to maintain extra code. I also have to create the library that has the API that I need to make available for my clients. Within the API functions that I want public are the calls to these helper functions that are "duplicated code", I don't want to expose these functions to my client, but I do want my server to be able to use those functions. How can I do this? I will try to clarify with an example. This is what I started with. Server Project: int Server_GetPacket(SOCKET sd); int ReceiveAll(SOCKET sd, char *buf, int len); int VerifyLen(char *buf); Client Project: int Client_SendCommand(int command); int Client_GetData(int command, char *buf, int len); int ReceiveAll(SOCKET sd, char *buf, int len); int VerifyLen(char *buf); This is kind of what I would like to end up with: //Server Project: int Server_GetPacket(SOCKET sd); // library with public and private types // private API (not exposed to my client) int ReceiveAll(SOCKET sd, char *buf, int len); int VerifyLen(char *buf); // public API (header file available for client) int Client_SendCommand(int command); int Client_GetData(int command, char *buf, int len); Thanks any help would be appreciated.

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• CherryPy always returning HTTP 200 [closed]

  - by DarkArctic

  I'm having a bit of a problem when browsing to a non-existent resource. I get a response code of 200 instead of 404. I'm using the MethodDispatcher and I have a class that overloads the __getattr__ method to instantiate a resource if a child exists or to return AttributeError if one doesn't. My class is always returning the AttributeError correctly, but the data I actually get is always from the last good resource. Here's a simplified (except for __getattr__) version of my class: class BaseResource(object): exposed = True def __init__(self, name): self.children = [] # Pretend this has child resources def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._children: uuid, application, obj_type, server = self._children[name] try: resource = getattr(app[application], obj_type) except AttributeError as e: raise cherrypy.HTTPError(500, e) return resource(uuid) else: raise AttributeError('Child with name \'{}\' could not be found.'.format(name)) def GET(self): cherrypy.log.error('*** {} not found, raising AttributeError'.format(name)) return 'GET request for {}'.format(self._name) So fetching I get the following when I browse to the following resources: http://localhost:8000/users - This resource exists, so it returns it correctly. http://localhost:8000/users/fake - This returns the "users" resource giving an HTTP 200. http://localhost:8000/users/fake/reallyfake - This returns the "users" resource again. So my question is, where can I start looking to find out why my code isn't returning a 404 for a non-existent resource. I'm sure I've done something wrong, but I'm not sure what. Whatever I did wrong I've undone and I'm now getting a 404 returned correctly. I'm sorry I can't give any detail on what the issue was, but I'm honestly not sure what I did.

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• How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

  - by SiegeX

  Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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• Please recommend the one SQL book for a developer without a lot of SQL experience.

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  I have too many hobbies outside of my profession, so I am hoping to read just one good book, and get a tad better at SQL. My background: took one boring, theoretical class in databases, was exposed to SQL professionally (in addition to several other languages and technologies) for a year and a half. I've done about 5 years of C#/Java stuff professionally. By "professionally" I mean doing it full-time while someone paid me more than $25/hr for it - not necessarily that I created masterpieces along the way :) I want to become better at SQL (coding aspect; DBA is not of particular importance to me right now). I am looking for one book to give me a solid foundation in it. When I needed to learn some C from almost a scratch, I used (and loved) this book: http://www.amazon.com/Programming-Language-2nd-Brian-Kernighan/dp/0131103628 I am hoping to find one just like this for SQL. I am not doing web development now or in a near future, and I am looking for something that is hopefully not specific to any one sub-industry. Thanks in advance.

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• How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

  - by SiegeX

  Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

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• TDD approach for complex function

  - by jamie

  I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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• Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

  - by Nathan

  Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

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• Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

  - by max

  Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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• Common methods/implementation across multiple WCF Services

  - by Rob

  I'm looking at implementing some WCF Services as part of an API for 3rd parties to access data within a product I work on. There are currently a set of services exposed as "classic" .net Web Services and I need to emulate the behaviour of these, at least in part. The existing services all have an AcquireAuthenticationToken method that takes a set of parameters (username, password, etc) and return a session token (represented as a GUID), which is then passed in on calls to any other method (There's also a ReleaseAuthenticationToken method, no guesses needed as to what that does!). What I want to do is implement multiple WCF services, such as: ProductData UserData and have both of these services share a common implementation of Acquire/Release. From the base project that is created by VS2k8, it would appear I will start with, per service: public class ServiceName : IServiceName { } public interface IServiceName { } Therefore my questions would be: Will WCF tolerate me adding a base class to this, public class ServiceName : ServiceBase, IServiceName, or does the fact that there's an interface involved mean that won't work? If "No it won't work" to Question 1, could I change IServiceName so it extends another interface, IServiceBase, thus forcing the presence of Acquire/Release methods, but then having to supply the implementation in each service. Are 1 and 2 both really bad ideas and there's actually a much better solution that, knowing next to nothing about WCF, I just haven't thought of?

