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  • Facebook Oauth 2.0 Token errors

    - by James
    The user clicks the URL that is generated via the code below. $url = 'https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?' . http_build_query(array('client_id' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'redirect_uri' => 'http://fb.example.com/facebook', 'scope' => 'publish_stream,email,offline_access,user_location,user_hometown', 'display' => 'page')); Upon granting access to the application, and redirecting to http://fb.example.com/facebook I grab the following URL using cURL. $url = 'http://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?' . http_build_query(array('client_id' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'client_secret' => FACEBOOK_SECRET, 'redirect_uri' => 'http://fb.example.com/facebook', 'code' => $params['code'])); This returns the error below that I receive when grabbing the above URL. { "error": { "type": "OAuthException", "message": "Error validating verification code." } } Any ideas? Really getting stuck on this.

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  • Looping Redirect with PyFacebook and Google App Engine

    - by Nick Gotch
    I have a Python Facebook project hosted on Google App Engine and use the following code to handle initialization of the Facebook API using PyFacebook. # Facebook Initialization def initialize_facebook(f): # Redirection handler def redirect(self, url): logger.info('Redirecting the user to: ' + url) self.response.headers.add_header("Cache-Control", "max-age=0") self.response.headers.add_header("Pragma", "no-cache") self.response.out.write('<html><head><script>parent.location.replace(\'' + url + '\');</script></head></html>') return 'Moved temporarily' auth_token = request.params.get('auth_token', None) fbapi = Facebook(settings['FACEBOOK_API_KEY'], settings['FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY'], auth_token=auth_token) if not fbapi: logger.error('Facebook failed to initialize') if fbapi.check_session(request) or auth_token: pass else: logger.info('User not logged into Facebook') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_login_url()) if fbapi.added: pass else: logger.info('User does not have ' + settings['FACEBOOK_APP_NAME'] + ' added') return lambda a: redirect(a, fbapi.get_add_url()) # Return the validated API logger.info('Facebook successfully initialized') return lambda a: f(a, fbapi=fbapi) I'm trying to set it up so that I can drop this decorator on any page handler method and verify that the user has everything set up correctly. The issue is that when the redirect handler gets called, it starts an infinite loop of redirection. I tried using an HTTP 302 redirection in place of the JavaScript but that kept failing too. Does anyone know what I can do to fix this? I saw this similar question but there are no answers.

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  • Mimic CALayer shadow properties found in iPhone OS 3.2 for OS 3.1

    - by niblha
    The CALayer shadow properties like shadowOffset, shadowRadius, shadowColor are not available in iPhone OS versions below 3.2 and I'm wondering how I could mimic that functionality for use with 3.1 and below. I want to use this to be able to add drop shadows to UIViews in a clean way so that the shadows are drawn at layer level somehow, and not by drawing it in a view's -(void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect method which requires to shrink the actual views frame to accomodate for the shadow. (This shrinking approach have been proposed in the other UIView drop shadow related questions I found here on SO). I was thinking a layered approach would be cleaner. For example I tried creating subclassing CALayer to which I added a separate shadow layer as a sublayer, but then that would be drawn on top of whatever was draw in the drawRect: method of the UIView that had the main layer as backing layer. I've also tried implementing the subclass CALayer's drawInContext: something like this, - (void)drawInContext:(CGContextRef)ctx { // code to draw shadow for a frame the size of the layer's frame [super drawInContext:ctx]; } But then the shadow is still clipped to the current clipping bounding box of the context, which seems to be the layers own frame. I also had some idea of redirecting the drawing of the main layer to a sublayer, which would be placed above another sublayer which had the shadow drawn onto it. Then I would probably get rid of the clipping and the shadow would be farthest away. But I couldn't really wrap my head around how I would do that, and it doesn't really feel like a clean approach. Any ideas on how to go about this? Just to make clear how my UIView drop shadow related question is different from the other ones I found here on SO; I do not want to shrink the actual drawing frame of a UIView to accomodate for a shadow. I want it to somehow be on a separate layer in the background, whithout beeing clipped.

