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• What is the best approach to embed mp4 for the iPhone without using JavaScript?

  - by usingtechnology

  I am trying to troubleshoot this code and am running into a dead-end, so I thought I would ask my first question here. I have three questions: 1) What is the best approach to embed an mp4 for an iPhone specific view, preferably without using Javascript? 2) Are there any preferred practices to debug code on an iPhone? 3) Can anyone tell me what is wrong with my specific code below? I should mention upfront that the variable $fileName does indeed contain the correct info, I've just omitted that portion of the code. Also, the poster image does flicker for a brief moment before I receive the greyed out, broken QuickTime image so that is an indication that this is partially working. Code: <object width="448" height="335" classid="clsid:02BF25D5-8C17-4B23-BC80-D3488ABDDC6B" codebase="http://www.apple.com/qtactivex/qtplugin.cab"> <param name="src" value="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" /> <param name="href" value="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" /> <param name="target" value="myself" /> <param name="controller" value="true" /> <param name="autoplay" value="false" /> <param name="scale" value="aspect" /> <embed src="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" href="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" type="video/mp4" target="myself" width="448" height="335" scale="aspect" controller="false" autoplay="false"> </embed> </object>

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• Zend dubugger in eclipse - timeout everytime

  - by jax

  I am running a virtual server in the US. I am trying to get my eclipse machine at home (outside the USA), to connect to the USA server. I have setup Zend on the server. When I run phpinfo() I get the following zend output. Note: 1.2.3.4 will be the external WAN IP address of my ADSL router at home. Directive Local Value Master Value zend_debugger.allow_hosts 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 127.0.0.1,1.2.3.4 zend_debugger.allow_tunnel no value no value zend_debugger.deny_hosts no value no value zend_debugger.expose_remotely always always zend_debugger.httpd_uid -1 -1 zend_debugger.max_msg_size 2097152 2097152 zend_debugger.tunnel_max_port 65535 65535 zend_debugger.tunnel_min_port 1024 1024 So zend looks like it is working ok on the server side. When I run a debug session and select 'Test Debugger' I get a timeout every time. I have already added dummy.php to the root folder of the server. In 'installed debuggers' I double clicked on Zend and have put my external WAN IP address. I noticed that the port is 10000, I also have webmin running on this port on the server, will there be a conflict?

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• Change URL Submitted to Depending on Form Selection

  - by Chris

  I have a form which I need to submit to one of three different URLs depending on a selection made in the form. I suspect the easiest solution is to use jQuery to insert the appropriate path before the rest of the form parameters as the selection is made, but not sure on what the code would be. Any pointers greratly appreciated! <form id="myForm" action='/booking/default-path' accept-charset='utf-8' method='get'> <select name="paramA" id="paramA"> <option id="optionA" value="A" selected="selected">Option A</option> <option id="optionB" value="B">Option B</option> </select> <select name="currency" id="currency"> <option id="GBP" value="GBP" selected="selected">British Pounds</option> <option id="EUR" value="EUR">Euros</option> <option id="USD" value="USD">US Dollars</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="submit" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> Where the three different URLs would be: ../booking/default-path-gbp?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-eur?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-usd?...[params here]... I know it would be a lot easier to incorporate the parameter in the usual way and just use one submission URL root, but unfortunately I'm submitting to an eComms system out of my control and am stuck with having to find a solution to this. Should be easy I think, but not sure where to start, jQuery used elsewhere, so would prefer to use this framework in any solutions.

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• Recursion Problem in PHP

  - by streetparade

  I need to create a valid xml from a given array(); My Method looks like this, protected function array2Xml($array) { $xml = ""; if(is_array($array)) { foreach($array as $key=>$value) { $xml .= "<$key>"; if(is_array($value)) { $xml .= $this->array2Xml($value); } $xml .= "</$key>"; } return $xml; } else { throw new Exception("in valid"); } } protected function createValidXMLfromArray($array,$node) { $xml = '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?>'; $xmlArray = $this->array2Xml($array); $xml .= "<$node>$xmlArray</$node>"; return $xml; } if i execute the above i just get keys with empty values; like <node> <name></name> </node> What i need is if i pass this array("name"=>"test","value"=>array("test1"=>33,"test2"=>40)); that it return this <node> <name>test</name> <value> <test1>33</test1> <test2>40</test2> </value> </node> Where is the error what did i wrong in the above recursion?

