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  • Using AJAX to get a specific DOM Element (using Javascript, not jQuery)

    - by Matt Frost
    How do you use AJAX (in plain JavaScript, NOT jQuery) to get a page (same domain) and display just a specific DOM Element? (Such as the DOM element marked with the id of "bodyContent"). I'm working with MediaWiki 1.18, so my methods have to be a little less conventional (I know that a version of jQuery can be enabled for MediaWiki, but I don't have access to do that so I need to look at other options). I apologize if the code is messy, but there's a reason I need to build it this way. I'm mostly interested in seeing what can be done with the Javascript. Here's the HTML code: <div class="mediaWiki-AJAX"><a href="http://www.domain.com/whatever"></a></div> Here's the Javascript I have so far: var AJAXs = document.getElementsByClassName('mediaWiki-AJAX'); if (AJAXs.length > 0) { for (var i = AJAXs.length - 1; i >= 0; i--) { var URL = AJAXs[i].getElementsByTagName('a')[0].href; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { AJAXs[i].innerHTML = xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open('GET',URL,true); xmlhttp.send(); } }

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  • Problem with sending cookies with file_get_contents

    - by Ikke
    Hi, i'm trying to get the contents from another file with file_get_contents (don't ask why). I have two files: test1.php and test2.php. Test1.php returns a string, bases on the user that is logged in. Test2.php tries to get the contents of test1.php and is being executed by the browser, thus getting the cookies. To send the cookies with file_get_contents, i create a streaming context: $opts = array('http' => array('header'=> 'Cookie: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_COOKIE']."\r\n"))`; I'm retreiving the contents with: $contents = file_get_contents("http://www.domain.com/test1.php", false, $opts); But now I get the error: Warning: file_get_contents(http://www.domain.com/test1.php) [function.file-get-contents]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found Does somebody knows what i'm doing wroing here? edit: forgot to mention: Without the streaming_context, the page just loads. But withouth the cookies I don't get the info I need.

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  • Are these settings correct for sending mail through Rails/Gmail?

    - by aressidi
    Hi there, I spend a good deal of time building an email system for my Rails app that uses Gmail to send bulk mail to a list of opt-in users. I realize a shortcomming of using Google Apps for my mail, namely a rate limit on the number of emails it will send out (i believe 500). Anyway, I have reached out to my users to see how many have received the email, and a lot of them have not, though some have. The list I tried sending to was about 540 users, so I would have expected more "yes, got it," then "nope, still waiting" responses. I have two questions: Do these settings look correct for outgoing bulk mailing through Gmail? Again, using google apps to manage my domain and i know some people (including myself) have received the mailer. This is in a mail.rb initializer in my app. ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :sendmail ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 25, :domain => "mydomain.com", :authentication => :login, :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypass" } Is there any way I can test if the mail was delivered, or at least attempted to be delivered? I can't tell where in the list the mailer stops mailing! The way I generate the list is through a query which then passes the user info to a mailer worker which sends the emails out via Starling/Workling. Any advice here would be useful. Happy to post code, but want to make sure the method I'm using is sound. Thanks for the help!

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  • Deploy GWT Application to Google App Engine using NetBeans

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Hello, I try to deploy a GWT application, to Google App Engine using NetBeans. I had successful run GWT sample http://code.google.com/webtoolkit/doc/latest/tutorial/create.html using Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, by 1) Copy generated source code from StockWatcher to C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\src\java\com\google\ 2) Modify C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\nbproject\gwt.properties gwt.module=com.google.gwt.stockwatcher.StockWatcher 3) Select Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, and run. All works fine! Now, I try to select Google App Engine server, and run. However, I get the error "There is no appengine web project opened!" I check... There is file called C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\war\WEB-INF\appengine-web.xml with content <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <appengine-web-app xmlns="http://appengine.google.com/ns/1.0" xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:schemaLocation='http://kenai.com/projects/nbappengine/downloads/download/schema/appengine-web.xsd appengine-web.xsd'> <application>StockWatcherNetbeans</application> <version>1</version> </appengine-web-app> I am using NetBeans 6.7.1 GWT4NB (GWT Plugin for NetBeans) 2.6.12 Google App Engine plugin for NetBeans from http://kenai.com/downloads/nbappengine/1.0_NetBeans671/updates.xml Anything I had missed out? Even when I right click to the project, the Deploy to Google App Engine options is disabled. And yes, please do not ask me why not use Eclipse.