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• WCF - Return object without serializing?

  - by Mayo

  One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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• Does implementing a Java class under an open-source library's package name constitutes a modificatio

  - by Minyu

  Greetings, I understand that this is not the best forum for getting legal advices. But I am still wondering if anybody has some experience around this topic, or can point me to relevant resources that explain it. I have tried to search it online but could not find clear answers. Assuming I am using a Java open-source library from "somecompany", specifically its entities in the "org.somecompany.somepackage". During development, I found that I need to access some of the internals of that package that are not exposed through its public interface. So I thought maybe creating my own classes under the same "org.somecompany.somepackage" name would make that easier. My question is: does this constitutes a modification of the open-source library? The fully qualified name of my classes look like "org.somecompany.somepackage.myclass". It does seem an "extension" of the original library, even though I am not modifying the original library source or binary. I am also not adding my classes to the open-source jar files. Any advice or pointer to resources will be appreciated!

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• Using external SOAP service in Workflow service

  - by whirlwin

  I am using the .NET 4 framework and have made a WCF Workflow Service Application. I want to use a SOAP web service (.NET 3.5) I have running in another instance of VS. The only method that is exposed is the following: [WebMethod] public string Reverse(string input) { char[] chars = input.ToCharArray(); Array.Reverse(chars); return new string(chars); } I have used the following steps to add the service in my Workflow: Add Service Reference Provided the WSDL (the operation shows in the Operations box as expected) Clicked OK Build the solution to ensure that the service shows in my toolbox Drag the service from the toolbox into the workflow However, when I look at the properties of the service in the workflow, there is no way to specify the input argument or where to store the result of the invocation of the service. I only have the option of specifying some obscure parameters such as Body:InArgument<ReverseRequestBody and outBody:OutArgument<ReverseResponseBody (none of which are strings). Here is a screenshot depicting the properties of the service in the workflow: My question is therefore: Is it possible at all to use the SOAP service by specifying a string as the input argument (like it is meant to be used), and also assign the result to a workflow variable?

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• Windows Form UserControl design time properties

  - by Raffaeu

  I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

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• How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

  - by Alex Reisner

  I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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• Is it okay to violate the principle that collection properties should be readonly for performance?

  - by uriDium

  I used FxCop to analyze some code I had written. I had exposed a collection via a setter. I understand why this is not good. Changing the backing store when I don't expect it is a very bad idea. Here is my problem though. I retrieve a list of business objects from a Data Access Object. I then need to add that collection to another business class and I was doing it with the setter method. The reason I did this was that it is going to be faster to make an assignment than to insert hundreds of thousands of objects one at a time to the collection again via another addElement method. Is it okay to have a getter for a collection in some scenarios? I though of rather having a constructor which takes a collection? I thought maybe I could pass the object in to the Dao and let the Dao populate it directly? Are there any other better ideas?

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• Can you write files in Chrome 8?

  - by greggory.hz

  I'm wondering if, with the new File API exposed in Chrome (I'm not concerned with cross-browser support at this time), it would be possible to write back to files opened via a file input. You can see an example of what I'm trying to accomplish here: http://www.grehz.com/ide. I know I can use server side scripts to dynamically create the files and allow the user to download them normally. I'm hoping that there's a way to accomplish this purely client side. I had read somewhere that you can write to files opened via a file input. I haven't been able to find any examples of this, though I have seen passing references to a FileWriter class. I would be completely not surprised if this wasn't possible though (it seems likely that there are security issues with this). Just looking for some guidance or resources. UPDATE: I was reading here: http://dev.w3.org/2009/dap/file-system/file-writer.html As I was playing around in Chrome, it looks like FileSaver and FileWriter are not implemented, but BlobBuilder is. I can call getBlob() on the BB object, is there any way I can then save that without FileSave or FileWriter?

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• How do I remove unnecessary options from a select field in a Drupal form?

  - by thismax

  I'm using the better_exposed_filters module to create a set of exposed filters for a view. One of the filters is being displayed as a select field, and I would like the field to only display options that are actually associated with content in the database. Currently, I am doing this using the hook_form_alter() method. For simplification, in the following example the field is called 'foo' and the content type with that field is called 'bar': function my_module_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) { // Get all the values of foo that matter $resource = db_query('select distinct field_foo_value from {content_type_bar}'); $foo = array(); while($row = db_fetch_object($resource)) { $foo[$row->field_foo_value] = $row->field_foo_value; } $form['foo']['#options'] = $manufacturers; } This works great -- the form displays only the options I want to display. Unfortunately, the view doesn't actually display anything initially and I also get the following error message: An illegal choice has been detected. Please contact the site administrator. After I filter options with the form once, everything seems to work fine. Does anyone know how I can solve this problem? I'm open to an entirely different way of weeding out filter options, if need be, or a way that I can figure out how to address that error.

