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• ASP.NET MVC WAP, SharePoint Designer and SVN

  - by David Lively

  All, I'm starting a new ASP.NET MVC project which requires some content management capabilities. The people who will be managing the content prefer to use SharePoint Designer (successor to FrontPage) to modify content. I'd like to allow them to keep doing that. The issues are: Since I'd like this to be a WAP, not a website project, how can I allow them to see their changes in action without requiring them to have Visual Studio on their local machines? Can I specify a "default" action for a controller so that given a url like /products/new_view_here Can I let them save pages (views) and see them in the browser without having to go through the check-in/build/deploy process? I'd like their changes to be stored in SVN; SharePoint designer seems to only support Visual SourceSafe (ugh) directly. The ideas I've come up with so far are Write an HTTP handler that implements the FrontPage Server Extensions protocol. This sounds time consuming, but I haven't yet looked at the protocol spec. However, it would allow me to perform whatever operations I want on the server side, including checking files into SVN. Ditch the WAP in favor of a website project. I do not like having the source present on the server, however. Also, will MVC work in a website project? Surely someone has tackled this problem before?

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• How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

  - by FMR

  I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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• What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

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• UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

  - by prd

  Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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• simple image upload in aspnet mvc

  - by FosterZ

  hi,i'm building a simple school portal, i have stucked at uploading an image into my application, i.e a user should upload school image to my server, i have directory for images as ./Content/Images -- all uploading images should be uploaded to this directory. i have following code input type="file" id="SchoolImageUrl" name="SchoolImageUrl" class="required" using this m'getting a browse button, i have no idea how to upload that image to server and how would be my action controller ? i have following controller for creating school public ActionResult SchoolCreate(_ASI_School schoolToCreate, FormCollection collection) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here schoolToCreate.SchoolId = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); schoolToCreate.UserId = new Guid(Request.Form["currentUser"]); schoolToCreate.SchoolAddedBy = User.Identity.Name; HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"]; file.SaveAs(file.FileName); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Reuseable.ImageUpload(Request.Files["SchoolImageUrl"], Server.MapPath("../Content")); //schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = Path.GetFullPath(Request.Files[0].FileName); schoolToCreate.SchoolImageUrl = collection["SchoolImageUrl"]; UpdateModel(schoolToCreate); _schoolRepository.CreateSchool(schoolToCreate); //_schoolRepository.SaveToDb(); return RedirectToAction("DepartmentCreate", "Department", new { userId = schoolToCreate.UserId, schoolId = schoolToCreate.SchoolId }); } catch { return View("CreationFailed"); } } here im geting object referece error

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• ClassLoader exceptions being memoized

  - by Jim

  Hello, I am writing a classloader for a long-running server instance. If a user has not yet uploaded a class definition, I through a ClassNotFoundException; seems reasonable. The problem is this: There are three classes (C1, C2, and C3). C1 depends on C2, C2 depends on C3. C1 and C2 are resolvable, C3 isn't (yet). C1 is loaded. C1 subsequently performs an action that requires C2, so C2 is loaded. C2 subsequently performs an action that requires C3, so the classloader attempts to load C3, but can't resolve it, and an exception is thrown. Now C3 is added to the classpath, and the process is restarted (starting from the originally-loaded C1). The issue is, C2 seems to remember that C3 couldn't be loaded, and doesn't bother asking the classloader to find the class... it just re-throws the memoized exception. Clearly I can't reload C1 or C2 because other classes may have linked to them (as C1 has already linked to C2). I tried throwing different types of errors, hoping the class might not memoize them. Unfortunately, no such luck. Is there a way to prevent the loaded class from binding to the exception? That is, I want the classloader to be allowed to keep trying if it didn't succeed the first time. Thanks!

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• Servlet Mapping Help - Possible to Avoid Referencing Context Name?

