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• Troubleshooting a COM+ application deadlock

  - by Chris Karcher

  I'm trying to troubleshoot a COM+ application that deadlocks intermittently. The last time it locked up, I was able to take a usermode dump of the dllhost process and analyze it using WinDbg. After inspecting all the threads and locks, it all boils down to a critical section owned by this thread: ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0deefd00 7c822114 77e6bb08 000004d4 00000000 ntdll!KiFastSystemCallRet 0deefd04 77e6bb08 000004d4 00000000 0deefd48 ntdll!ZwWaitForSingleObject+0xc 0deefd74 77e6ba72 000004d4 00002710 00000000 kernel32!WaitForSingleObjectEx+0xac 0deefd88 75bb22b9 000004d4 00002710 00000000 kernel32!WaitForSingleObject+0x12 0deeffb8 77e660b9 000a5cc0 00000000 00000000 comsvcs!PingThread+0xf6 0deeffec 00000000 75bb21f1 000a5cc0 00000000 kernel32!BaseThreadStart+0x34 The object it's waiting on is an event: 0:016> !handle 4d4 f Handle 000004d4 Type Event Attributes 0 GrantedAccess 0x1f0003: Delete,ReadControl,WriteDac,WriteOwner,Synch QueryState,ModifyState HandleCount 2 PointerCount 4 Name <none> No object specific information available As far as I can tell, the event never gets signaled, causing the thread to hang and hold up several other threads in the process. Does anyone have any suggestions for next steps in figuring out what's going on? Now, seeing as the method is called PingThread, is it possible that it's trying to ping another thread in the process that's already deadlocked? UPDATE This actually turned out to be a bug in the Oracle 10.2.0.1 client. Although, I'm still interested in ideas on how I could have figured this out without finding the bug in Oracle's bug database.

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• UISearchDisplayController not working when created in code??

  - by Nick Bedford

  I'm working on a tab bar application and one of the tabs has a UISearchDisplayController hooked up to a UISearchBar. It's all connected up in the NIB and is working. When I tap the search bar, the Scope and Cancel buttons fly in etc, and the search delegate updates the results table correctly. However, I'm trying to implement the same code in the viewDidLoad message instead of the NIB, however when I delete the search display controller from the NIB and uncomment my code to create the same controller in the function, it doesn't work. It's as if there's some fundamental connection not being made so that all my search delegate functionality isn't being called. Here's my working NIB version of the Search Display Controller. It's hooked up to the search bar, the UINavigationController subclass (MASearchController) and the root view of that is hooked up as the searchContentsController. Now this is what you would expect to do in code to create the same, right? What I'm doing is leaving the UISearchBar in the NIB to eliminate one piece of the puzzle at a time in code. // [MASearchController viewDidLoad] UISearchDisplayController *searchController = [[[UISearchDisplayController alloc] initWithSearchBar:searchBar contentsController:[[self viewControllers] objectAtIndex:0]] autorelease]; [searchController setDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDataSource:self]; I've checked all objects at run time and they all check out. Essentially I've deleted the search display controller from the NIB and then put in the code to create it in the viewDidLoad message. Why would this not work? The search keyboard comes up but none of my search and button animation functionality work???

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• Does replace into have a where clause?

  - by Lajos Arpad

  I'm writing an application and I'm using MySQL as DBMS, we are downloading property offers and there were some performance issues. The old architecture looked like this: A property is updated. If the number of affected rows is not 1, then the update is not considered successful, elseway the update query solves our problem. If the update was not successful, and the number of affected rows is more than 1, we have duplicates and we delete all of them. After we deleted duplicates if needed if the update was not successful, an insert happens. This architecture was working well, but there were some speed issues, because properties are deleted if they were not updated for 15 days. Theoretically the main problem is deleting properties, because some properties are alive for months and the indexes are very far from each other (we are talking about 500, 000+ properties). Our host told me to use replace into instead of deleting properties and all deprecated properties should be considered as DEAD. I've done this, but problems started to occur because of syntax error and I couldn't find anywhere an example of replace into with a where clause (I'd like to replace a DEAD property with the new property instead of deleting the old property and insert a new to assure optimization). My query looked like this: replace into table_name(column1, ..., columnn) values(value1, ..., valuen) where ID = idValue Of course, I've calculated idValue and handled everything but I had a syntax error. I would like to know if I'm wrong and there is a where clause for replace into. I've found an alternative solution, which is even better than replace into (using simply an update query) because deletes are happening behind the curtains if I use replace into, but I would like to know if I'm wrong when I say that replace into doesn't have a where clause. For more reference, see this link: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/replace.html Thank you for your answers in advance, Lajos Árpád