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  • SQL Server INSERT ... SELECT Statement won't parse

    - by Jim Barnett
    I am getting the following error message with SQL Server 2005 Msg 120, Level 15, State 1, Procedure usp_AttributeActivitiesForDateRange, Line 18 The select list for the INSERT statement contains fewer items than the insert list. The number of SELECT values must match the number of INSERT columns. I have copy and pasted the select list and insert list into excel and verified there are the same number of items in each list. Both tables an additional primary key field with is not listed in either the insert statement or select list. I am not sure if that is relevant, but suspicious it may be. Here is the source for my stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_AttributeActivitiesForDateRange] ( @dtmFrom DATETIME, @dtmTo DATETIME ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @dtmToWithTime DATETIME SET @dtmToWithTime = DATEADD(hh, 23, DATEADD(mi, 59, DATEADD(s, 59, @dtmTo))); -- Get uncontested DC activities INSERT INTO AttributedDoubleClickActivities ([Time], [User-ID], [IP], [Advertiser-ID], [Buy-ID], [Ad-ID], [Ad-Jumpto], [Creative-ID], [Creative-Version], [Creative-Size-ID], [Site-ID], [Page-ID], [Country-ID], [State Province], [Areacode], [OS-ID], [Domain-ID], [Keyword], [Local-User-ID], [Activity-Type], [Activity-Sub-Type], [Quantity], [Revenue], [Transaction-ID], [Other-Data], Ordinal, [Click-Time], [Event-ID]) SELECT [Time], [User-ID], [IP], [Advertiser-ID], [Buy-ID], [Ad-ID], [Ad-Jumpto], [Creative-ID], [Creative-Version], [Creative-Size-ID], [Site-ID], [Page-ID], [Country-ID], [State Province], [Areacode], [OS-ID], [Domain-ID], [Keyword], [Local-User-ID] [Activity-Type], [Activity-Sub-Type], [Quantity], [Revenue], [Transaction-ID], [Other-Data], REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') AS Ordinal, [Click-Time], [Event-ID] FROM Activity_Reports WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo AND REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') IN (SELECT REPLACE(Ordinal, '?', '') FROM Activity_Reports WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo EXCEPT SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR, TripID) FROM VisualSciencesActivities WHERE [Time] BETWEEN @dtmFrom AND @dtmTo); END GO

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  • FluentNHibernate mapping of composite foreign keys

    - by Faron
    I have an existing database schema and wish to replace the custom data access code with Fluent.NHibernate. The database schema cannot be changed since it already exists in a shipping product. And it is preferable if the domain objects did not change or only changed minimally. I am having trouble mapping one unusual schema construct illustrated with the following table structure: CREATE TABLE [Container] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item] ( [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Item_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ItemId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Item_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [ItemId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) CREATE TABLE [Container_Property] ( [ContainerId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PropertyId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Container_Property] PRIMARY KEY ( [ContainerId] ASC, [PropertyId] ASC ) ) The existing domain model has the following class structure: The Property class contains other members representing the property's name and value. The ContainerProperty and ItemProperty classes have no additional members. They exist only to identify the owner of the Property. The Container and Item classes have methods that return collections of ContainerProperty and ItemProperty respectively. Additionally, the Container class has a method that returns a collection of all of the Property objects in the object graph. My best guess is that this was either a convenience method or a legacy method that was never removed. The business logic mainly works with Item (as the aggregate root) and only works with a Container when adding or removing Items. I have tried several techniques for mapping this but none work so I won't include them here unless someone asks for them. How would you map this?

