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  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver When run jar file

    - by user1024858
    Hi all, Connection conn = null; String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/"; String dbName = "test"; String driver = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"; String userName = "root"; String password = "admin"; try { Class.forName(driver).newInstance(); conn = DriverManager.getConnection(url+dbName,userName,password); System.out.println("Connected to the database"); conn.close(); System.out.println("Disconnected from database"); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace();} I run in eclipse it's ok, but i built to jar file and run on command line java -jar Test.jar i get this error: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) Please help me how to fix it. Thanks!!!

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  • Modeling Buyers & Sellers in a Rails Ecommerce App

    - by MikeH
    I'm building a Rails app that has Etsy.com style functionality. In other words, it's like a mall. There are many buyers and many sellers. I'm torn about how to model the sellers. Key facts: There won't be many sellers. Perhaps less than 20 sellers in total. There will be many buyers. Hopefully many thousands :) I already have a standard user model in place with account creation and roles. I've created a 'role' of 'seller', which the admin will manually apply to the proper users. Since we'll have very few sellers, this is not an issue. I'm considering two approaches: (1) Create a 'store' model, which will contain all the relevant store information. Products would :belong_to :store, rather than belonging to the seller. The relationship between the user and store models would be: user :has_one store. My main problem with this is that I've always found has_one associations to be a little funky, and I usually try to avoid them. The app is fairly complex, and I'm worried about running into a cascade of problems connected to the has_one association as I get further along into development. (2) Simply include the relevant 'store' information as part of the user model. But in this case, the store-related db columns would only apply to a very small percentage of users since very few users will also be sellers. I'm not sure if this is a valid concern or not. It's very possible that I'm thinking about this incorrectly. I appreciate any thoughts. Thanks.

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  • How do I authenticate an ADO.NET Data Service?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've created an ADO.Net Data Service hosted in a Azure worker role. I want to pass credentials from a simple console client to the service then validate them using a QueryInterceptor. Unfortunately, the credentials don't seem to be making it over the wire. The following is a simplified version of the code I'm using, starting with the DataService on the server: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Linq.Expressions; using System.ServiceModel; using System.Web; namespace Oslo.Worker { [ServiceBehavior(AddressFilterMode = AddressFilterMode.Any)] public class AdminService : DataService<OsloEntities> { public static void InitializeService( IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.All); config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); } [QueryInterceptor("Pairs")] public Expression<Func<Pair, bool>> OnQueryPairs() { // This doesn't work!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name != "ADMIN") throw new Exception("Ooops!"); return p => true; } } } Here's the AdminService I'm using to instantiate the AdminService in my Azure worker role: using System; using System.Data.Services; namespace Oslo.Worker { public class AdminHost : DataServiceHost { public AdminHost(Uri baseAddress) : base(typeof(AdminService), new Uri[] { baseAddress }) { } } } And finally, here's the client code. using System; using System.Data.Services.Client; using System.Net; using Oslo.Shared; namespace Oslo.ClientTest { public class AdminContext : DataServiceContext { public AdminContext(Uri serviceRoot, string userName, string password) : base(serviceRoot) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); } public DataServiceQuery<Order> Orders { get { return base.CreateQuery<Pair>("Orders"); } } } } I should mention that the code works great with the signal exception that the credentials are not being passed over the wire. Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated! Thanks....

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  • Is it possible to have WAMP run httpd.exe as user [myself] instead of local SYSTEM?

    - by Olivier H
    Hello! I run a django application over apache with mod_wsgi, using WAMP. A certain URL allows me to stream the content of image files, the paths of which are stored in database. The files can be located whether on local machine or under network drive (\my\network\folder). With the development server (manage.py runserver), I have no trouble at all reading and streaming the files. With WAMP, and with network drive files, I get a IOError : obviously because the httpd instance does not have read permission on said drive. In the task manager, I see that httpd.exe is run by SYSTEM. I would like to tell WAMP to run the server as [myself] as I have read and write permissions on the shared folder. (eventually, the production server should be run by a 'www-admin' user having the permissions) Mapping the network shared folder on a drive letter (Z: for instance) does not solve this at all. The User/Group directives in httpd.conf do not seem to have any kind of influence on Apache's behaviour. I've also regedited : I tried to duplicate the HKLM[...]\wampapache registry key under HK_CURRENT_USER\ and rename the original key, but then the new key does not seem to be found when I cmd this > httpd.exe -n wampapache -k start or when I run WAMP. I've run out of ideas :) Has anybody ever had the same issue?

