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  • Need help manipulating WAV (RIFF) Files at a byte level

    - by Eric
    I'm writing an an application in C# that will record audio files (*.wav) and automatically tag and name them. Wave files are RIFF files (like AVI) which can contain meta data chunks in addition to the waveform data chunks. So now I'm trying to figure out how to read and write the RIFF meta data to and from recorded wave files. I'm using NAudio for recording the files, and asked on their forums as well on SO for way to read and write RIFF tags. While I received a number of good answers, none of the solutions allowed for reading and writing RIFF chunks as easily as I would like. But more importantly I have very little experience dealing with files at a byte level, and think this could be a good opportunity to learn. So now I want to try writing my own class(es) that can read in a RIFF file and allow meta data to be read, and written from the file. I've used streams in C#, but always with the entire stream at once. So now I'm little lost that I have to consider a file byte by byte. Specifically how would I go about removing or inserting bytes to and from the middle of a file? I've tried reading a file through a FileStream into a byte array (byte[]) as shown in the code below. System.IO.FileStream waveFileStream = System.IO.File.OpenRead(@"C:\sound.wav"); byte[] waveBytes = new byte[waveFileStream.Length]; waveFileStream.Read(waveBytes, 0, waveBytes.Length); And I could see through the Visual Studio debugger that the first four byte are the RIFF header of the file. But arrays are a pain to deal with when performing actions that change their size like inserting or removing values. So I was thinking I could then to the byte[] into a List like this. List<byte> list = waveBytes.ToList<byte>(); Which would make any manipulation of the file byte by byte a whole lot easier, but I'm worried I might be missing something like a class in the System.IO name-space that would make all this even easier. Am I on the right track, or is there a better way to do this? I should also mention that I'm not hugely concerned with performance, and would prefer not to deal with pointers or unsafe code blocks like this guy. If it helps at all here is a good article on the RIFF/WAV file format.

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  • IE won't load PDF in a window created with window.open

    - by Dean
    Here's the problem, which only occurs in Internet Explorer (IE). I have a page that has links to several different types of files. Links from these files execute a Javascript function that opens a new window and loads the specific file. This works great, unless the file I need to open in the new window is a PDF in which case the window is blank, even though the URL is in the address field. Refreshing that window using F5 doesn't help. However, if I put the cursor in the address field and press <enter> the PDF loads right up. This problem only occurs in IE. I have seen it in IE 7 and 8 and am using Adobe Acrobat Reader 9. In Firefox (PC and Mac) everything works perfectly. In Chrome (Mac), the PDF is downloaded. In Safari (Mac) it works. In Opera (Mac) it prompts me to open or save. Basically, everything probably works fine, except for IE. I have searched for similar problems and have seen some posts where it was suggested to adjust some of the Internet Options on IE. I have tried this but it doesn't help, and the problem wasn't exactly the same anyway. Here's the Javascript function I use to open the new window. function newwin(url,w,h) { win = window.open(url,"temp","width="+w+",height="+h+",menubar=yes,toolbar=yes,location=yes,status=yes,scrollbars=auto,resizable=yes"); win.focus(); } You can see that I pass in the URL as well as the height, h, and width, w, of the window. I've used a function like this for years and as far as I know have never had a problem. I call the newwin() function using this. <a href="javascript:newwin('/path/document.pdf',400,300)">document.pdf</a> (Yes, I know there are other, better ways than using inline JS, and I've even tried some of them because I've run out of things to try, but nothing works.) So, if anyone has an idea as to what might be causing this problem, I'd love to hear it.

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  • bluetooth file send.