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • Is there unreachable code in this snippet? I don't think so, but Resharper is telling me otherwise.

    - by The Matt
    I have the following method I came across in a code review. Inside the loop Resharper is telling me that if (narrativefound == false) is incorrect becuase narrativeFound is always true. I don't think this is the case, because in order to set narrativeFound to true it has to pass the conditional string compare first, so how can it always be true? Am I missing something? Is this a bug in Resharper or in our code? public Chassis GetChassisForElcomp(SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis asMaintained, SPPA.Domain.ChassisData.Chassis newChassis) { Chassis c = asMaintained; List<Narrative> newNarrativeList = new List<Narrative>(); foreach (Narrative newNarrative in newChassis.Narratives) { bool narrativefound = false; foreach (Narrative orig in asMaintained.Narratives) { if (string.Compare(orig.PCode, newNarrative.PCode) ==0 ) { narrativefound = true; if (newNarrative.NarrativeValue.Trim().Length != 0) { orig.NarrativeValue = newNarrative.NarrativeValue; newNarrativeList.Add(orig); } break; } if (narrativefound == false) { newNarrativeList.Add(newNarrative); } } } c.SalesCodes = newChassis.SalesCodes; c.Narratives = newNarrativeList; return c; }

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  • How to get the dynamic generated content of an external ASP file using PhP?

    - by theCrius
    This is the situation: I've a PhP login page that check is an external ASP page has generated something (nickname). For example: i'm logged? So opening directly the asp page will display "nickname:thecrius" and nothing more. I'm not logged? So opening the ASP page will display nothing. Now i've to catch the "thecrius" string with a PhP page. Using file_get_contents only return me "nickname:", the "static" part of the asp page. What i'm doing wrong? Some codes: $aspSource = "http://www.domain.com/inc/whois.asp"; //ASP external $file = file_get_contents($aspSource); //get content of the asp page $start = strpos($file, "username:") + 9; //cutting off the "nickname:" $username = substr($file, $start); //get the username echo "URL-> $aspSource<br>Content-> $file<br>Start-> $start<br>Username-> $username<br>END"; But the result is only URL-> http://www.domain.com/inc/whois.asp Content-> username: Start-> 9 Username-> END Thanks in advance to anyone will help!

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  • How to get around DnsRecordListFree error in .NET Framework 4.0?

    - by Greg Finzer
    I am doing an MxRecordLookup. I am getting an error when calling the DnsRecordListFree in the .NET Framework 4.0. I am using Windows 7. How do I get around it? Here is the error: System.MethodAccessException: Attempt by security transparent method to call native code through method. Here is my code: [DllImport("dnsapi", EntryPoint = "DnsQuery_W", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true, ExactSpelling = true)] private static extern int DnsQuery([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.VBByRefStr)]ref string pszName, QueryTypes wType, QueryOptions options, int aipServers, ref IntPtr ppQueryResults, int pReserved); [DllImport("dnsapi", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern void DnsRecordListFree(IntPtr pRecordList, int FreeType); public List<string> GetMXRecords(string domain) { List<string> records = new List<string>(); IntPtr ptr1 = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr ptr2 = IntPtr.Zero; MXRecord recMx; try { int result = DnsQuery(ref domain, QueryTypes.DNS_TYPE_MX, QueryOptions.DNS_QUERY_BYPASS_CACHE, 0, ref ptr1, 0); if (result != 0) { if (result == 9003) { //No Record Exists } else { //Some other error } } for (ptr2 = ptr1; !ptr2.Equals(IntPtr.Zero); ptr2 = recMx.pNext) { recMx = (MXRecord)Marshal.PtrToStructure(ptr2, typeof(MXRecord)); if (recMx.wType == 15) { records.Add(Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(recMx.pNameExchange)); } } } finally { DnsRecordListFree(ptr1, 0); } return records; }