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  • Cross domains sessions - shared shopping cart cross domains

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    Hi, we are solving the problem with eshop (php, mysql). The client want to have the same eshop on two domains with shared shopping cart. In the shop customer can do the shopping without users account (can't be logged in). And there is the problem, how to make the shared shopping cart cross domain. The data from cart is stored in sessions, which we stored in database too. But we can't solve the problem in carrying data over domains. Identifying unlogged user is not holeproof (research). The example, how it should work Customer goes to domainOne and add some things to the cart. Than he goes to domainTwo (by link, typing domain address, however) and add some other things to the cart. In the cart he has things from both domains (after refreshing page). Do you have any idea, how to solve this problem? What didn't work: redirecting is not possible due to customer requirments cookies are related to domain set_cookie with the other domain didn't work the simpliest way is to carry over only the sessionid (stored in cookies) but we don't know, how to wholeproof identify unlogged users. is there any other place, where data can be stored on client side except cookies? (probably not) we can't use sending sessionid by params in url (if user click to link to the other domain) or resolving the header referer, bcs we don't know, how user can achieve the other domain. If you can't understand me, take me a question. If you think, that having eshop on two domains with shared (common) cart is bad idea, don't tell me, we know it. Thanks for each answer.

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  • Render view to string followed by redirect results in exception

    - by Chris Charabaruk
    So here's the issue: I'm building e-mails to be sent by my application by rendering full view pages to strings and sending them. This works without any problem so long as I'm not redirecting to another URL on the site afterwards. Whenever I try, I get "System.Web.HttpException: Cannot redirect after HTTP headers have been sent." I believe the problem comes from the fact I'm reusing the context from the controller action where the call for creating the e-mail comes from. More specifically, the HttpResponse from the context. Unfortunately, I can't create a new HttpResponse that makes use of HttpWriter because the constructor of that class is unreachable, and using any other class derived from TextWriter causes response.Flush() to throw an exception, itself. Does anyone have a solution for this? public static string RenderViewToString( ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath, ViewDataDictionary viewData, TempDataDictionary tempData) { Stream filter = null; ViewPage viewPage = new ViewPage(); //Right, create our view viewPage.ViewContext = new ViewContext(controllerContext, new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath), viewData, tempData); //Get the response context, flush it and get the response filter. var response = viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response; //var response = new HttpResponseWrapper(new HttpResponse // (**TextWriter Goes Here**)); response.Flush(); var oldFilter = response.Filter; try { //Put a new filter into the response filter = new MemoryStream(); response.Filter = filter; //Now render the view into the memorystream and flush the response viewPage.ViewContext.View.Render(viewPage.ViewContext, viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response.Output); response.Flush(); //Now read the rendered view. filter.Position = 0; var reader = new StreamReader(filter, response.ContentEncoding); return reader.ReadToEnd(); } finally { //Clean up. if (filter != null) filter.Dispose(); //Now replace the response filter response.Filter = oldFilter; } }

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  • No long-running conversations - IllegalArgumentException: Stack must not be null

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a very simple application with just 2 pages on WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g), Seam 2.2.0.GA. I have a command button in each, which makes a redirect-after-post to the other. This works well, as I see the URL of the current page I am seeing in the address bar. BUT, even though I have no long-running conversations defined, after a random number of clicks, and - I think - after a random number of seconds (~10s - 60s) I get the lovely exception at the end of this post. Now, if I have understood how temporary conversations work when redirecting this happens: When I first see my application, the url is http://localhost:7001/myapp When I click the button in pageA.xhtml, I end up in "pageB.xhtml?cid=26". This is normal because Seam extends the temporary conversation of the first request to last until the renderResponse phase of the redirect. So, it uses the cid (Conversation Id) of the extended temporary conversation to find any propagated parameters. When I click the button in pageB.xhtml, I end up in pageA.xhtml?cid=26 The same cid was given to the new extended temporary conversation. This is normal because the conversation ended at the end of the previous redirect-after-post, and not the number 26 is free to use as a cid. Is this all correct? If yes, why does this happen: If I re-type the applications home address (showing pageA) and re-click, I end up in pageB.xhtml?cid=29, which is a different number than 26. But 26 has ended after the previous RenderResponse phase, befire I re-types the url. Why is it not used instead of 29? So, to sup up, 2 questions: Why do I get the exception, even though I have not started any long-running conversations? What happens exactly with the cid? On what basis does it change? Cheers,