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• "Cannot open user default database" error with "User Instance=True"

  - by Keith

  I have a desktop application that uses Sql user instancing. This is my connection string: "Data Source=.\SqlExpress; AttachDbFilename=C:\path\file.mdf; Integrated Security=True; User Instance=True; Connect Timeout=100;" My application creates this DB, downloads a load of data into it from a web service and then does a lot of actions with it. The problem comes when I attempt to re-open the connection. I get a SqlException: "Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'myDomain\myusername'." This error makes no sense in this context - I have no default database. I'm logging in to an instance created just for the current application, running separately from SqlExpress. There's no other way to connect to this DB. If I start the SqlExpress service and connect to the default instance it won't be visible. It only exists for this application. The file on disk is locked by the SqlExpress instance service running under the application. if I stop the app and restart it the connection works first time, but fails on re-opening. If I just stop the app I can delete the .mdf files and begin again, but it still crashes when I re-open the connection. As my app started the instance running as me my current user should have access to every DB in the instance. This doesn't happen for other users of the same code, which suggests that it's a SQL config issue. Does anyone have any idea what causes this and how to work around it?

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• Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

  - by Keith Barrows

  I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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• Reference for proper handling of PID file on Unix

  - by bignose

  Where can I find a well-respected reference that details the proper handling of PID files on Unix? On Unix operating systems, it is common practice to “lock” a program (often a daemon) by use of a special lock file: the PID file. This is a file in a predictable location, often ‘/var/run/foo.pid’. The program is supposed to check when it starts up whether the PID file exists and, if the file does exist, exit with an error. So it's a kind of advisory, collaborative locking mechanism. The file contains a single line of text, being the numeric process ID (hence the name “PID file”) of the process that currently holds the lock; this allows an easy way to automate sending a signal to the process that holds the lock. What I can't find is a good reference on expected or “best practice” behaviour for handling PID files. There are various nuances: how to actually lock the file (don't bother? use the kernel? what about platform incompatibilities?), handling stale locks (silently delete them? when to check?), when exactly to acquire and release the lock, and so forth. Where can I find a respected, most-authoritative reference (ideally on the level of W. Richard Stevens) for this small topic?

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• Numeric Data Entry in WPF

  - by Matt Hamilton

  How are you handling the entry of numeric values in WPF applications? Without a NumericUpDown control, I've been using a TextBox and handling its PreviewKeyDown event with the code below, but it's pretty ugly. Has anyone found a more graceful way to get numeric data from the user without relying on a third-party control?private void NumericEditPreviewKeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { bool isNumPadNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.NumPad0 && e.Key <= Key.NumPad9) || e.Key == Key.Decimal; bool isNumeric = (e.Key >= Key.D0 && e.Key <= Key.D9) || e.Key == Key.OemPeriod; if ((isNumeric || isNumPadNumeric) && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None) { e.Handled = true; return; } bool isControl = ((Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.None && Keyboard.Modifiers != ModifierKeys.Shift) || e.Key == Key.Back || e.Key == Key.Delete || e.Key == Key.Insert || e.Key == Key.Down || e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right || e.Key == Key.Up || e.Key == Key.Tab || e.Key == Key.PageDown || e.Key == Key.PageUp || e.Key == Key.Enter || e.Key == Key.Return || e.Key == Key.Escape || e.Key == Key.Home || e.Key == Key.End); e.Handled = !isControl && !isNumeric && !isNumPadNumeric; }

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• What sorting algorithm is this?