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  • IIS7.5 and MVC 2 : Implementing HTTP(S) security

    - by Program.X
    This is my first ASP.NET MVC application, and my first on an IIS 7.x installation whereby I have to do anything over and above the standard. I need to enforce Windows authentication on the /Index and /feeds/xxx.svc pages/services. In ASP.NET Web Forms, I would apply the Windows permissions on the files and remove Anonymous authentication in IIS 6. This needs to work over HTTP/S, but don't worry about that, that's in hand. What happens in MVC/IIS 7? I have tried modifying the permissions on the /Index.aspx view, which seems to block access. It asks me for a username/password, but does not grant access when I enter a valid username/password. Pressing Escape gives me an exception "*Access to the path 'E:\dev\xxx\xxx.ConsultantRegistration.Web.Admin\Views\ConsultantRegistration\index.aspx' is denied. *", which does get sent as a 401. So although the username/password does exist on the Index.aspx view, I can't use those credentials to access said view. I have in my web.config: What am I missing?

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  • How to **delete-protect** a file or folder on Windows Server 2003 and onwards using C#/Vb.Net?

    - by Steve Johnson
    Hi all, Is it possible to delete-protect a file/folder using Registry or using a custom written Windows Service in C#? Using Folder Permissions it is possible, but i am looking for a solution that even restricts the admin from deleting specific folders. The requirement is that the administrator must not be easily track the nature of protection and/or may not be able to avert it easily. Obviously all administrators will be able to revert the procedure if the technique is clearly understood. Like folder Permissions/OwnerShip Settings can easily be reset by an administrator. SO that is not an option. Folder protection software can easily be uninstalled and show clear indication that a particular folder is protected by some special kind of software. SO that too is not an option. Most antivirus programs protect folders and files in Program Dir. Windows itself doesnt allow certain files such as registry files in c:\windows\system32\config to not even copied. Such a protection is desired for folders which allowse to read and write to files but not allow deletion. Similar functionality is desired. The protection has to seemless and invisible. I do not want to use any protection features like FolderLock and Invisible secrets/PC Security and Desktop password etc. Moreover, the solution has to be something other than folder encryption. The solution has to be OS-native so ** that it may implemented ** pro grammatically using C#/VB.Net. Please help. Thanks

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  • ZEND - Creating custom routes without overwriting the default ones

    - by Pedro Cordeiro
    I'm trying to create something that looks like facebook's profile URL (http://facebook.com/username). So, at first I tried something like that: $router->addRoute( 'eventName', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( '/:eventName', array( 'module' => 'default', 'controller' => 'event', 'action' => 'detail' ) ) ); I kept getting the following error: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Controller_Router_Exception' with message 'eventName is not specified' in /var/desenvolvimento/padroes/zf/ZendFramework-1.12.0/library/Zend/Controller/Plugin/Broker.php on line 336 Not only I was unable to make that piece of code work, all my default routes were (obviously) overwritten. So I have, for example, stuff like "mydomain.com/admin", that was now returning the same error (as it fell in the same pattern as /:eventName). What I need to do is to create this custom route, without overwriting the default ones and actually working (dûh). I have already checked the online docs and a lot (A LOT) of stuff on google, but I didn't find anything related to the error I'm getting or how to not overwrite the default routes. I'd appreciate anything that could point me the right direction. Thanks.

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  • Should I *always* import my file references into the database in drupal?

    - by sprugman
    I have a cck type with an image field, and a unique_id text field. The file name of the image is based on the unique_id. All of the content, including the image itself is being generated automatically via another process, and I'm parsing what that generates into nodes. Rather than creating separate fields for the id and the image, and doing an official import of the image into the files table, I'm tempted to only create the id field and create the file reference in the theme layer. I can think of pros and cons: 1) Theme Layer Approach Pros: makes the import process much less complex don't have to worry about syncing the db with the file system as things change more flexible -- I can move my images around more easily if I want Cons: maybe not as much The Drupal Way™ not as pure -- I'll wind up with more logic on the theme side. 2) Import Approach Pros: import method is required if we ever wanted to make the files private (we won't.) safer? Maybe I'll know if there's a problem with the image at import time, rather than view time. Since I'll be bulk importing, that might make a difference. if I delete a node through the admin interface, drupal might be able to delete the file for me, as well. Con: more complex import and maintenance All else being equal, simpler is always better, so I'm leaning toward #1. Are there any other issues I'm missing? (Since this is an open ended question, I guess I'll make it a community wiki, whatever that means.)