  - by AJ

  Hi all, I am working on a Spring application and trying to get my URL mapping correct. What I would like to have work is the following: http://localhost:8080/idptest -> doesn't work But instead, I have to reference the context name in my URL in order to resolve the mapping: http://localhost:8080/<context_name>/idptest -> works How can I avoid the requirement of referencing the context name in my URL without using a rewrite/proxy engine e.g. Apache? Here is the servlet definition and mapping from my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/conf/idptest.xml</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>idptest</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Here's the outline of my controller (showing annotations for request mappings): @Controller @RequestMapping("/idptest") public class MyController { @RequestMapping(method=RequestMethod.GET) public String setupForm(Model model){ MyObject someObject = new MyObject(); model.addAttribute("someObject", someObject); return "myform"; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String processSubmit(@ModelAttribute("someObject") MyObject someObject) throws Exception { // POST logic... } } Thanks!

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• ASP.NET MVC2 and Browser Caching

  - by Dan

  Hi I have a web application that fetches a lot of content via ajax. For example when a user edits some data, the browser will send the changes using an ajax post and then do an ajax get to get fresh content and replace an existing div on the page with that content. This was working just find with MVC1, but in MVC2 I would get inconsistent results. I've found that MVC1 by default included an Expires item in the response headers set to the current time, but in MVC2 the Expires header is missing. This is a problem with some browsers (IE8) actually using the cached version of the ajax get instead of the fresh version. To deal with the problem I created a simple ActionFilterAttribute that sets the reponse cache to NoCache (see below), which works, but it seems kind of sillly to decorate every controller with this attribute. Is there a global way to set this for every controller? Is this a bug in MVC2 and it really should be setting the expires on every ActionResult/view/page? Don't most MVC programs deal with data entry where stale data is a very bad thing? Thanks Dan public class ResponseNoCachingAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnResultExecuted(ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnResultExecuted(filterContext); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(System.Web.HttpCacheability.NoCache); } }

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• How do I run a universal app on the iPhone 3.1.3 simulator?

  - by bpapa

  I'm working on a new app that I want to be universal for the iPhone and iPad. I started out with the "Create a Window-based app" wizard, and it created separate app delegates in "iPhone" and "iPad" groups. Since I already was quite familiar with iPhone dev, I did that part of my project, and now I'm ready to do some iPad stuff. So... I started out by adding a UISplitViewController to my iPad delegate, switch the Active SDK to 3.2, and it works! But when I switch back to 3.1.3, and try to run it in the simulator, Build and Go fails. For starters, I see: ...path.../iPad/AppDelegate_Pad.h:13: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'UISplitViewController' I've got my Base SDK set to 3.2 and my Deployment Target set to 3.1.3. I thought that was enough. But I also have found in the documentation this method to conditionally compile: #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 MyIPadViewController* vc; // Create the iPad view controller #else MyIPhoneViewController* vc; // Create the iPhone view controller #endif So do I need to do this everywhere? It seems like an awful lot of code to add (that I'll be getting rid of in a short time for 4.0 anyway) so I feel like I must be doing something wrong. And, I don't even have any idea how this works for things like @property or @synthesize declarations. tl;dr version of the question - did I miss a setting somewhere?

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• ViewController access data

  - by Giovanni Filaferro

  Today i would ask you if there is a way to call a method of another view controller just not initializing it or just how to get that viewController as a global variable declared in .h file. Help me please. I'm using a PageViewController and I have to use a method of the contentViewController alredy initialized. here I create my ViewControllers: - (void)createTheContent { NSLog(@"createTheContent"); pageController = nil; //[pageController removeFromParentViewController]; //[pageController awakeFromNib]; NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithInteger:UIPageViewControllerSpineLocationMin] forKey: UIPageViewControllerOptionSpineLocationKey]; self.pageController = [[UIPageViewController alloc] initWithTransitionStyle:UIPageViewControllerTransitionStylePageCurl navigationOrientation:UIPageViewControllerNavigationOrientationHorizontal options: options]; pageController.dataSource = self; [[pageController view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 365)]; initialViewController = [self viewControllerAtIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObject:initialViewController]; [pageController setViewControllers:viewControllers direction:UIPageViewControllerNavigationDirectionForward animated:NO completion:nil]; [self addChildViewController:pageController]; [[self view] addSubview:[pageController view]]; [pageController didMoveToParentViewController:self]; } here are my propertys in .h file: contentViewController *initialViewController; } //Page View Controller Properties @property (strong, nonatomic) UIPageViewController *pageController; @property (strong, nonatomic) NSArray *pageContent; @property (strong, nonatomic) NSMutableArray *pageStrings; @property (strong, nonatomic) id dataObject;