  - by Mike

  Hi, I have a sorting algorithm as follows. My question is, which sorting algorithm is this? I thought it was bubble sort, but it does not do multiple runs. Any idea? Thanks! //sorting in descending order struct node { int value; node* NEXT; } //Assume HEAD pointer denotes the first element in the //linked list // only change the values…don’t have to change the //pointers Sort( Node *Head) { node* first,second,temp; first= Head; while(first!=null) { second=first->NEXT; while(second!=null) { if(first->value < second->value) { temp = new node(); temp->value=first->value; first->value=second->value; second->value=temp->value; delete temp; } second=second->NEXT; } first=first->NEXT; } }

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• Doubts About Core Data NSManagedObject Deep Copy

  - by Jigzat

  Hello everyone, I have a situation where I must copy one NSManagedObject from the main context into an editing context. It sounds unnecessary to most people as I have seen in similar situations described in Stackoverflow but I looks like I need it. In my app there are many views in a tab bar and every view handles different information that is related to the other views. I think I need multiple MOCs since the user may jump from tab to tab and leave unsaved changes in some tab but maybe it saves data in some other tab/view so if that happens the changes in the rest of the views are saved without user consent and in the worst case scenario makes the app crash. For adding new information I got away by using an adding MOC and then merging changes in both MOCs but for editing is not that easy. I saw a similar situation here in Stackoverflow but the app crashes since my data model doesn't seem to use NSMutableSet for the relationships (I don't think I have a many-to-many relationship, just one-to-many) I think it can be modified so I can retrieve the relationships as if they were attributes for (NSString *attr in relationships) { [cloned setValue:[source valueForKey:attr] forKey:attr]; } but I don't know how to merge the changes of the cloned and original objects. I think I could just delete the object from the main context, then merge both contexts and save changes in the main context but I don't know if is the right way to do it. I'm also concerned about database integrity since I'm not sure that the inverse relationships will keep the same reference to the cloned object as if it were the original one. Can some one please enlighten me about this?

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• Error when calling Mysql Stored procedure

  - by devuser

  This is my stored procedure to search throgh all databases,tables and columns. This procedure got created with out any error. DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS mydb.get_table$$ CREATE DEFINER=root@% PROCEDURE get_table(in_search varchar(50)) READS SQL DATA BEGIN DECLARE trunc_cmd VARCHAR(50); DECLARE search_string VARCHAR(250); DECLARE db,tbl,clmn CHAR(50); DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE COUNTER INT; DECLARE table_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT concat('SELECT COUNT(*) INTO @CNT_VALUE FROM ', table_schema,'.', table_name, ' WHERE ', column_name,' REGEXP ''',in_search,'''' ) ,table_schema,table_name,column_name FROM information_schema.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA NOT IN ('mydb','information_schema'); DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done=1; #Truncating table for refill the data for new search. PREPARE trunc_cmd FROM 'TRUNCATE TABLE temp_details'; EXECUTE trunc_cmd ; OPEN table_cur; table_loop:LOOP FETCH table_cur INTO search_string,db,tbl,clmn; #Executing the search SET @search_string = search_string; SELECT search_string; PREPARE search_string FROM @search_string; EXECUTE search_string; SET COUNTER = @CNT_VALUE; SELECT COUNTER; IF COUNTER0 THEN # Inserting required results from search to table INSERT INTO temp_details VALUES(db,tbl,clmn); END IF; IF done=1 THEN LEAVE table_loop; END IF; END LOOP; CLOSE table_cur; #Finally Show Results SELECT * FROM temp_details; END$$ DELIMITER ; But when calling this procedure following error occurs. call get_table('aaa') Error Code : 1064 You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'delete REGEXP 'aaa'' at line 1 (0 ms taken)

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• ASP.NET MVC Image refreshing

  - by user295541

  Hi, I have an Employee object which has an image property. Image class contains image metadata as image caption, and image file name. If I upload a new image for an employee on async way without full post back the new image is not appeared on the page. I use GUID to name the image file to avoid the page caching. I do the image modifying the following way: ctrEmployee employee = Repository.Get(PassedItemID); if (employee.ctrImage != null) { string fullFileName = serverFolder + employee.ctrImage.FileName; FileInfo TheFile = new FileInfo(fullFileName); if (TheFile.Exists) { TheFile.Delete(); } fileName = Guid.NewGuid() + ".jpg"; employee.ctrImage.FileName = fileName; } resizedBmp.Save(string.Format("{0}{1}", serverFolder, fileName), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); Repository.Edit<ctrEmployee>(employee); ImageID = employee.Image.Value; return PartialView(UserControlPaths.Thumbnail, new ThumbnailDataModel(employee.Image.Value, 150, 150)); The partial view has an image tag which gets the saved image url string which is a GUID. Anybody has an idea what I do wrong?