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  • RESTful WCF Data Service Authentication

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like to implement a REST api to an existing ASP.NET MVC website. I've managed to set up WCF Data services so that I can browse my data, but now the question is how to handle authentication. Right now the data service is secured via the site's built in forms authentication, and that's ok when accessing the service from AJAX forms. However, It's not ideal for a RESTful api. What I would like as an alternative to forms authentication is for the users to simply embed the user name and password into the url to the web service or as request parameters. For example, if my web service is usually accessible as http://localhost:1234/api.svc I'd like to be able to access it using the url http://localhost:1234/api.svc/{login}/{password} So, my questions are as follows: Is this a sane approach? If yes, how can I implement this? It seems trivial redirecting GET requests so that the login and password are attached as GET parameters. I also know how to inspect the http context and use those parameters to filter the results. But I am not sure if / how the same approach could be applied to POST, PUT and DELETE requests. Thanks, Adrian

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  • How do I make a jQuery POST function open the new page?

    - by ciclistadan
    I know that a submit button in HTML can submit a form which opens the target page, but how do I cause a jQuery ajax call POST information to a new page and display the new page. I am submitting information that is gathered by clicking elements (which toggle a new class) and then all items with this new class are added to an array and POSTed to a new page. I can get it to POST the data but it seems to be working functioning in an ajax non-refreshing manner, not submitting the page and redirecting to the new page. how might I go about doing this? here's the script section: //onload function $(function() { //toggles items to mark them for purchase //add event handler for selecting items $(".line").click(function() { //get the lines item number var item = $(this).toggleClass("select").attr("name"); }); $('#process').click(function() { var items = []; //place selected numbers in a string $('.line.select').each(function(index){ items.push($(this).attr('name')); }); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'additem.php', data: 'items='+items, success: function(){ $('#menu').hide(function(){ $('#success').fadeIn(); }); } }); }); return false; }); any pointers would be great!! thanks

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  • Jetty startup delay

    - by Tauren
    I'm trying to figure out what would be causing a 1 minute delay in the startup of Jetty. Is it a configuration problem, my application, or something else? I have Jetty 7 (jetty-7.0.1.v20091125 25 November 2009) installed on a server and I deploy a 45MB ROOT.war file into the webapps directory. This is the only webapp configured in Jetty. I then start Jetty with the command: java -DSTOP.PORT=8079 -DSTOP.KEY=mystopkey -Denv=stage -jar start.jar etc/jetty-logging.xml etc/jetty.xml & I get two lines of output right after doing this: 2010-03-07 14:20:06.642:INFO::Logging to StdErrLog::DEBUG=false via org.eclipse.jetty.util.log.StdErrLog 2010-03-07 14:20:06.710:INFO::Redirecting stderr/stdout to /home/zing/jetty-distribution-7.0.1.v20091125/logs/2010_03_07.stderrout.log When I press the enter key, I get my command prompt back. Looking at the log file (logs/2010_03_07.stderrout.log), I see the following at the beginning: 2010-03-07 14:08:50.396:INFO::jetty-7.0.1.v20091125 2010-03-07 14:08:50.495:INFO::Extract jar:file:/home/zing/jetty-distribution-7.0.1.v20091125/webapps/ROOT.war!/ to /tmp/Jetty_0_0_0_0_8080_ROOT.war___.8te0nm/webapp 2010-03-07 14:08:52.599:INFO::NO JSP Support for , did not find org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet 2010-03-07 14:09:51.379:INFO::Set web app root system property: 'webapp.root' = [/tmp/Jetty_0_0_0_0_8080_ROOT.war___.8te0nm/webapp] 2010-03-07 14:09:51.585:INFO::Initializing Spring root WebApplicationContext INFO - ContextLoader - Root WebApplicationContext: initialization started INFO - XmlWebApplicationContext - Refreshing Root WebApplicationContext: startup date [Sun Mar 07 14:09:51 PST 2010]; root of context hierarchy ... Notice the 1 minute long pause between the 3rd and 4th lines. What is Jetty doing at this point? What other things could be going on? It doesn't even look like it has started my Spring initialization yet. Note that I checked my /tmp directory to see if it was simply the time to unpack my war file, but the file had been completely unpacked even at the start of this 1 minute delay.