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• UITouch Events and Table Views

  - by Andy

  I'm working on a navigation-based iPhone-only app that serves two main purposes: One, to present data in a hierarchical view, allowing users to drill down and eventually edit said data, and, two, to all users to perform a default action when the table view cell is tapped. I now need to offer a small set of options tied to the same data; however, both the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: and accessoryButtonTappedForRowAtIndexPath: methods are obviously taken. So, my options seem to be to implement a double-tap method, wherein the small list of additional options would be presented after (you guessed it) a double-tap on said table row; or, preferably, a tap-and-hold method. From what I can tell, tap-and-hold seems like the way to go in SDK 4.0 - which does me no good right this red-hot minute. I decided to go with the double-tap option, but I'm having a little trouble. First and foremost, the touchesBegan:withEvent: method does not seem to be getting called at all; a breakpoint placed within the method is never called while the application runs, and the table view responds exactly as it did before I inserted the method (which is to say, it performs the default action): - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *aTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (aTouch.tapCount == 2) { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } } Second, I don't really need to handle a single-tap - the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: method can handle the single-tap just fine. The double-tap is the funky one I want to handle. I suspect the answer is going to contain the phrase, "You can't have the table view handle the single-tap and the touchesBegan: method handle the double-tap. The touch handling methods have to handle all of them." I would really appreciate some guidance from some of you who've dealt with this issue. Thanks in advance.

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• Using struts.xml with convention plugin

  - by David Alt

  This seems like it should be easy to do, but I just can make it work. I'm hooked on the convention plugin in Struts 2.1. However, I need to define some package-level configuration such as a new interceptor stack and exception mappings. I'd like to use the struts.xml file for this, but I can't get the convention-based packages matched to the struts.xml packages. My struts.xml looks like: <struts> <constant name="struts.convention.default.parent.package" value="default"/> <package name="default" extends="struts-default"> </package> <package name="root" namespace="/" extends="struts-default"> <action name="index"> <result>/index.jsp</result> </action> </package> <package name="my.package.actions.myaccount" namespace="/myaccount" extends="struts-default"> <interceptors> <interceptor name="authenticationInterceptor" class="my.package.interceptors.AuthenticationInterceptor"/> <interceptor-stack name="secureStack"> <interceptor-ref name="authenticationInterceptor"/> <interceptor-ref name="defaultStack"/> </interceptor-stack> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="secureStack"/> </package> </struts> I have my interceptor in: /src/my/package/interceptors and my actions in: /src/my/package/actions/myaccount

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• Display pdf file inline in Rails app

  - by Martas

  Hi, I have a pdf file attachment saved in the cloud. The file is attached using attachment_fu. All I do to display it in the view is: <%= image_tag @model.pdf_attachment.public_filename %> When I load the page with this code in the browser, it does what I want: it displays the attached pdf file. But only on Mac. On Windows, browsers will display a broken image placeholder. Chrome's Developer Tools report: "Resource interpreted as image but transferred with MIME type application/pdf." I also tried sending the file from controller: in PdfAttachmentController: def send_pdf_attachment pdf_attachment = PdfAttachment.find params[:id] send_file pdf_attachment.public_filename, :type => pdf_attachment.content_type, :file_name => pdf_attachment.filename, :disposition => 'inline' end in routes.rb: map.send_pdf_attachment '/pdf_attachments/send_pdf_attachment/:id', :controller => 'pdf_attachments', :action => 'send_pdf_attachment' and in the view: <%= send_pdf_attachment_path @model.pdf_attachment %> or <%= image_tag( send_pdf_attachment_path @model.pdf_attachment ) %> And that doesn't display the file on Mac (I didn't try on Windows), it displays the path: pdf_attachments/send_pdf_attachment/35 So, my question is: what do I do to properly display a pdf file inline? Thanks martin

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• How do I grab and use a variables coming back through ValueList from an AJAX call?