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• Cron Job on Ubuntu Hardy Executing But Not Deleting Files As Expected

  - by Patrick McKenzie

  I have a bit of a pickle here and wonder if anyone can give me some pointers: I have a cron job which executes for a particular user daily and is supposed to sweep files in a particular directory. Technically, it is two jobs. I've turned on cron.log to verify they're actually executing, and they are: May 24 11:03:01 AppNameGoesHere /USR/SBIN/CRON[11257]: (mongrel_AppNameGoesHere) CMD (rm -rf /var/www/apps/AppNameGoesHere/current/public/ {popular,index,purchasing,purchasing-alternate,support,about-us,guarantee,screenshots}.htm{,l}) May 24 11:04:01 AppNameGoesHere /USR/SBIN/CRON[11260]: (mongrel_AppNameGoesHere) CMD (rm -rf /var/www/apps/AppNameGoesHere/current/public/ {stats,popular,bcf,articles,expenses}) I have removed the actual usernames and formatted it so that it is less ugly on StackOverflow. Now, my question: Despite the fact that I can see these deletions executing and apparently succeeding in the log, if I go to the specified directory, the files are still there. I initially suspected permission hijinx were going on, but I've verified that I can delete the files manually by su-ing into the mongrel_AppNameGoesHere user and issuing individual rm commands or by copy/pasting the cron job to the command line. Anything that I don't manually zap stays unzapped despite days of that cron job executing successfully. Any suggestions on to what might be happening? I was previously using Dapper Drake with these cron jobs in the /etc/crontab file directly, and when I upgraded to Hardy I moved them to user-specific crontabs (via sudo crontab -e - u mongrel_AppNameGoesHere), which was the point where they appear to have stopped working.)

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Mechanics behind an Order / Order Line in a edit form

  - by Dr. Zim

  In this question I am looking for links/code to handle an IList<OrderLine> in an MVC 2 edit form. Specifically I am interested in sending a complete order to the client, then posting the edited order back to an object (to persist) using: Html.EditorFor(m = m.orderlines[i]) (where orderlines is an enumerable object) Editing an Order that has multiple order lines (two tables, Order and OrderLine, one to many) is apparently difficult. Is there any links/examples/patterns out there to advise how to create this form that edits an entity and related entities in a single form (in C# MVC 2)? The IList is really throwing me for a loop. Should I have it there (while still having one form to edit one order)? How could you use the server side factory to create a blank OrderLine in the form while not posting the entire form back to the server? I am hoping we don't treat the individual order lines with individual save buttons, deletes, etc. (for example, they may open an order, delete all the lines, then click cancel, which shouldn't have altered the order itself in either the repository nor the database. Example classes: public class ViewModel { public Order order {get;set;} // Only one order } public class Order { public int ID {get;set;} // Order Identity public string name {get;set;} public IList<OrderLine> orderlines {get;set;} // Order has multiple lines } public class OrderLine { public int orderID {get;set;} // references Order ID above public int orderLineID {get;set;} // Order Line identity (need?) public Product refProduct {get;set;} // Product value object public int quantity {get;set;} // How many we want public double price {get;set;} // Current sale price }

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• Problem Activating Sharepoint Timer Job