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• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

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• Find all radio groups which haven't been selected

  - by nickf

  I have a basic quiz/survey type application I'm working on, and I'd like to give the user a prompt before they submit if they haven't answered all the questions. All the questions are multiple choice using radio buttons: <div class="question"> Q1: What is the second letter of the alphabet? <div class="choices"> <input type="radio" name="question_1" value="1" /> A <input type="radio" name="question_1" value="2" /> B <input type="radio" name="question_1" value="3" /> C </div> </div> <div class="question"> Q2: Which out of these is a berry? <div class="choices"> <input type="radio" name="question_2" value="1" /> Apples <input type="radio" name="question_2" value="2" /> Bananas <input type="radio" name="question_2" value="3" /> Carrots </div> </div> <div class="question"> ...etc How do you find which groups haven't got an option ticked? Or at least, if there are any which haven't been answered? jQuery is ok, and even preferred.

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• Another php array looping question

  - by Dan

  Been battling with this one for what seems, like forever. I have an array: $url_array It contains this info: Array ( [ppp] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 46660 [entity_id] => 0 [redirect_url] => http://www.google.com [type] => Image ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 52662 [entity_id] => 0 [pixel_redirect_url] => http://www.yahoo.com [type] => Image ) [2] => stdClass Object ( [id] => 53877 [entity_id] => 0 [redirect_url] => http://www.msn.com [pixel_type] => Image ) ) [total_count] => 3 ) I need to loop through it, and do things to each variable. I can get this to work: foreach ($piggies_array as $key => $value) { $id = $value[0]->id; $redirect_url = $value[0]->redirect_url; } Not unsurprisingly, it's only echoing the first value of those variables, but no matter what I try I cannot get it to loop through: $value->redirect_url; $value=>redirect_url; I would appreciate any help.

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• Sequential searching with sorted linked lists

  - by John Graveston

  struct Record_node* Sequential_search(struct Record_node *List, int target) { struct Record_node *cur; cur = List->head ; if(cur == NULL || cur->key >= target) { return NULL; } while(cur->next != NULL) { if(cur->next->key >= target) { return cur; } cur = cur->next; } return cur; } I cannot interpret this pseudocode. Can anybody explain to me how this program works and flows? Given this pseudocode that searches for a value in a linked list and a list that is in an ascending order, what would this program return? a. The largest value in the list that is smaller than target b. The largest value in the list that is smaller than or same as target c. The smallest value in the list that is larger than or same as target d. Target e. The smallest value in the list that is larger than target And say that List is [1, 2, 4, 5, 9, 20, 20, 24, 44, 69, 70, 71, 74, 77, 92] and target 15, how many comparisons are occurred? (here, comparison means comparing the value of target)

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• jquery how to determine event triggered with .trigger() or with .event()

  - by Tony_M

  I have a selectbox. <select onchange="javascript:changePropertyDropdown('3','0','0','1',this.value,'80','50'); hideCart()" size="1" class="inputbox" id="property_id_prd_3_0_1" name="property_id_prd_3_0_1[]"> <option selected="selected" value="0">Select an option</option> <option value="1">38</option> <option value="2">40</option> <option value="3">42</option> <option value="4">43</option> </select> and some button which triggered change event for selectbox : $('div.attribute_wrapper select').bind('cascadeSelect',function(e, pAttr){ $(this).val(pAttr); }); Call it like this (prodAttr come with ajax): $('div.productImgGallery img').click(function(){ $('div.attribute_wrapper select').trigger('change'); }; $('div.attribute_wrapper select').change(function(){ $(this).trigger('cascadeSelect',prodAttr); }); When i call it like this, hideCart() function fires too. I need to call function changePropertyDropdown() only whith .trigger(), and changePropertyDropdown() + hideCart() on change event. How can i do this ?