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  • Remote DLL Registration without access to HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

    - by mohlsen
    We have a legacy VB6 application that updates itself on startup by pulling down the latest files and registering the COM components. This works for both local (regsvr32) ActiveX COM Components and remote (clireg32) ActiveX COM components registered in COM+ on another machine. New requirements are preventing us from writing to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE (HKLM) for security reasons, which is what obviously happens by default when calling regsvr32 and clireg32. We have come up with an way to register the local COM componet under HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Classes (HKCU) using the RegOverridePredefKey Windows API method. This works by redirecting the inserts into the registry to the HKCU location. Then when the COM components are instantiated, windows first looks to HKCU before looking for component information in HKLM. This replaces what regsvr32 is doing. The problem we are experiencing at this time is when we attempt to register VBR / TLB using clireg32, this registration process also adds registration keys to HKEY_LOACL_MACHINE. Is there a way to redirect clireg32.exe to register component is HKEY_CURRENT_USER? Are there any other methods that would allow us to register these COM+ components on clients machine with limited security access? Our only solution at this time would be to manually write the registration information to the registry, but that is not ideal and would be a maint issue.

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  • Wildcard subdomain .htaccess and Codeigniter

    - by Gautam
    Hi All, I am trying to create the proper .htaccess that would allow me to map as such: http://domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/home http://domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/home/whatever http://user.domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/user http://user.domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/user/whatever/ Here, someone would type in the above URLs, however internally, it would be redirecting as if it were the URL on the right. Also the subdomain would be dynamic (that is, http://user.domain.com isn't an actual subdomain but would be a .htaccess rewrite) Also /home is my default controller so no subdomain would internally force it to /home controller and any paths following it (as shown in #2 example above) would be the (catch-all) function within that controller. Like wise if a subdomain is passed it would get passed as a (catch-all) controller along with any (catch-all) functions for it (as shown in #4 example above) Hopefully I'm not asking much here but I can't seem to figure out the proper .htaccess or routing rules (in Codeigniter) for this. httpd.conf and hosts are setup just fine. EDIT #1 Here's my .htaccess that is coming close but is messing up at some point: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([a-z0-9-]+).domain [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php/%1/$1 [QSA] RewriteCond $1 !^(index\.php|images|robots\.txt) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L,QSA] With the above, when I visit: http://test.domain/abc/123 this is what I notice in $_SERVER var (I've removed some of the fields): Array ( [REDIRECT_STATUS] => 200 [SERVER_NAME] => test.domain [REDIRECT_URL] => /abc/123 [QUERY_STRING] => [REQUEST_URI] => /abc/123 [SCRIPT_NAME] => /index.php [PATH_INFO] => /test/abc/123 [PATH_TRANSLATED] => redirect:\index.php\test\test\abc\123\abc\123 [PHP_SELF] => /index.php/test/abc/123 ) You can see the PATH_TRANSLATED is not properly being formed and I think that may be screwing things up?