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• how to pass instance variables between handlers (routes) in sinatra (without flash, sessions, class variable or db)?

  - by jj_

  Say you have: get '/' do haml :index end get '/form' do haml :form end post '/form' do @message = params[:message] redirect to ('/') --- how to pass @message here? end I'd like the @message instance variable to be available (passed to) in "/" action as well, so I can show it in haml view. How can I do that without using session, flash, a @@class_variable, or db persistence ? I'd simply like to pass values as if I was working with passing values between methods. I don't want to use session cookies because user could have them turned off, I don't like it being a class variable which is exposed to all code, and I don't need to overhead of a db. Thanks edit: This is another question explaining a very easy way to deal with this in rails Passing parameters in rails redirect_to This is some more info i gathered around from forums. The following works for rails, i've tried it in Sinatra but no luck, but please try it, maybe I did something wrong, I don't know, and if this code help someone come up with a new idea, please share it If you are redirecting to action2 at the end of action1, just append the value to the end of the redirect: my_var = <some logic> redirect_to :action => 'action2', :my_var => my_var on the same thread another user proposes the folowing: def action1 redirect_to :action => 'action2', :value => params[:current_varaible] end def action2 puts params[:value].inspect end source: http://www.ruby-forum.com/topic/134953 Can something like this work in Sinatra? Thanks

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• Excel 2007 VBA macros don't work in Parallels

  - by MindModel

  I've got a complex Excel spreadsheet I need to use at work. My colleagues use the spreadsheet on Windows PC's, with no special configuration required. I want to run it on a MacBook Pro running Snow Leopard. The spreadsheet contains VBA macros which connect to external Oracle db's over the Internet. If I understand correctly, Excel on the Mac doesn't run VBA macros, so I have to use Parallels. I installed Parallels on the Mac and it's running correctly, as far as I can tell. I installed Excel 2007 under Parallels. I can open the Excel spreadsheet in Parallels and click buttons in the spreadsheet to run macros, but the macros fail with compiler errors. I don't have the password to the source code for the VBA macros, and if possible, I don't want to dig in to the code at that level. I know that there are quite a few things that could go wrong, and examining the VBA code might help, but I'm hoping to solve the problem without going down that road. The spreadsheet runs without any special configuration on Windows, so I'm wondering if anyone out there knows of any limitations of Excel VBA macros under Parallels, or anything else I could do to get this spreadsheet working. It's the only thing that's keeping me from using this MacBook Pro at work. Here is the error message: Compile error in hidden module: clsXXXXx0020Toolx0020Ser. This error commonly occurs when code is incompatible with the version, platform, or architecture of this application. Click Help for more info. Compile error in hidden module: A protected module contains a compilation error. Because the error is in a protected module it cannot be displayed. This error commonly occurs when code is incompatible with the version or architecture of this application (for example, code in a document targets 32-bit Microsoft Office applications but it is attempting to run on 64-bit Office). This error has the following cause and solution: Cause of the error: The error is raised when a compilation error exists in the VBA code inside a protected (hidden) module. The specific compilation error is not exposed because the module is protected. Possible solutions: If you have access to the VBA code in the document or project, unprotect the module, and then run the code again to view the specific error. If you do not have access to the VBA code in the document, then contact the document author to have the code in the hidden module updated.

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• web services access not being reached thru the web browser

  - by Tony

  I am trying to reference my .asmx webservices in .NET but my server is not exposed to the internet. When I put on the following address I get the message mentioned below. What's the reason for not being able to see the directory? Am I missing something in my IIS configuraction? Am I missing anything in my permissions? Just as reference I have other folders with webservices and I have the same issue. When I login to the server I am doing it with my windows user and password (I am using windows authentication). It's necessary to mention that when I put the URL I am getting a popup screen to put in my userid and password but it seems that's not able to validate since keeps asking me a couple of times. Let me know if you need more information to address this issue . http://appsvr02/Inetpub/wwwroot/DevWebApi/ Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage What you can try: It appears you are connected to the Internet, but you might want to try to reconnect to the Internet. Retype the address. Go back to the previous page. Most likely causes: •You are not connected to the Internet. •The website is encountering problems. •There might be a typing error in the address. More information This problem can be caused by a variety of issues, including: •Internet connectivity has been lost. •The website is temporarily unavailable. •The Domain Name Server (DNS) is not reachable. •The Domain Name Server (DNS) does not have a listing for the website's domain. •If this is an HTTPS (secure) address, click tools, click Internet Options, click Advanced, and check to be sure the SSL and TLS protocols are enabled under the security section. For offline users You can still view subscribed feeds and some recently viewed webpages. To view subscribed feeds 1.Click the Favorites Center button , click Feeds, and then click the feed you want to view. To view recently visited webpages (might not work on all pages) 1.Click Tools , and then click Work Offline. 2.Click the Favorites Center button , click History, and then click the page you want to view.