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  • VB6 ActiveX exe - what is the proper registration sequence?

    - by Timbuck
    I have recently updated a Visual Basic 6 application that is an ActiveX exe, running on Windows XP. I have a couple of testers for this application who have received a copy of the exe and are attempting to run it. However, they are getting an error message "Unexpected error;quitting" when trying to do so. A key difference between their testing and my testing is that on the machines I tested on, I have admin rights and was able to register the application using the appname.exe /regserver command line. Reading the details at MS Support about file registration appears unclear: Visual Basic ActiveX EXE files register themselves the first time you run the EXE. However, you cannot use the EXE as a COM server until it is registered. So does this mean that after the first time the users run the exe that the application should be correctly registered, and the error I am receiving is sign of something other than an incorrectly registered application? Or does this mean that the application will not work properly until such time as the file is explicitly registered using the appname.exe /regserver command line? nb - during a production distribution, the software would be sent out to client PCs using Systems Management Server, which isn't an option for this testing.

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  • How to secure connection strings in VS?

    - by salvationishere
    I see several others have posted this question, however, none of the solutions I've tried have fixed this yet. I have a 32-bit XP running VS 2008 and I am trying to encrypt my connection string in my web.config file. But I am getting the error: The configuration section '...' was not found. Failed! The command I give it: C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\VCAspnet_regiis.exe -pe "system.we b/AdventureWorksConnectionString2" -app "/Documents and Settings/Admin/My Docume nts/Visual Studio 2008/Projects/AddFileToSQL2" Also, how does -app map virtual directory? In other words the path above is the directory right below c:. Is this the correct path to use? And AddFileToSQL2 is the name of my project, although it is part of the AddFileToSQL solution. I have this folder web shared with all of the permissions. And the relevant part of my web.config file: <add name="AdventureWorksConnectionString2" connectionString="Data Source=SIDEKICK;Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Persist Security Info=true; User ID=AdventureWorks;Password=sqlMagic" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" />

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  • Java program will read from database, but not write to it

    - by ck1221
    I have a Java program that successfully connects to a mysql database that is hosted on godaddy's server. I can read from that db with out issue, however, when I try to write to it with INSERT or UPDATE for example, the query does not execute. I am using the 'admin' account that I set up through godaddy, I realize this is not the root account. I have checked and verified that the connection is not read only, and have logged out of phpmyadmin while the query ran. I'm not sure what else I can try or if anyone has experienced this issue. Maybe a setting to the connection I have failed to set? Or maybe its not possible since the db is hosted on godaddy's servers? Any help is great! Thanks. Here is some relevant code: Connection to db: Connection con; public DBconnection(String url, String user, String pass) { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection (url,user,pass); if(!con.isClosed()) System.out.println("connecton open"); } catch (InstantiationException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IllegalAccessException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (ClassNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } Send Query: public ResultSet executeQuery(String query) { ResultSet rs = null; try { Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); //while(rs.next()) //System.out.println(rs.getString("ticket_num")); } catch (SQLException e) {} return rs; } Insert Query (works in phpmyadmin): conn.executeQuery("INSERT INTO tickets VALUES(55555,'12/01/2012','me','reports','test','','','0','Nope')");

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  • jsf custom control strange behaviour

    - by Cristian Boariu
    hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

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  • CreateProcessWithLogonW : unable to start process

    - by Vivek
    Hi I am completely new to programming. And please someone help me. I am trying to start a pocess from a service. I need to start the new process by prompting user to enter admin credentials. I was trying to use CreateProcessWithLogonW(). Am I using the right function. I tried to give input username, password, domain as localhost. I gave full pathe to the .exe file that i need to start. Here is the piece of code. CreateProcessWithLogonW(L"Administrator", L"localhost", L"password", 0, NULL, L"c:\myupdates\myapp.exe", NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS | CREATE_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); Si.cb = sizeof(si); Si.lpDesktop = L"winsta0\\default"; But the process never started. Can you guys tell me what I am doing wrong. And what do I need to do to promt user to enter credentials of administrator instead of hardcoding it.