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  • how to implement word count bash shell

    - by codemax
    hey guys. I am trying to write my own code for the word count in bash shell. I did usual way. But i wanna use pipe's output to count the word. So for eg the 1st command is cat and i am redirecting to a file called med. Now i have to use to 'dup2' function to count the words in that file. How can i write the code for my wc? This is the code for my shell pgm : void process( char* cmd[], int arg_count ) { pid_t pid; pid = fork(); char path[81]; getcwd(path,81); strcat(path,"/"); strcat(path,cmd[0]); if(pid < 0) { cout << "Fork Failed" << endl; exit(-1); } else if( pid == 0 ) { int fd; fd =open("med", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd ,0); execvp( path, cmd ); } else { wait(NULL); } } And my wordcount is : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char ch; int count = 0; ifstream infile(argv[1]); while(!infile.eof()) { infile.get(ch); if(ch == ' ') { count++; } } return 0; } I dont know how to do input redirection i want my code to do this : When i just type wordcount in my shell implementation, I want it to count the words in the med file by default. Thanks in advance

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  • Using htaccess rewrite/redirect so single PHP file can display data according to GET/POST variables

    - by revive
    Hey gang, Bear with me as I try to learn more about .htaccess redirect rules - I'm a UI guy by profession and I'm doing my best to enhance my coding skills languages other than HTML/CSS/PHP, etc So, what I have is an index.php file that contains a menu - pretty simple. If Javascript is enabled on the users computer then forms are shown below the menu using simple jQuery goodies, with each link having a 'return false;' applied. What I am trying to do is make the page accessible with JS turned off, so instead of redirecting the user to a different page, I would like to use POST or GET variables from each link, to show the various forms.. within the same index.php file - but have the URL reflect the menu choice Here is an example using menu items named - Home, About, Form1 and Form2: With JS on, clicking on of the above example buttons simply slides the form or containing the data down onto the page. With JS off, if the user clicks the 'About' link, I would like to rewrite the URL to be http://domain.com/about - but keep the user on the index.php page (since it is the only page) and be able to use POST or GET variable to show the using PHP. So, accessing http://domain.com/index.php?page=about would show http://domain.com/about in the URL but pass the GET variable 'page' to the index.php file. Hope that makes sense.. and I'm sure there are many ways to accomplish this, so if you have ideas of how to improve on it, by all means, I'd love to hear it ! Thanks again Revive

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  • Wordpress Rewrite Redirect Failure

    - by Rory Hart
    I'm helping a friend recover from the mess outsourcing a wordpress website caused him (mistake #1) and I have this weird error. The hosting he is using appears to be redirecting www.domain.com to domain.com (NFI why) automatically which works fine in every browser except IE (i know right!). So adding the first redirect fixed that, until I added the permalink redirect. Now when IE goes to an old wordpress link like http://www.domain.com/?p=520 the redirect fails. RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / # Rewrite rule for wierd redirect issue RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*)$ "http\:\/\/doman\.com\/$1" [R=301,L] # Rewrite Rule for Wordress Permalinks RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] I tested this out with wget and it complains: ERROR: Redirection (301) without location. So it seems likely that IE is suffering from the same error (without the helpful error message). But I haven't a clue how to fix it. I am hoping that he will switch hosting companies but we will see. In the meantime any ideas?

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  • PHP-SDK too many redirects

    - by Roel Veldhuizen
    I'm using the PHP-SDK for Facebook and got the example to work on my localhost. However, when building a script on a server the script stays quite busy with redirecting from my script to facebook and back. (Error: Fout 310 (net::ERR_TOO_MANY_REDIRECTS):) It seems that many more people have got this issue (here, here, here, here). Though, I can't find a clear answer what goes wrong. Redirect to facebook (response 302): https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?client_id=166958180001271&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fdomain.com%2Fscripts%2FGateway.php%3Faction%3DAllowFacebookAccessAction%26app%3D14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e#_=_ Redirect to mydomain (response 302): http://domain.com/scripts/Gateway.php?action=AllowFacebookAccessAction&app=14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e&code=AQD-dTeyns0OWpGb_PzfHxUy2iRmpc1XgP6Q24DDRX8MiRTE10lV-b-aSNIlOLVHk576vRs3H8Pf9n0kGwU827MrkzUCUoQGFGEQBkkOJnCy9zb6hZs7TVBsKL2iSuZIhDjLsCOPeKy3zfb37Q6LGhtMICCdB_IQAvU0uRvAkSAX8tdVJ65PEv8imx-2yvLaMoGJleZwKogh7m03vlhV8hJk#_=_ Part of the code that creates this issue ... $facebook = new FacebookApi(array( 'appId' => $app->getProperty('apiKey'), 'secret' => $app->getProperty('secretKey'), )); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if (!$user) { header('location: ' . $facebook->getLoginUrl()); exit; } ... UPDATE: I ruled out that its a server setting. I was able to run the original example script on that server.