  - by Ben Robinson

  I have created a very simple sharepoint timer job. All i want it to do is iterate through a list and update each list item so that it triggers an existing workflow that works fine. In other words all i am trying to do is work around the limitation that workflows cannot be triggered on a scheduled basis. I have written a class that inherits from SPJobDefinition that does the work and i have a class that inherits from SPFeatureReceiver to install and activate it. I have created the feature using SPVisualdev that my coleagues have used in the past for other SP development. My Job class is below: public class DriverSafetyCheckTrigger : SPJobDefinition { private string pi_SiteUrl; public DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(string SiteURL, SPWebApplication WebApp):base("DriverSafetyCheckTrigger",WebApp,null, SPJobLockType.Job) { this.Title = "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger"; pi_SiteUrl = SiteURL; } public override void Execute(Guid targetInstanceId) { using (SPSite siteCollection = new SPSite(pi_SiteUrl)) { using (SPWeb site = siteCollection.RootWeb) { SPList taskList = site.Lists["Driver Safety Check"]; foreach(SPListItem item in taskList.Items) { item.Update(); } } } } } And the only thing in the feature reciever class is that i have overridden the FeatureActivated method below: public override void FeatureActivated(SPFeatureReceiverProperties Properties) { SPSite site = Properties.Feature.Parent as SPSite; // Make sure the job isn't already registered. foreach (SPJobDefinition job in site.WebApplication.JobDefinitions) { if (job.Name == "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger") job.Delete(); } // Install the job. DriverSafetyCheckTrigger oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger = new DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(site.Url, site.WebApplication); SPDailySchedule oSchedule = new SPDailySchedule(); oSchedule.BeginHour = 1; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Schedule = oSchedule; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(); } The problem i have is that when i try to activate the feature it throws a NullReferenceException on the line oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(). I am not sure what is null in this case, the example i have followed for this is this tutorial. I am not sure what I am doing wrong.

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• How to Disable/Enable WYSIWYG editor in Magento 1.4

  - by latvian

  Hi When entering code in CMS static block(possible page as well) and in this code there is empty DIV tags such us: <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"><div class="dropoff_button"></div></a> The DIV tags will be gone next time you open the block to edit. it will look as this <a href="javascript:hide1(),show2(),hide3()"> </a> without the div tags ...and saving again it modifies your code. I think it something to do with the 'show/hide editor'. By default it goes into the WYSIWYG editor, so when updating static block i don't see any other solution than 1."hide the editor' by clicking 'show/hide editor' 2.delete the old code from the editor 3. get code that doesn't miss the DIVs 4. Merge new code with code in 3 in some other editing software than magento 5. paste result in the magento editor, 6. Save Is this bug? What is your solution? Can i turn of WYSIWYG editor?

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• DataGridView in VB.net will not allow me to update

  - by Marc

  I have a datagridview with a dataTable as the dataSource. The user can add new rows to the datadridview, but I dont display the primary key column (for obvious reasons) and set it to .visible = false. When I need to update the information in the datagridview to the database, I use the sqlClient.SqlCommandBuilder to then update the underlying datasource (the dataTable mentioned above). Now, because the hidden column is the primary key, I loop through the datagridview and programically add the required primary key field to each new row that does not already contain a primary key (user added rows). This works great 95% of the time... The problem is when the user somehow gives focus at some point (any point) to that bottom row on the datagridview, below their added rows, that is used to add new rows. The update command gives me an error stating that it cannot insert null into the primary key field, even though when checking all the values in every row, it is definitely NOT null for any of them. I have tried to trap for row.isNewRow (as the field never shows null) and deleting that row, but I get an error stating I can not delete an uncommitted row. If the focus is never given to that empty row beneath the existing rows and user added rows, the update works fine. What is going on?!

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• Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

  - by driAn

  Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

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• subsonic . navigate among records ,view,query

  - by gmo camilo

  hello everybody i'm some newbie in this matter of .net i'm trying understand this new paradigm i began with linq for SQl but i found this library, kind of framework of T4 more specifically: subsonic T4 i think it could be very usefull but the support docs outside are very scarce my first intention is use them in the very simple form: a catalog lets say... Users so... how can i use the model generated with subsonic ( using the iactiverecord) to implement the record-navigational part.,...???!!! i mean i want a simple form to create, delete or modify records and that is fairy easy but what about to move among records ? i found how to get the first, the last record.. but how can i advance or go back among them??? how can i order the records..? it seems everytime imust query the table.. its so? but how can imove among the records i already got? all of the exmples found are very simple dont touch the matter and/ or are repetitive everywhere so.. please if anybody can help me or give more references... i'd thank you a lot gmo camilo