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• Select hidden input from within next td [jQuery]

  - by Fverswijver

  I have a table layed out like this: <td> somename </td> <td class="hoverable value" > somevalue </td> <td class="changed"> </td> <td class="original value"> <input type="hidden" value="somevalue" /> </td> And what I'm trying to do is, I hover over the hoverable td which turns it into a textbox. Once I hover out I want to check the hidden field for it's original value and put an image in changed if the 2 are different from each other. I already have this: $(document).ready( function() { var newHTML = ''; $('table td.hoverable').hover( function () { var oldHTML = $(this).html().trim(); $(this).html('<input type=\'text\' value=\'' + oldHTML + '\' size=\'' + ((oldHTML).length + 2) +'\' />'); }, function() { newHTML = $('input', this).val(); var oldHTML = $(this).next('td.original').children('hidden').val(); if(newHTML != oldHTML) { $(this).next('td.changed').html('Changed'); } $(this).html(newHTML); }) }); but it doesn't work. What fails apparently is grabbing the value of the hidden field, and I've tried selecting it in several different ways but just can't get to it. Any ideas or tips are gratefully appreciated ;)

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• Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

  - by Rawling

  I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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• Spring Controller redirect to another page

  - by user1386375

  Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

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• ecommerce - use server side code for hidden values in an html form

  - by bsarmi

  I'm trying to learn how to implement a donation form on a website using virtual merchant. The html code from their developer manual goes like this: <form action="https://www.myvirtualmerchant.com/VirtualMerchant/process.do" method="POST"> Your Total: $5.00 <br/> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_amount" value="5.00"> <br/> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_merchant_id" value="my_virtualmerchant_ID"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_pin" value="my_PIN"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_transaction_type" value="ccsale"> <input type="hidden" name="ssl_show_form" value="false"> Credit Card Number: <input type="text" name="ssl_card_number"> <br/> Expiration Date (MMYY): <input type="text" name="ssl_exp_date" size="4"> <br/> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Continue"> </form> I have that in an html file and it works fine, but they suggest that the merchant data (the input type="hidden" values) should be in a Server Side Code. I was looking at cURL but it'a all very new to me and I spent a couple of hours trying to find some guide or some sample code on how to accomplish that. Any suggestions or help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• ARC and __unsafe_unretained

  - by J Shapiro

  I think I have a pretty good understanding of ARC and the proper use cases for selecting an appropriate lifetime qualifiers (__strong, __weak, __unsafe_unretained, and __autoreleasing). However, in my testing, I've found one example that doesn't make sense to me. As I understand it, both __weak and __unsafe_unretained do not add a retain count. Therefore, if there are no other __strong pointers to the object, it is instantly deallocated. The only difference in this process is that __weak pointers are set to nil, and __unsafe_unretained pointers are left alone. If I create a __weak pointer to a simple, custom object (composed of one NSString property), I see the expected (null) value when trying to access a property: Test * __weak myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: (null) Similarly, I would expect the __unsafe_unretained lifetime qualifier to cause a crash, due to the resulting dangling pointer. However, it doesn't. In this next test, I see the actual value: Test * __unsafe_unretained myTest = [[Test alloc] init]; myTest.myVal = @"Hi!"; NSLog(@"Value: %@", myTest.myVal); // Prints Value: Hi! Why doesn't the __unsafe_unretained object become deallocated?

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• wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

  - by Luca

  I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

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• datagridviewcomboboxcolumn with datasource issue?