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  • How test that ASP.NET MVC route redirects to other site?

    - by Matt Lacey
    Due to a prinitng error in some promotional material I have a site that is receiving a lot of requests which should be for one site arriving at another. i.e. The valid sites are http://site1.com/abc & http://site2.com/def but people are being told to go to http://site1.com/def. I have control over site1 but not site2. site1 contains logic for checking that the first part of the route is valid in an actionfilter, like this: public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); if ((!filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey("id")) || (!manager.WhiteLabelExists(filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString()))) { if (filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString().ToLowerInvariant().Equals("def")) { filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect("http://site2.com/def", true); } filterContext.Result = new ViewResult { ViewName = "NoWhiteLabel" }; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } I'm not sure how to test the redirection to the other site though. I already have tests for redirecting to "NoWhiteLabel" using the MvcContrib Test Helpers, but these aren't able to handle (as far as I can see) this situation. How do I test the redirection to antoher site?

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  • Zend: Fetching row from session db table after generating session id

    - by Nux
    Hi, I'm trying to update the session table used by Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable directly after authenticating the user and writing the session to the DB. But I can neither update nor fetch the newly inserted row, even though the session id I use to check (Zend_Session::getId()) is valid and the row is indeed inserted into the table. Upon fetching all session ids (on the same request) the one I newly inserted is missing from the results. It does appear in the results if I fetch it with something else. I've checked whether it is a problem with transactions and that does not seem to be the problem - there is no active transaction when I'm fetching the results. I've also tried fetching a few seconds after writing using sleep(), which doesn't help. $auth->getStorage()->write($ident); //sleep(1) $update = $this->db->update('session', array('uid' => $ident->user_id), 'id='.$this->db->quote(Zend_Session::getId())); $qload = 'SELECT id FROM session'; $load = $this->db->fetchAll($qload); echo $qload; print_r($load); $update fails. $load doesn't contain the row that was written with $auth-getStorage()-write($identity). $qload does contain the correct query - copying it to somewhere else leads to the expected result, that is the inserted row is included in the results. Database used is MySQL - InnoDB. If someone knows how to directly fix this (i.e. on the same request, not doing something like updating after redirecting to another page) without modifying Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable: Thank you very much!

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  • How can I do such a typical unittest?

    - by Malcom.Z
    This is a simple structure in my project: MyAPP--- note--- __init__.py views.py urls.py test.py models.py auth-- ... template--- auth--- login.html register.html note--- noteshow.html media--- css--- ... js--- ... settings.py urls.py __init__.py manage.py I want to make a unittest which can test the noteshow page working propeyly or not. The code: from django.test import TestCase class Note(TestCase): def test_noteshow(self): response = self.client.get('/note/') self.assertEqual(response.status_code, 200) self.assertTemplateUsed(response, '/note/noteshow.html') The problem is that my project include an auth mod, it will force the unlogin user redirecting into the login.html page when they visit the noteshow.html. So, when I run my unittest, in the bash it raise an failure that the response.status_code is always 302 instead of 200. All right though through this result I can check the auth mod is running well, it is not like what I want it to be. OK, the question is that how can I make another unittest to check my noteshow.template is used or not? Thanks for all. django version: 1.1.1 python version: 2.6.4 Use Eclipse for MAC OS

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  • grep 5 seconds of input from the serial port inside a shell-script

    - by pica
    I've got a device that I'm operating next to my PC and as it runs it's spitting log lines out it's serial port. I have this wired to my PC and I can see the log lines fine if I'm using either minicom or something like: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 I want to write 5 seconds of the device serial output to a temp file (or assign it to a variable) and then later grep that file for keywords that will let me know how the device is operating. I've already tried redirecting the output to a file while running the command in the background, and then sleeping 5 seconds and killing the process, but the log lines never get written to my temp file. Example: touch tempFile ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 >> tempFile & serialPID=$! sleep 5 #kill ${serialPID} #does not work, gets wrong PID killall ttylog cat tempFile The file gets created but never filled with any data. I can also replace the ttylog line with: ttylog -b 115200 -d /dev/ttyS0 |tee -a tempFile & In neither case do I ever see any log lines logged to stdout or the log file unless I have multiple versions of ttylog running by mistake (see commented out line, D'oh). I have no idea what's going on here. It seems to be a failure of redirection within my script. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to sample 5 seconds of the serial port?