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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  • How to allow devise users to edit their profil?

    - by user1704926
    I have a namespace called "backend" which is protected by Devise. I would like now to allow users to edit their profil. So I created a users_controller in Backend. Here's the users_controllercode : class Backend::UsersController < ApplicationController layout 'admin' before_filter :authenticate_user! def index @users = Backend::User.all respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @users } end end def show @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end def edit @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) end def update @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'Article was successfully updated.' } format.json { head :no_content } else format.html { render action: "edit" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end end When I go on backend_users_path there is a list of all the users. I would like to permit to edit only his own profil. So I go on the Edit page : <%= link_to "Edit", edit_backend_user_path(backend_user.id) %> . Here's the Edit page code : <%= simple_form_for @user do |f| %> <div><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.input :email, :autofocus => true %></div> <div><%= f.submit "Update" %></div> <% end %> And there is my problem : when I try to modify the email address, nothing happen. The update fails. How can I do this ? I'm quite lost. Thanks by advance.

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  • Rails nested association issue

    - by Ben Langfeld
    Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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  • Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

    - by iKenndac
    Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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  • Would you allow this type of query?

    - by user564577
    I'm exploring using an ORM tool in our development shop, and in particular Entity Framework 4.0. Since we work with VERY large databases, I'm a bit concerned about the query's it generates. Doing something simple like getting clients with an address in a state looks like below. As a database developer or admin would you allow this? Is it as bad as it looks? Assume every join is on a clustered index. SELECT [Project2].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Project2].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Project2].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Project2].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Project2].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Project2].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Project2].[C1] AS [C1], [Project2].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Project2].[ClientKey1] AS [ClientKey1], [Project2].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Project2].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Project2].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Project2].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Project2].[City] AS [City], [Project2].[State] AS [State], [Project2].[ZIP] AS [ZIP] FROM ( SELECT [Distinct1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Distinct1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Distinct1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Distinct1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Distinct1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Distinct1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Extent3].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Extent3].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey1], [Extent3].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Extent3].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Extent3].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Extent3].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Extent3].[City] AS [City], [Extent3].[State] AS [State], [Extent3].[ZIP] AS [ZIP], CASE WHEN ([Extent3].[AddressKey] IS NULL) THEN CAST(NULL AS int) ELSE 1 END AS [C1] FROM (SELECT DISTINCT [Extent1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Extent1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Extent1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Extent1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Extent1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Extent1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate] FROM [Common].[Clients] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[ClientKey] = [Extent2].[ClientKey] WHERE (( CAST(CHARINDEX(UPPER('D'), UPPER([Extent1].[LastName])) AS int)) > 0) AND ([Extent1].[IsEnabled] = 1) AND ([Extent2].[City] IS NOT NULL) AND ((UPPER([Extent2].[City])) = (UPPER('Colorado Springs'))) ) AS [Distinct1] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent3] ON [Distinct1].[ClientKey] = [Extent3].[ClientKey] ) AS [Project2] ORDER BY [Project2].[ClientKey] ASC, [Project2].[FirstName] ASC, [Project2].[LastName] ASC, [Project2].[IsEnabled] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeUser] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeDate] ASC, [Project2].[C1] ASC

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  • Laravel4: Checking many-to-many relationship attribute even when it does not exist

    - by Simo A.
    This is my first time with Laravel and also Stackoverflow... I am developing a simple course management system. The main objects are User and Course, with a many-to-many relationship between them. The pivot table has an additional attribute, participant_role, which defines whether the user is a student or an instructor within that particular course. class Course extends Eloquent { public function users() { return $this->belongsToMany('User')->withPivot('participant_role')->withTimestamps(); } } However, there is an additional role, system admin, which can be defined on the User object. And this brings me mucho headache. In my blade view I have the following: @if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something here... } This works fine when the user has been assigned to that particular $course and there is an entry for this user-course combination in the pivot table. However, the problem is the system administrator, who also should be able to access course details. The if-clause above gives Trying to get property of non-object error, apparently because there is no entry in the pivot table for system administrator (as the role is defined within the User object). I could probably solve the problem by using some off-the-shelf bundle for handling role-based permissions. Or I could (but don't want to) do something like this with two internal if-clauses: if (!empty($course->pivot)) { if ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') { // do something... } } Other options (suggested in partially similar entries in Stackoverflow) would include 1) reading all the pivot table entries to an array, and use in_array to check if a role exists, or even 2) SQL left join to do this on database level. However, ultimately I am looking for a compact one-line solution? Can I do anything similar to this, which unfortunately does not seem to work? if (! empty ($course->pivot->participant_role == 'instructor') ) { // do something... } The shorter the answer, the better :-). Thanks a lot!