  - by Sarrrva

  i have some propblem in datagridviewcombobocolumn with custom datasource property in vb.net. when i add datasource it does not populate in datagridview combobox column it giving nothing.. any one please help me out from this problem... code comboboxcell: Public Overrides Sub InitializeEditingControl(ByVal rowIndex As Integer, ByVal initialFormattedValue As Object, ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) ' Set the value of the editing control to the current cell value. MyBase.InitializeEditingControl(rowIndex, initialFormattedValue, dataGridViewCellStyle) Dim ctl As ComboEditingControl = CType(DataGridView.EditingControl, ComboEditingControl) ctl.DropDownStyle = ComboBoxStyle.DropDown ctl.AutoCompleteSource = AutoCompleteSource.ListItems ctl.AutoCompleteMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoCompleteMode.Suggest If (Me.DataGridView.Rows(rowIndex).Cells(0).Value <> Nothing) Then Dim GetValueFromRowToUseForBuildingCombo As String = Me.DataGridView.Rows(rowIndex).Cells(0).Value.ToString() ctl.Items.Clear() Dim dt As New DataTable() Try dt = TryCast(DirectCast(Me.DataGridView.Columns(ColumnIndex), ComboColumn).DataSource, DataTable) Catch ex As Exception MsgBox("error") End Try If (dt Is Nothing) Then ctl.Items.Add("") Else Dim thing As DataRow For Each thing In dt.Rows ctl.Items.Add(thing(0).ToString) Next End If If Me.Value Is Nothing Then ctl.SelectedIndex = -1 Else ctl.SelectedItem = Me.Value End If ctl.EditingControlDataGridView = Me.DataGridView End If End Sub from code: Dim widgets As New WidgetDataHandler Dim obj = widgets.GetAllWigetTypes() Dim dt As New DataTable Dim ListofmyObjects As New List(Of widget_types)(obj) Dim objList As New cObjectToTable(Of widget_types)(ListofmyObjects) dt = objList.GetTable() Dim obj1 For Each obj1 In obj blPersons.Add(obj1) Next Dim col1 As New DataGridViewTextBoxColumn col1.DisplayIndex = 0 col1.DataPropertyName = "Id" col1.HeaderText = "Id" dgvi00.Columns.Add(col1) Dim col2 As New ComboColumn col2.DisplayIndex = 1 col2.SortMode = DataGridViewColumnSortMode.Automatic col2.HeaderText = "Name" col2.DataPropertyName = "Name" col2.ToolTipText = "Select something from my combo" Dim dst As New DataSet 'Dim dt1 As New DataTable 'dt1.Columns.Add(col2.HeaderText) 'For Each thing In dt.Rows ' MsgBox(thing(1).ToString) ' dt1.Rows.Add(thing(1).ToString) 'Next dst.Tables.Add(dt) col2.DataSource = dst.Tables(0) col2.DisplayMember = "Name" Me.dgvi00.Columns.AddRange(col2) dgvi00.DataSource = blPersons.BindingSource 'setup the bindings for the binding navigator Dim bn As New _365_Media_Library.BindingNavigatorWithFilter bn.Dock = DockStyle.Bottom bn.GripStyle = ToolStripGripStyle.Hidden Me.Controls.Add(bn) bn.BindingSource = blPersons.BindingSource note : its working good in standalone application regards and thanks sarva

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• "pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

  - by dan

  So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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• Getting document.getElementsByName from another page PHP/javascript

  - by DarkN3ss

  so i have been looking around on how to do this but with no success. Im trying to get the value of the name test from an external website <input type="hidden" name="test" value="ThisIsAValue" /> But so far i have only found how to get the value of that with an ID <input type="hidden" id="test" name="test" value="ThisIsAValue" autocomplete="off" /> but I need to try find it without a ID is my problem. And this is an example on how to get it from the ID <?php $doc = new DomDocument; $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHtml(file_get_contents('http://example.com/bla.php')); var_dump($doc->getElementById('test')); ?> And i have found how to get it from name and NOT ID on the same page <script> function getElements() { var test = document.getElementsByName("test")[0].value; alert(test); } </script> But again I dont know how to get the value of it by name from an external page eg "http://example.com/bla.php", any help? Thanks

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• Are there any other ways to iterate through the attributes of a custom class, excluding the in-built ones?