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  • Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

    - by arrages
    In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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  • Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

    - by Callmeed
    We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

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  • Account activation PHP

    - by Wayne
    I created this account registration activation script of my own, I have checked it over again and again to find errors, I don't see a particular error... The domain would be like this: http://domain.com/include/register.php?key=true&p=AfRWDCOWF0BO6KSb6UmNMf7d333gaBOB Which comes from an email, when a user clicks it, they get redirected to this script: if($_GET['key'] == true) { $key = $_GET['p']; $sql = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows($result) > 0) { $sql = "UPDATE users SET user_key = '', user_active = '1' WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query(sql) or die(mysql_error()); if($result) { $_SESSION['PROCESS'] = $lang['Account_activated']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Key_error']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Invalid_key']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } It doesn't even work at all, I looked in the database with the user with that key, it matches but it keeps coming up as an error which is extremely annoying me. The database is right, the table and column is right, nothing wrong with the database, it's the script that isn't working. Help me out, guys. Thanks :)

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  • Jetty 7 will not allow me to customize a session cookie path

    - by Bob Obringer
    Using Jetty 7.0.2, I am unable to set a custom session cookie path. I am hosting multiple sites on the same server using apache to proxy requests to the proper context. (replaced http as htp as stackoverflow thinks my multiple links might be spam) <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName context.domain.com ProxyRequests On ProxyPreserveHost Off <Proxy *:80> Order deny,allow Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Proxy> ProxyPass / htp://localhost:8080/context/ ProxyPassReverse / htp://localhost:8080/context/ <Location /> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Location> </VirtualHost> Jetty is running on the same server on port 8080 and my context is available @ /context The user accesses the application @ htp://context.domain.com but jetty is setting the path for the session cookie @ /context. This prevents the browser from accessing the cookie since the the actual path to the context is not being used. I need to override Jetty's default setting to set the cookie for the context, and set the path at the root ( / ). In my Jetty's webdefault.xml I have the following, which is partially working: <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionCookie</param-name> <param-value>CustomCookieName</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionPath</param-name> <param-value>/</param-value> </context-param> The cookie is properly set with a custom name, but it is NOT setting the SessionPath. No matter what I set the value to... it refuses to set a cookie at any path but /context. This has been driving me crazy so any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • Update graph in real time from server

    - by user1869421
    I'm trying to update a graph with received data, so that the height of the bars increase as more data is received from the server via a websocket. But my code doesn't render a graph in the browser and plot the data points. I cannot see anything wrong with the code. I really need some help here please. ws = new WebSocket("ws://localhost:8888/dh"); var useData = [] //var chart; var chart = d3.select("body") .append("svg:svg") .attr("class", "chart") .attr("width", 420) .attr("height", 200); ws.onmessage = function(evt) { var distances = JSON.parse(evt.data); data = distances.miles; console.log(data); if(useData.length <= 10){ useData.push(data) } else { var draw = function(data){ // Set the width relative to max data value var x = d3.scale.linear() .domain([0, d3.max(useData)]) .range([0, 420]); var y = d3.scale.ordinal() .domain(useData) .rangeBands([0, 120]); var rect = chart.selectAll("rect") .data(useData) // enter rect rect.enter().append("svg:rect") .attr("y", y) .attr("width", x) .attr("height", y.rangeBand()); // update rect rect .attr("y", y) .attr("width", x) .attr("height", y.rangeBand()); var text = chart.selectAll("text") .data(useData) // enter text text.enter().append("svg:text") .attr("x", x) .attr("y", function (d) { return y(d) + y.rangeBand() / 2; }) .attr("dx", -3) // padding-right .attr("dy", ".35em") // vertical-align: middle .attr("text-anchor", "end") // text-align: right .text(String); // update text text .data(useData) .attr("x", x) .text(String); } useData.length = 0; } } Thanks