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  • HTTP 401.3 when PUT, DELETE to ADO.NET Data Service (.svc)

    - by Nate
    I have an ADO.NET Data Service (we'll call it service.svc). When I deploy it to an IIS 6 site with Integrated Windows Authentication turned on, all requests (GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE) work fine for me, because I am an administrator on the box. However, when a non-admin user hits the service, only GET and POST requests work. When they try a PUT or DELETE request, they get an HTTP 401.3 "Access is Denied" error: "Error message 401.3: You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials you supplied (access denied due to Access Control Lists). Ask the web server's administrator to give you access to '...\service.svc'." If I give the "Authenticated Users" local group write access to the .svc file, everything works as it should, but I really don't want to do this (and don't think I should have to do this to get this to work). In fact, I'm confused as to why changing the file permissions would affect this at all, but it definitely seems to be the problem. I've found a couple of different suggestions to fix somewhat similar problems in the Microsoft forums (Here, and I would post more links, but am being told that new users can only post one link in a post), but none of the solutions help. Any help is much appreciated. I am certainly no IIS expert, and this one has got me stumped.

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • Is Storing Cookies in a Database Safe?

    - by viatropos
    If I use mechanize, I can, for instance, create a new google analytics profile for a website. I do this by programmatically filling out the login form and storing the cookies in the database. Then, for at least until the cookie expires, I can access my analytics admin panel without having to enter my username and password again. Assuming you can't create a new analytics profile any other way (with OpenAuth or any of that, I don't think it works for actually creating a new Google Analytics profile, the Analytics API is for viewing the data, but I need to create an new analytics profile), is storing the cookie in the database a bad thing? If I do store the cookie in the database, it makes it super easy to programatically login to Google Analytics without the user ever having to go to the browser (maybe the app has functionality that says "user, you can schedule a hook that creates a new anaytics profile for each new domain you create, just enter your credentials once and we'll keep you logged in and safe"). Otherwise I have to keep transferring around emails and passwords which seems worse. So is storing cookies in the database safe?

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  • Windows "forms" authentication - <deny users="?"> redirecting to foreign page!

    - by Erik5388
    Like the title states - I have a web.config file that looks like, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="login" protection="All" timeout="30" loginUrl="login" defaultUrl="~/"> <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="admin" password="password" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration> I want to do exactly what it says it should do... I want to deny all users who try to enter the site. It works however, it redirects to a "Account/Login?ReturnUrl=%2flogin" url I have never heard of... Is there a place I can change this?

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  • SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

    - by Mel Lota
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

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  • Active Directory Incorrect password attempts double counting

    - by Hidayath
    Hi I am using the following C# code to connect to active directory and validate the login, DirectoryEntry de = new DirectoryEntry(); string username = "myuser", path = "LDAP://addev2.dev.mycompany.com/CN=myuser,DC=dev,DC=mycompany,DC=com", password = "test"; for (int i = 0; i < 4;i++ ) { try { de.AuthenticationType = AuthenticationTypes.Sealing | AuthenticationTypes.Secure | AuthenticationTypes.FastBind; de.Username = username; de.Password = password; de.Path = path; //de.RefreshCache(); Object obj = de.NativeObject; } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } this works fine when the password is correct. However when the password is incorrect this shows as 2 invalid attempts in AD. So what happens is when the AD admin allows 5 invalid attempts the user is locked out on the 3rd attempt. when i look in the AD's event log 1 see 2 entries. 1)Pre-authentication failed: 2)Logon attempt by: MICROSOFT_AUTHENTICATION_PACKAGE_V1_0 Logon account: [email protected] Source Workstation: WKSXXXX Error Code: 0xC000006A Stepping thro the code i see 2 event entries on the line de.RefreshCache() I tried using de.NativeObject to see if that would solve the problem. No Dice Anyone have any pointers?

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