  - by Ricardo Altamirano

  Is there another way to iterate through only the attributes of a custom class that are not in-built (e.g. __dict__, __module__, etc.)? For example, in this code: class Terrain: WATER = -1 GRASS = 0 HILL = 1 MOUNTAIN = 2 I can iterate through all of these attributes like this: for key, value in Terrain.__dict__.items(): print("{: <11}".format(key), " --> ", value) which outputs: MOUNTAIN --> 2 __module__ --> __main__ WATER --> -1 HILL --> 1 __dict__ --> <attribute '__dict__' of 'Terrain' objects> GRASS --> 0 __weakref__ --> <attribute '__weakref__' of 'Terrain' objects> __doc__ --> None If I just want the integer arguments (a rudimentary version of an enumerated type), I can use this: for key, value in Terrain.__dict__.items(): if type(value) is int: # type(value) == int print("{: <11}".format(key), " --> ", value) this gives the expected result: MOUNTAIN --> 2 WATER --> -1 HILL --> 1 GRASS --> 0 Is it possible to iterate through only the non-in-built attributes of a custom class independent of type, e.g. if the attributes are not all integral. Presumably I could expand the conditional to include more types, but I want to know if there are other ways I'm missing.

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• Why can't I pass an object of type T to a method on an object of type <? extends T>?

  - by Matt

  In Java, assume I have the following class Container that contains a list of class Items: public class Container<T> { private List<Item<? extends T>> items; private T value; public Container(T value) { this.value = value; } public void addItem(Item item) { items.add(item); } public void doActions() { for (Item item : items) { item.doAction(value); } } } public abstract class Item<T> { public abstract void doAction(T item); } Eclipse gives the error: The method doAction(capture#1-of ? extends T) in the type Item is not applicable for the arguments (T) I've been reading generics examples and various postings around, but I still can't figure out why this isn't allowed. Eclipse also doesn't give any helpful tips in its proposed fix, either. The variable value is of type T, why wouldn't it be applicable for ? extends T?.

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• Redundancy in doing sum()

  - by Abhi

  table1 - id, time_stamp, value This table consists of 10 id's. Each id would be having a value for each hour in a day. So for 1 day, there would be 240 records in this table. table2 - id Table2 consists of a dynamically changing subset of id's present in table1. At a particular instance, the intention is to get sum(value) from table1, considering id's only in table2, grouping by each hour in that day, giving the summarized values a rank and repeating this each day. the query is at this stage: select time_stamp, sum(value), rank() over (partition by trunc(time_stamp) order by sum(value) desc) rn from table1 where exists (select t2.id from table2 t2 where id=t2.id) and time_stamp >= to_date('05/04/2010 00','dd/mm/yyyy hh24') and time_stamp <= to_date('25/04/2010 23','dd/mm/yyyy hh24') group by time_stamp order by time_stamp asc If the query is correct, can this be made more efficient, considering that, table1 will actually consist of thousand's of id's instead of 10 ? EDIT: I am using sum(value) 2 times in the query, which I am not able to get a workaround such that the sum() is done only once. Pls help on this

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• Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

  - by Scarface

  Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

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• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

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• jquery: i have to use parseInt() even when deal with numbers, why?

  - by Syom

  i have the following script <select id="select1"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> <select id="select2"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> and jquery $("#select2").change(function() { var max_value = parseInt($("#select2 :selected").val()); var min_value = parseInt($("#select1 :selected").val()); if(max_value < min_value) { $("#select1").val($(this).val()); } }); and now, what i can't understand anyway - if values of option elements are integer numbers, why i have to use parseInt()? in some cases it doesn't work without parseInt(). Thanks

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• Retrieving values from a table in HTML using jQuery?

  - by Mo

  Hi i was just wondering whats the best way to retrieve the following labels and values from this HTMl code using jquery and storing them in to a array or hash map of some sort where i have for e.g "DataSet:" : "prod" or ["Dataset", "Prod"]? <table id="metric_summary"> <tbody> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>DataSet:</label></td> <td><input name="DataSet" value="prod"></td> </tr> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>HostGroup:</label></td> <td><input name="HostGroup" value="MONITOR-PORTAL-IAD"></td> </tr> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>Host:</label></td> <td><input name="Host" value="ALL"></td> </tr> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>Class:</label></td> <td><input name="Class" value="CPU"></td> </tr> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>Object:</label></td> <td><input name="Object" value="cpu"></td> </tr> <tr class="editable_metrics"> <td><label>Metric:</label></td> <td><input name="Metric" value="CapacityCPUUtilization"></td> </tr> thanks

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