  - by Mel

  I'm trying the following code to execute a search and it's not working. On the search.cfm page, the only value coming back is the value I input into the search field (even if I click an autosuggest value, it's not coming back; only the letters I actually type myself come back). <cfform class="titleSearchForm" id="searchForm" action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" method="post"> <fieldset> <cfinput type="text" class="titleSearchField" name="TitleName" onChange="form.submit()" autosuggest="cfc:gz.cfcomp.search.AutoSuggestSearch({cfautosuggestvalue})"> <input type="button" class="titleSearchButton" value=" " /> </fieldset> </cfform> Query in CFC: <cfquery name="SearchResult" datasource="myDSN"> SELECT CONCAT(titles.TitleName, ' on ', platforms.PlatformAbbreviation) AS sResult, games.GameID FROM games Inner Join platforms ON games.PlatformID = platforms.PlatformID Inner Join titles ON titles.TitleID = games.TitleID WHERE UCase(titleName) LIKE Ucase('#ARGUMENTS.SearchString#%') ORDER BY titleName ASC; </cfquery> Two things: First of all, I would like to get the GameID back to the page making the AJAX request; I know why it is not coming back: Because I'm only returning sResult var, which does not include the GameID. Is there a way to return the GameID value without displaying it? The second thing: How to I grab a value from the auto-suggest once it is returned? Say I want to grab the GameID, or if I can't do that, the "TitleName" to use that in my query? I tried passing it to the form this way: action="search.cfm?GameID=#cfautosuggestvalue.GameID#" - but that does not work. How do I reference the autosuggestionvalue varaibles for use? Thanks

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• Spring MVC 3 - How come @ResponseBody method renders a JSTLView?

  - by Ken Chen

  I have mapped one of my method in one Controller to return JSON object by @ResponseBody. @RequestMapping("/{module}/get/{docId}") public @ResponseBody Map<String, ? extends Object> get(@PathVariable String module, @PathVariable String docId) { Criteria criteria = new Criteria("_id", docId); return genericDAO.getUniqueEntity(module, true, criteria); } However, it redirects me to the JSTLView instead. Say, if the {module} is product and {docId} is 2, then in the console I found: DispatcherServlet with name 'xxx' processing POST request for [/xxx/product/get/2] Rendering view [org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView: name 'product/get/2'; URL [/WEB-INF/views/jsp/product/get/2.jsp]] in DispatcherServlet with name 'xxx' How can that be happened? In the same Controller, I have another method similar to this but it's running fine: @RequestMapping("/{module}/list") public @ResponseBody Map<String, ? extends Object> list(@PathVariable String module, @RequestParam MultiValueMap<String, String> params, @RequestParam(value = "page", required = false) Integer pageNumber, @RequestParam(value = "rows", required = false) Integer recordPerPage) { ... return genericDAO.list(module, criterias, orders, pageNumber, recordPerPage); } Above do returns correctly providing me a list of objects I required. Anyone to help me solve the mystery?

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• Android App - disappearance of app GUI

  - by Radek Šimko

  I'm trying to create a simple app, whose main task is to open the browser on defined URL. I've created first Activity: public class MyActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); Intent myIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse("http://my.url.tld")); startActivity(myIntent); } Here's my AndroidManifest.xml: <manifest ...> <application ...> <activity android:name=".MyActivity" ...> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> This code is fully functional, but before it opens the browser, it displays a black background - blank app GUI. I didn't figured out, how to go directly do the browser (without displaying the GUI). Anyone knows?