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• edmx - The operation could not be completed - After adding Inheritance

  - by vdh_ant

  Hey guys I have an edmx model which I have draged 2 tables onto - One called 'File' and the other 'ApplicaitonFile'. These two tables have a 1 to 1 relationship in the database. If I stop here everything works fine. But in my model, I want 'ApplicaitonFile' to inherit from 'File'. So I delete the 1 to 1 relationship then configure 'ApplicaitonFile' from 'File' and then remove the FileId from 'ApplicaitonFile' which was the primary key. (Note I am following the instructions from here). If I leave the model open at this point everything is fine, but as soon as I close it, if I try and reopen it again I get the following error "The operation could not be completed". I have been searching for a solution and found this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/944050/entity-model-does-not-load but as far as I can tell I don't have a duplicate InheritanceConnectors (although I don't know exactly what I'm looking for but I can't see anything out of the ordinary - like 2 connectors with the same name) and the relationship I originally have is a 1 to 1 not a 1 to 0..1 Any ideas???

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• Accessing Attributes in a Many-to-Many

  - by tshauck

  Hi, I have a rails app and I'd like to be able to do something like task.labels.first.label_name to get the label name of a task. However, I get an undefined method label_name. I did a t = Task.first; t.labels.first.label_name in the console, and that worked so I'm not sure what's going on. Here's the models then the locations of the error: class Categorization < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :label belongs_to :task end class Label < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :label_name has_many :categorizations has_many :tasks, :through => :categorizations end class Task < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :task has_many :categorizations has_many :labels, :through => :categorizations end The error is in the index <% for task in @tasks %> <tr> <td><%= task.task %></td> <td><%= task.labels.first.label_name %></td> <td><%= link_to "Show", task %></td> <td><%= link_to "Edit", edit_task_path(task) %></td> <td><%= link_to "Destroy", task, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %></td> </tr> <% end %

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• Versioning SharePoint binary Workflow ASPX task forms

  - by Janis Veinbergs

  Hello. As noted by some developers, workflow versioning is somekind of headache in SharePoint. I`m wondering is there a way I can version my aspx forms? For sure, i can version code behind assemblies, but if markup changes for any of my files in LAYOUTS folder? Is there versioning available for files or do i have to choose new filename for my form? Sorry, i should have been more specific. Yes, i have files under version control (i can restore previous versions etc), but i`m not talking about this kind of version control. But by deploying new Workflow Version, i must not delete old one, because it is still running on many items in SharePoint, but rather , as noted in previous links, deploy new one so i don't break execution of workflows. But workflows will still break if i don't preserve old aspx forms used by users to interact with workflows. So i must ensure that Assemblies with old version numbers used by old workflow exists (this one is ok, i just changed assembly version number and deployed to GAC) I must ensure that old workflow still uses old aspx form used users to interact with workflow, but new workflow version should use new aspx form with more options (how to do this?).

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• why DbCommandBuilder (Oracle) produces weird WHERE-clause to UpdateCommand in C# / ADO.NET 2.0?

  - by matti

  I have a table HolidayHome in oracle db which has unique db index on Id (I haven't specified this in the code in any way for adapter/table/dataset, don't know if i should/can). DbDataAdapter.SelectCommand is like this: SELECT Id, ExtId, Label, Location1, Location2, Location3, Location4, ClassId, X, Y, UseType FROM HolidayHome but UpdateCommand generated by DbCommandBuilder has very weird where clause: UPDATE HOLIDAYHOME SET ID = :p1, EXTID = :p2, LABEL = :p3, LOCATION1 = :p4, LOCATION2 = :p5, LOCATION3 = :p6, LOCATION4 = :p7, CLASSID = :p8, X = :p9, Y = :p10, USETYPE = :p11 WHERE ((ID = :p12) AND ((:p13 = 1 AND EXTID IS NULL) OR (EXTID = :p14)) AND ((:p15 = 1 AND LABEL IS NULL) OR (LABEL = :p16)) AND ((:p17 = 1 AND LOCATION1 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION1 = :p18)) AND ((:p19 = 1 AND LOCATION2 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION2 = :p20)) AND ((:p21 = 1 AND LOCATION3 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION3 = :p22)) AND ((:p23 = 1 AND LOCATION4 IS NULL) OR (LOCATION4 = :p24)) AND (CLASSID = :p25) AND (X = :p26) AND (Y = :p27) AND (USETYPE = :p28)) the code is like this: static bool CreateInsertUpdateDeleteCmds(DbDataAdapter dataAdapter) { DbCommandBuilder builder = _trgtProvFactory.CreateCommandBuilder(); builder.DataAdapter = dataAdapter; // Get the insert, update and delete commands. dataAdapter.InsertCommand = builder.GetInsertCommand(); dataAdapter.UpdateCommand = builder.GetUpdateCommand(); dataAdapter.DeleteCommand = builder.GetDeleteCommand(); } what to do? The UpdateCommand is utter madness. Thanks & Best Regards: Matti