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• How should I set up my Hyper-V server and network topology?

  - by Daniel Waechter

  This is my first time setting up either Hyper-V or Windows 2008, so please bear with me. I am setting up a pretty decent server running Windows Server 2008 R2 to be a remote (colocated) Hyper-V host. It will be hosting Linux and Windows VMs, initially for developers to use but eventually also to do some web hosting and other tasks. Currently I have two VMs, one Windows and one Ubuntu Linux, running pretty well, and I plan to clone them for future use. Right now I'm considering the best ways to configure developer and administrator access to the server once it is moved into the colocation facility, and I'm seeking advice on that. My thought is to set up a VPN for access to certain features of the VMs on the server, but I have a few different options for going about this: Connect the server to an existing hardware firewall (an old-ish Netscreen 5-GT) that can create a VPN and map external IPs to the VMs, which will have their own IPs exposed through the virtual interface. One problem with this choice is that I'm the only one trained on the Netscreen, and its interface is a bit baroque, so others may have difficulty maintaining it. Advantage is that I already know how to do it, and I know it will do what I need. Connect the server directly to the network and configure the Windows 2008 firewall to restrict access to the VMs and set up a VPN. I haven't done this before, so it will have a learning curve, but I'm willing to learn if this option is better long-term than the Netscreen. Another advantage is that I won't have to train anyone on the Netscreen interface. Still, I'm not certain if the capabilities of the Windows software firewall as far as creating VPNs, setting up rules for external access to certain ports on the IPs of Hyper-V servers, etc. Will it be sufficient for my needs and easy enough to set up / maintain? Anything else? What are the limitations of my approaches? What are the best practices / what has worked well for you? Remember that I need to set up developer access as well as consumer access to some services. Is a VPN even the right choice?

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• Why might one host be unable to access the Internet, when it can ping the router and when all other hosts can?

  - by user1444233

  I have a Draytek Vigor 2830n. It's kicking out a 192.168.3.0 LAN. It performs load-balancing across dual-WAN ports, although I've turned off the second WAN to simplify testing. There are many hosts on the LAN. All IPs are allocated through DHCP, most freely allocated from the pool, but one or two are bound to NIC MAC addresses. All hosts can access the Internet, save one. That host (192.168.3.100 or 'dot100' for short) gets allocated an IP address (and the right gateway address, DNS server addresses, subnet etc.) dot100 can ping itself. It can ping the gateway, and access the latter's web interface via port 80. It's responsive and loss-free (sustained ping over a couple of minutes reports no data loss). Yet, for some reason that evades me, dot100 can't ping an external IP address or domain name. I suspect it's never been able to, because it was getting some Internet access from a second adaptor (different subnet), but that's now been turned off, which exposed the problem. In dot100, I've tried: two operating systems (Windows 8 and Knoppix), to rule out anti-virus programs etc. two physical adaptors two cables, on each adaptor two IPs (e.g. .100 and .103 assigned by Mac and .26 from the pool) both dynamic and assigned (MAC-bound) DHCP-allocated IPs but none of this experiments yielded any variation in the result. dot100 is a crucial host. It's a file server for the network, so I need it to be reliably allocated a consistent IP. Can anyone offer a potential solution or a way forward with the analysis please? My guess My analysis so far leads me to believe it's a router issue. I've checked the web interface very carefully. There are no filters setup in Firewall - General Setup or Filter Setup. I suspect it's a corrupted internal routing table, but the web UI shows this as the Routing table: Key: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, * - default, ~ - private * 0.0.0.0/ 0.0.0.0 via 62.XX.XX.X WAN1 * 62.XX.XX.X/ 255.255.255.255 via 62.XX.XX.X WAN1 S 82.YY.YYY.YYY/ 255.255.255.255 via 82.YY.YYY.YYY WAN1 C 192.168.1.0/ 255.255.255.0 directly connected WAN2 C~ 192.168.3.0/ 255.255.255.0 directly connected LAN2

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