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• No route matches when trying to edit

  - by mmichael

  Here's the scoop: I've created a test app that allows users to create ideas and then add "bubbles" to these ideas. Currently, a bubble is just text. I've successfully linked bubbles to ideas. Furthermore, when a user goes to view an idea it lists all of the bubbles attached to that idea. The user can even delete the bubble for any given idea. My problem lies in editing bubbles. When a user views an idea, he sees the idea's content as well as any bubbles for that idea. As a result, I've set all my bubble controls (editing and deleting) inside the ideas "show" view. My code for editing a bubble for an idea is <%= link_to 'Edit Bubble', edit_idea_bubble_path %>. I ran rake routes to find the correct path for editing bubbles and that is what was listed. Here's my error: No route matches {:action=>"edit", :controller=>"bubbles"} In my bubbles controller I have: def edit @idea = Idea.find(params[:idea_id]) @bubble = @idea.bubbles.find(params[:id]) end def update @idea = Idea.find(params[:idea_id]) @bubble = @idea.bubbles.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @bubble.update_attributes(params[:bubble]) format.html { redirect_to(@bubble, :notice => 'Bubble was successfully updated.') } format.xml { head :ok } else format.html { render :action => "Edit" } format.xml { render :xml => @bubble.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end To go a step further, I have the following in my routes.rb file resources :ideas do resources :bubbles end So far everything seems to function except when I try to edit a bubble. I'd love some guidance. Thanks!

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• Added buttons, webview, added outlets, but can't play with them in the code...

  - by Tom

  Hi! I made a toolbar with two buttons on it. I then created two outlets in my class controller. Then I hooked the the controller to the buttons and selected the outlets. Finally I rewritten the class files (that added: IBOutlet id next; IBOutlet id previous; to my .h file). So now, everything looks okay. But then I try somewhere in the code to change the state of one of my button like this: next.enabled = YES; I tried with self. too but unfortunately I receive this error message: error: request for member 'enabled' in something not a structure or union Do you have any idea of what's happening there? And yes I have: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> :) Using: [next setEnabled:YES]; gives me no error but still doesn't work... And finally, for documenting purposes here's the whole method: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (!self.currentLevel) { self.currentLevel = @"1"; } NSArray *etape = [self.etapes objectForKey:self.currentLevel]; if ([etape count] > 0) { self.navigationItem.title = [etape objectAtIndex:1]; if ([etape count] > 1) { [next setEnabled:YES]; } } else { self.navigationItem.title = @"Aucune étape"; } } When I do: NSLog(@"%@", [next class]); It returns (null) ... I guess it is supposed to be UIBarButtonItem... It seems that it is impossible to play with any outlets even if I don't receive any errors while playing with them...

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• How to get MySQL database to appear on index.php

  - by Teddy Truong

  Hi, I have a submission form on my website (index.php) and I have the data(user submissions) being stored into a MySQL database. Right now, I have the user submitting a post and then the page directs them to an update.php which shows what they inputed. However, I want all of the data in the database in MySQL to be shown on the index.php. It's a lot like a comment system. User submits a post... and sees their post above the other submitted posts all on the same page. I think I'm missing AJAX... ? Here is the code for index.php <div align="center"> <p>&nbsp;</p> <h2 align="center" class="Title"><em><strong>REDACTED</strong></em></h2> <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="update.php"> <hr /> <label><br /> <form action="update.php" method="post"> REDACTED: <input type="text" name="text" /> <input type="submit" /> </form> </label> </form> </div> On update.php I have this: ?php $text = $_POST['text']; $myString = "REDACTED"; mysql_connect ("db----.net", "-----3", "------------") or die ('Error: ' . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db ("-----------"); $query="INSERT INTO TextArea (ID, text) VALUES ('NULL', '".$text."')"; mysql_query($query) or die ('Error updating database'); echo " $myString "," $text "; ?> Thanks a lot!

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• CSS background images not showing in IE?