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  • Java and .net interoperability

    - by dineshrekula
    I have a c# program through which i am opening cmd window as a a process. in this command window i am running a batch file. i am redirecting the output of that batch file commands to a Text File. When i run my application everything seems to be ok. But few times, Application is giving some error like "Can't access the file. it's being used by another application" at the same time cmd window is not getting closed. If we close the cmd process through the Task Manager, then it's writing the content to the file and getting closed. Even though i closed the cmd process, still file handle is not getting released. so that i am not able to run the application next time onwards.Always it's saying Can't access the file. Only after restarting the system, it's working. Here is my code: Process objProcess = new Process(); ProcessStartInfo objProInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); objProInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized; objProInfo.UseShellExecute = true; objProInfo.FileName = "Batch file path" objProInfo.Arguments = "Some Arguments"; if (Directory.Exists(strOutputPath) == false) { Directory.CreateDirectory(strOutputPath); } objProInfo.CreateNoWindow = false; objProcess.StartInfo = objProInfo; objProcess.Start(); objProcess.WaitForExit(); test.bat: java classname argument > output.txt Here is my question: I am not able to trace where the problem is.. How we can see the process which holding handle on ant file. Is there any suggestions for Java and .net interoperability

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  • HTTP 500 a problem on CAS Server while setting SSLVerifyClent as "required"

    - by Huiyu.Bird
    I have 3 server, a Apache Server, a JBOSS Server and a CAS Server for SSO. The Apache Server resolve all request with a domain such as www.request.com, and the path of CAS Server is www.request.com/cas, and JBOSS Server is www.request.com/jboss (This app got a CAS client). My problem is if I set SSLVerifyClient require for the NameVirtualHost of www.request.com in my Apache Server, I got a HTTP 500 error during the redirecting to the JBOSS Server(http://www.request.com/jboss), after logined in the CAS login page successfully. But everything goes successfully if there is no SSLVerifyClient require . Error logs of my Apache Server : [Mon Apr 19 17:07:25 2010] [error] Re-negotiation handshake failed: Not accepted by client!? Error logs of my JBOSS Server : 2010-04-19 17:29:57,263 ERROR [org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.[jboss.web].[localhost].[/jboss].[jsp]] (ajp-0.0.0.0-8009-1) Servlet.service() for servlet jsp threw exception org.jasig.cas.client.validation.TicketValidationException: The CAS server returned no response. at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.validate(AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.java:162) at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractTicketValidationFilter.doFilter(AbstractTicketValidationFilter.java:129) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.authentication.AuthenticationFilter.doFilter(AuthenticationFilter.java:103) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.session.SingleSignOutFilter.doFilter(SingleSignOutFilter.java:78) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.springframework.web.filter.CharacterEncodingFilter.doFilterInternal(CharacterEncodingFilter.java:96) at org.springframework.web.filter.OncePerRequestFilter.doFilter(OncePerRequestFilter.java:75) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jboss.web.tomcat.filters.ReplyHeaderFilter.doFilter(ReplyHeaderFilter.java:96) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.in Any tips will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • Rails emails not sending in staging environment