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Manually Trigger or Prevent Javascript Lazy Loading in Website from Bookmarklet

    - by stwhite
    One of the problems with using a bookmarklet for grabbing images on a page is that if a website uses lazy loading, the bookmarklet won't detect the image because it will have a placeholder, e.g. "grey.gif" and not the actual source of the image. Javascript on page load, is run to replace these urls. I'm looking for a solution to retrieve those images that are not being displayed by either triggering or preventing Lazy Loading from running. This bookmarklet isn't limited to one specific domain. So far some ideas I've had are: Ping the domain and retrieve the page html if no images are found the first time around: Problem: this then requires parsing the actual html. Problem: with lazy loading, a few images will always show, just none below the fold. Scroll page to initiate lazy loading when bookmarklet is clicked, then scroll back to top. Trigger Lazy Loading from inside bookmarklet using script. Lazy Loader adds the "original" attribute, potentially could check if attribute exists w/ value. Problem: ???

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  • Best way to unit test Collection?

    - by limc
    I'm just wondering how folks unit test and assert that the "expected" collection is the same/similar as the "actual" collection (order is not important). To perform this assertion, I wrote my simple assert API:- public void assertCollection(Collection<?> expectedCollection, Collection<?> actualCollection) { assertNotNull(expectedCollection); assertNotNull(actualCollection); assertEquals(expectedCollection.size(), actualCollection.size()); assertTrue(expectedCollection.containsAll(actualCollection)); assertTrue(actualCollection.containsAll(expectedCollection)); } Well, it works. It's pretty simple if I'm asserting just bunch of Integers or Strings. It can also be pretty painful if I'm trying to assert a collection of Hibernate domains, say for example. The collection.containsAll(..) relies on the equals(..) to perform the check, but I always override the equals(..) in my Hibernate domains to check only the business keys (which is the best practice stated in the Hibernate website) and not all the fields of that domain. Sure, it makes sense to check just against the business keys, but there are times I really want to make sure all the fields are correct, not just the business keys (for example, new data entry record). So, in this case, I can't mess around with the domain.equals(..) and it almost seems like I need to implement some comparators for just unit testing purposes instead of relying on collection.containsAll(..). Are there some testing libraries I could leverage here? How do you test your collection? Thanks.

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  • context.Scale() with non-aspect ratio preserving parameters screws effective lineWith

    - by rrenaud
    I am trying to apply some natural transformations whereby the x axis is remapped to some very small domain, like from 0 to 1, whereas y is remapped to some small, but substantially larger domain, like 0 to 30. This way, drawing code can be nice and clean and only care about the model space. However, if I apply a scale, then lines are also scaled, which means that horizontal lines become extremely fat relative to vertical ones. Here is some sample code. When natural_height is much less than natural_height, the picture doesn't look as intended. I want the picture to look like this, which is what happens with a scale that preserves aspect ratio. rftgstats.c om/canvas_good.png However, with a non-aspect ratio preserving scale, the results look like this. rftgstats.c om/canvas_bad.png <html><head><title>Busted example</title></head> <body> <canvas id=example height=300 width=300> <script> var canvas = document.getElementById('example'); var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); var natural_width = 10; var natural_height = 50; ctx.scale(canvas.width / natural_width, canvas.height / natural_height); var numLines = 20; ctx.beginPath(); for (var i = 0; i < numLines; ++i) { ctx.moveTo(natural_width / 2, natural_height / 2); var angle = 2 * Math.PI * i / numLines; // yay for screen size independent draw calls. ctx.lineTo(natural_width / 2 + natural_width * Math.cos(angle), natural_height / 2 + natural_height * Math.sin(angle)); } ctx.stroke(); ctx.closePath(); </script> </body> </html>

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  • GetAccessControl error with NTAccount