  - by Kevin

  In IE8 and below, I'm doing this <ul class="dependants_list" style="border-bottom: dashed 1px #53a1dc"> <li class="dependants_summary"> <strong>Name:</strong> De Silva, Angelina<br /> <strong>Gender:</strong> Female<br /> <strong>Date of birth:</strong> 7/3/2009<br /> </li> <form action="/Dependant/Delete/11413" method="get"><input class="delete btn" id="Delete_this_Profile" name="Delete_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Delete this Profile" /> </form><form action="/Dependant/Edit/11413" method="get"><input class="edit btn" id="Modify_this_Profile" name="Modify_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Modify this Profile" /> </form><br /><hr style="display:none" /> and the CSS for it is: .dependants_summary { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 10px; padding-right: 0px; padding-left: 85px; padding-top: 5px; padding-bottom: 5px; width: 430px; float: left; font: 120% Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .dependants_list { padding: 0; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(odd) { background: #fff url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(even) { background: #c9e3f4 url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } The images are not being shown in IE, but they are in ffox and chrome

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• Spring URL mapping question

  - by es11

  I am using Java with Spring framework. Given the following url: www.mydomain.com/contentitem/234 I need to map all requests that come to /contentitem/{numeric value} mapped to a given controller with the "numeric value" passed as a parameter to the controller. Right now in my servlet container xml I have simple mappings similar to the following: ... <entry key="/index.html"> <ref bean="homeController" /> </entry> ... I am just wondering what I need to add to the mapping in order to achieve what I described? Edit: I unaccepted the answer temporarily because I can't seem to figure out how to do the mapping in my web.xml (I am using annotations as described in axtavt's answer below). How do I add a proper <url-pattern>..</url-pattern> in my <servlet-mapping> so that the request for "/contentitem/{numeric_value}" gets properly picked up? Thanks!

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• RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

  - by Mark Lewis

  Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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• cakephp read and display from more than one related table

  - by z22

  I have 2 tables Users and Artists. User: id name password city_id state_id country_id Artist: id user_id description I wish to create add and edit form(single form acts as add and edit). But on click of edit link, I wish to fill in the form fields from user as well as artist table. How do i do that? Below is my controller code: public function artist_register() { $this->country_list(); if ($this->request->is('post')) { $this->request->data['User']['group_id'] = 2; if ($this->{$this->modelClass}->saveAll($this->request->data)) { $this->redirect(array('controller' => 'Users', 'action' => 'login')); } } $this->render('artist_update'); } public function artist_update($id) { $artist = $this->{$this->modelClass}->findByuser_id($id); $artist_id = $artist[$this->modelClass]['id']; if($this->request->is('get')) { $this->request->data = $this->{$this->modelClass}->read(null, $artist_id); $this->request->data = $this->{$this->modelClass}->User->read(null, $id); } else { if($this->{$this->modelClass}->save($this->request->data)) { $this->Session->setFlash('Your Profile has been updated'); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'index')); } } } The code doesnt work. how do i solve it?

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• COCOS2D - Animation Stops During Move

  - by maiko

  Hey guys! I am trying to run a "Walk" style animation on my main game sprite. The animations work fine, and my sprite is hooked up to my joystick all fine and dandy. However, I think where I setup the call for my walk animations are wrong. Because everytime the sprite is moving, the animation stops. I know putting the animation in such a weak if statement is probably bad, but please tell me how I could get my sprite to animate properly while it is being moved by the joystick. The sprite faces the right direction, so I can tell the action's first frame is being called, however, it doesn't animate until I stop touching my joystick. Here is How I call the action: //WALK LEFT if (joypadCap.position.x <= 69 /*&& joypadCap.position.y < && joypadCap.position.y 40 */ ) { [tjSprite runAction:walkLeft]; }; //WALK RIGHT if ( joypadCap.position.x = 71 /* && joypadCap.position.y < 100 && joypadCap.position.y 40 */) { [tjSprite runAction:walkRight]; }; THIS: is the how the joystick controls the character: CGPoint newLocation = ccp(tjSprite.position.x - distance/8 * cosf(touchAngle), tjSprite.position.y - distance/8 * sinf(touchAngle)); tjSprite.position = newLocation; Please help. Any alternative ways to call the characters walk animation would be greatly appreciated!

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• How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

  - by predhme

  So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

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