    - by jrdioko
    In a Rails application I set up a new staging environment with the following parameters in its environments/ file: config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.raise_delivery_errors = true config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp However, when the system generates an email, it gets printed to the staging.log file instead of being sent. My SMTP settings work fine in other environments. What configuration am I missing to get the emails to actually send? Edit: Yes, the staging box is set up with valid configuration for an SMTP server it has access to. It seems like the problem isn't with the SMTP settings (if it was, wouldn't I get errors in the logs?), but with the Rails configuration. The application is still redirecting emails to the log file (saying "Sent mail: ...") as opposed to actually going through SMTP. Edit #2: It looks like the emails actually have been sending correctly, they just happen to print to the log as well. I'm trying to use the sanitize_email gem to redirect the mail to another address, and that doesn't seem to be working, which is why I thought the emails weren't going out. So I think that solves my problem, although I'm still curious what in ActionMailer's settings controls whether emails are sent, logged to the log file, or both. Edit #3: The problem with sanitize_email boiled down to me needing to add the new staging environment to ActionMailer::Base.local_environments. I'll keep this question open to see if anyone can answer my last question (what determines whether ActionMailer's emails get sent out, logged to the log file, or both?)

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  • Design Pattern for error handling in ASP.NET 3.5 site

    - by Kevin
    I am relatively new to ASP.NET programming, and web programming in general. We have a site we recently ported from .NET 1.1 to 3.5. Currently we have two methods of error handling: either catching the error during data load on a page and displaying the formatted error in a label on the page, or redirecting to a generic error page. Both of these are somewhat annoying, as right now I'm trying to redesign how our errors are displayed. We are soon moving to Master pages, and I'm wondering if there is a way to "build in" an error handling control. What I mean by this is using a ASP.NET user control I've designed that simply gets passed the error string returned from the server. If an error occurs, the page would not display the content, and instead display the error control. This provides us with the ability to retain the current banner/navigation during an error (which we don't get with the generic error page), as well as keeping me from having to add the control to every aspx page we have (which I have to do with using the label-per-page system). Does something like this make sense? Ultimately I just want to have the error control added to a single page, and all other pages have access to it directly. Is this something Master pages help with? Thanks!

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  • WebKit and Opera won't load from this server when it's in a frame

    - by crimson_penguin
    This site loads fine in Firefox, but in WebKit browsers (Safari and Google Chrome) it won't load the frame, and in Opera I get this error: "The Web site does not permit its content to be displayed in a frame. It must be displayed in a separate window.". I don't expect to be able to actually fix this, as I don't have control over the frames page (only the content of the frame), but my question is: why? The content of the frame loads fine by itself, and saving the frames page and changing the src of the frame to http://w3.org/ loads fine. I did a bit of searching based on the Opera error, and it seemed to suggest it had to do with redirecting. That URL does indeed redirect, but if I change it to http://mini.milli.no/tonje/main (which doesn't redirect), it still doesn't work. Even Apache directory listings don't work - which to me suggests it's server related. But how can a server do that? To be total clear, I'm using Mac OS X 10.6.3, and I tested with Safari 4.0.5, Chrome 5.0.375.55, Opera 10.53, and Firefox 3.6.3. Basically, the newest of all of those things currently.

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  • Looping login with Facebook JS SDK and Rails

    - by nafe
    I'm using the Facebook JS SDK for single-sign with my rails app. I translated the php code from the Facebook example (at the bottom of the page under "Single Sign-on with the JavaScript SDK") into ruby. This appeared to be working great but I've noticed one user that gets continual redirects when trying to login. The logs look like: Processing UsersController#login (for X.X.X.X at 2010-05-22 17:25:55) [GET] Redirected to http://myapp.com/ Completed in 0ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://myapp.com/login] (times as many entries as my unfortunate user leaves the browser redirecting in a loop). My client side code includes a callback with the "auth.sessionChange": FB.Event.subscribe('auth.sessionChange', function(response) { if (response.session) { // A user has logged in, and a new cookie has been saved window.location = "/login"; } else { // The user has logged out, and the cookie has been cleared window.location = "/logout"; } }); So it seems to me like this event is continually firing. Although, I can't test this theory because I can't recreate this scenario locally. I don't think it's the rails controller. The code here is just: def login # if first time user create db entry # now redirect back to where the user came from begin redirect_to :back rescue ActionController::RedirectBackError redirect_to root_url end end Does anyone have any idea on what's going on?

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