    - by Adam Witko
    private bool HasRights(FileSystemRights fileSystemRights_, string fileName_, bool isFile_) { bool hasRights = false; WindowsIdentity WinIdentity = System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent(); WindowsPrincipal WinPrincipal = new WindowsPrincipal(WinIdentity); AuthorizationRuleCollection arc = null; if (isFile_) { FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(@fileName_); arc = fi.GetAccessControl().GetAccessRules(true, true, typeof(NTAccount)); } else { DirectoryInfo di = new DirectoryInfo(@fileName_); arc = di.GetAccessControl().GetAccessRules(true, true, typeof(NTAccount)); } foreach (FileSystemAccessRule rule in arc) { if (WinPrincipal.IsInRole(rule.IdentityReference.Value)) { if (((int)rule.FileSystemRights & (int)fileSystemRights_) > 0) { if (rule.AccessControlType == AccessControlType.Allow) hasRights = true; else if (rule.AccessControlType == AccessControlType.Deny) { hasRights = false; break; } } } } return hasRights; } The above code block is causing me problems. When the WinPrincipal.IsInRole(rule.IdentityReference.Value) is executed the following exception occurs: "The trust relationship between the primary domain and the trusted domain failed.". I'm very new to using identities, principles and such so I don't know what's the problem. I'm assuming it's with the use of NTAccount? Thanks

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  • Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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  • How do you keep application logic separate from UI when UI components have built-in functionality?

    - by Al C
    I know it's important to keep user interface code separated from domain code--the application is easier to understand, maintain, change, and (sometimes) isolate bugs. But here's my mental block ... Delphi comes with components with methods that do what I want, e.g., a RichText Memo component lets me work with rich text. Other components, like TMS's string grid not only do what I want, but I paid extra for the functionality. These features put the R in RAD. It seems illogical to write my own classes to do things somebody else has already done for me. It's reinventing the wheel [ever tried working directly with rich text? :-) ] But if I use the functionality built into components like these, then I will end up with lots of intermingled UI and domain code--I'll have a form with most of my code built into its event handlers. How do you deal with this issue? ... Or, if I want to continue using the code others have already written for me, how would you suggest I deal with the issue?

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  • Accept All Cookies via HttpClient

    - by Vinay
    So this is currently how my app is set up: 1.) Login Activity. 2.) Once logged in, other activities may be fired up that use PHP scripts that require the cookies sent from logging in. I am using one HttpClient across my app to ensure that the same cookies are used, but my problem is that I am getting 2 of the 3 cookies rejected. I do not care about the validity of the cookies, but I do need them to be accepted. I tried setting the CookiePolicy, but that hasn't worked either. This is what logcat is saying: 11-26 10:33:57.613: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0] [name: cookie_user_id][value: 1][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" 11-26 10:33:57.593: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0][name: cookie_session_id][value: 1985208971][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" I am sure that my actual code is correct (my app still logs in correctly, just doesn't accept the aforementioned cookies), but here it is anyway: HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(//MY URL); HttpResponse response; response = Main.httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream in = entity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); From here I use the StringBuilder to simply get the String of the response. Nothing fancy. I understand that the reason my cookies are being rejected is because of an "Illegal path attribute" (I am running a script at /mobile-api/login.php whereas the cookie will return with a path of just "/" for trackallthethings), but I would like to accept the cookies anyhow. Is there a way to do this?

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  • ignoring elements order in xml validation against xsd

    - by segolas
    Hi, Ia processing an email and saving some header inside a xml document. I also need to validate the document against a xml schema. As the subject suggest, I need to validate ignoring the elements order but, as far as I read this seems to be impossible. Am I correct? If I put the headers in a<xsd:sequence>, the order obviously matter. If I us the order is ignored but for some strange reason this imply that the elements must occur at least once. My xml is something like this: <headers> <subject>bla bla bla</subject> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> <recipient>rcp02domain.com</recipient> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> </headers> but I think the final document is valid even if subject and recipient elements are swapped. There is really nothing to do?

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