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• c# (wcf) architecture file and directory structure (and instantiation)

  - by stevenrosscampbell

  Hello and thanks for any assistance. I have a wcf service that I'm trying to properly modularize. I'm interested in finding out if there is a better way or implementing the file and directory structure along with instanciatation, is there a more appropriate way of abstraction that I may be missing? Is this the best approach? especially if performance and the ability to handle thousands of simultanious request? Currently I have this following structure: -Root\Service.cs public class Service : IService { public void CreateCustomer(Customer customer) { CustomerService customerService = new CustomerService(); customerService.Create(customer); } public void UpdateCustomer(Customer customer) { CustomerService customerService = new CustomerService(); customerService.Update(customer); } } -Root\Customer\CustomerService.cs pulbic class CustomerService { public void Create(Customer customer) { //DO SOMETHING } public void Update(Customer customer) { //DO SOMETHING } public void Delete(int customerId) { //DO SOMETHING } public Customer Retrieve(int customerId) { //DO SOMETHING } } Note: I do not include the Customer Object or the DataAccess libraries in this example as I am only concerned about the service. If you could either let me know what you think, if you know a better way, or a resource that could help out. Thanks Kindly. Steven

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• SSL certificate exception problem in Firefox

  - by Baztoune

  Hi there, and thanks in advance for your help or any tip that could get me out of here. I work on a JEE app with a JBoss server and an Apache. I'm not really familiar with SSL connections and certificates, I understand the basic, but I have to deal with it. So on my local configuration (localhost) I have my connection certificate configured on JBoss and Apache, and a USER_DEV.P12 file, which I import in my certificates in Firefox. I have the same configuration on a distant test server (test-server), and a USER_TEST.P12 which I also import in Firefox. When I access https://localhost/ or https://test-server/ Firefox asks me to add an exception, which is normal. After that, I select the appropriated user certificate, and can use my application normally. But for the second (let's say https://test-server/), Firefox rises me a sec_error_reused_issuer_and_serial error. Of course I googled it and founded the Mozilla help, So when I delete the "server" in my certificate manager, I can access again my second domain, but the same problem occurs for the first one. To shorten the problem, my 2 client/server certificate couples are OK but I can't have 2 certificate exceptions at the same time in Firefox for my 2 different servers/users, even though the names, server address, and MD5 are different. I notified the serial is the same (01), but it's working on my colleague's computer. So am I doing something wrong? Do I have to deal with it manually each time (or with Firefox profiles)? Thanks for your help. Bastien.

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• SVN commit using cruise control

  - by pratap

  hi all, i am using cruise control to automate the svn commit process. but the execution of svn commit command restores the files which i deleted from my working copy. the way i am doing is. 1. delete some files in my working copy.( no. of files in my WC is less than no. of files in repository) 2. execute svn command using cruise control. <exec executable="svn.exe"> <buildArgs>ci -m "test msg" --no-auth-cache --non-interactive</buildArgs> <buildTimeoutSeconds>1000</buildTimeoutSeconds> </exec> result: the deleted files are restored in my WC... Can someone help me in figuring out where i have gone wrong... or if i have to do some changes / configurations... thank u all. regards. uday

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