    - by cheesebunz
    i'm new to bluetooth development and i found the 32netfeet . Right now i'm able to search for bluetooth devices nearby and connect to them but how do i send a file e.g SendTest.txt? I tried buttonclick event using the OBEX but i don't understand this is my example code: using InTheHand.Net; using InTheHand.Net.Sockets; using InTheHand.Net.Bluetooth; namespace BluetoothIntheHand { public partial class Form2 : Form { private Guid service = BluetoothService.DialupNetworking; private BluetoothClient bluetoothClient; public Form2() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio.Mode = RadioMode.Discoverable; BluetoothRadio myRadio = BluetoothRadio.PrimaryRadio; lblSearch.Text = "" + myRadio.LocalAddress.ToString(); bluetoothClient = new BluetoothClient(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor; BluetoothDeviceInfo[] bluetoothDeviceInfo = { }; bluetoothDeviceInfo = bluetoothClient.DiscoverDevices(10); comboBox1.DataSource = bluetoothDeviceInfo; comboBox1.DisplayMember = "DeviceName"; comboBox1.ValueMember = "DeviceAddress"; comboBox1.Focus(); Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default; } private void btnConnect_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (comboBox1.SelectedValue != null) { try { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); MessageBox.Show("Connected"); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } } private void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { bluetoothClient.Connect(new BluetoothEndPoint((BluetoothAddress)comboBox1.SelectedValue, service)); String addr = "112233445566"; Uri uri = new Uri("obex://"+@"SendTest.txt"); ObexWebRequest req= new ObexWebRequest(uri); ObexWebResponse rsp; } I found the guide but don't really know how to convert to C# ' The host part of the URI is the device address, e.g. IrDAAddress.ToString(), ' and the file part is the OBEX object name. Dim addr As String = "112233445566" Dim uri As New Uri("obex://" & addr & "/HelloWorld2.txt") Dim req As New ObexWebRequest(uri) Using content As Stream = req.GetRequestStream() ' Using a StreamWriter to write text to the stream... Using wtr As New StreamWriter(content) wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream") wtr.WriteLine("Hello World GetRequestStream 2") wtr.Flush() ' Set the Length header value req.ContentLength = content.Length End Using ' In this case closing the StreamWriter also closed the Stream, but ... End Using Dim rsp As ObexWebResponse = CType(req.GetResponse(),ObexWebResponse) Console.WriteLine("Response Code: {0} (0x{0:X})", rsp.StatusCode)

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  • Optimizing multiple dispatch notification algorithm in C#?

    - by Robert Fraser
    Sorry about the title, I couldn't think of a better way to describe the problem. Basically, I'm trying to implement a collision system in a game. I want to be able to register a "collision handler" that handles any collision of two objects (given in either order) that can be cast to particular types. So if Player : Ship : Entity and Laser : Particle : Entity, and handlers for (Ship, Particle) and (Laser, Entity) are registered than for a collision of (Laser, Player), both handlers should be notified, with the arguments in the correct order, and a collision of (Laser, Laser) should notify only the second handler. A code snippet says a thousand words, so here's what I'm doing right now (naieve method): public IObservable<Collision<T1, T2>> onCollisionsOf<T1, T2>() where T1 : Entity where T2 : Entity { Type t1 = typeof(T1); Type t2 = typeof(T2); Subject<Collision<T1, T2>> obs = new Subject<Collision<T1, T2>>(); _onCollisionInternal += delegate(Entity obj1, Entity obj2) { if (t1.IsAssignableFrom(obj1.GetType()) && t2.IsAssignableFrom(obj2.GetType())) obs.OnNext(new Collision<T1, T2>((T1) obj1, (T2) obj2)); else if (t1.IsAssignableFrom(obj2.GetType()) && t2.IsAssignableFrom(obj1.GetType())) obs.OnNext(new Collision<T1, T2>((T1) obj2, (T2) obj1)); }; return obs; } However, this method is quite slow (measurable; I lost ~2 FPS after implementing this), so I'm looking for a way to shave a couple cycles/allocation off this. I thought about (as in, spent an hour implementing then slammed my head against a wall for being such an idiot) a method that put the types in an order based on their hash code, then put them into a dictionary, with each entry being a linked list of handlers for pairs of that type with a boolean indication whether the handler wanted the order of arguments reversed. Unfortunately, this doesn't work for derived types, since if a derived type is passed in, it won't notify a subscriber for the base type. Can anyone think of a way better than checking every type pair (twice) to see if it matches? Thanks, Robert

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  • Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

    - by Andrei Rinea
    I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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  • hyperLink on jsf error messages problem

    - by user234194
    I am trying to put link in the error messages produced by JSF. For this I am using the custom renderer, it works(clicking the error, focuses the respective input field) but the problem is , all the form values gets empty. ie when error occurs, all the input fields get empty. Any suggestion will be appreciated. package custom; public class CustomErrorRenderer extends Renderer { @Override @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public void encodeEnd(FacesContext context, UIComponent component) throws IOException { ResponseWriter writer = context.getResponseWriter(); writer.startElement("div", component); writer.writeAttribute("id", component.getClientId(context), "id"); writer.writeAttribute("style", "color: red", null); writer.startElement("ul", null); Iterator clientIds = context.getClientIdsWithMessages(); while (clientIds.hasNext()) { String clientId = clientIds.next(); Iterator messages = context.getMessages(clientId); if (!messages.hasNext()) { continue; } String javaScript = "var field = document.getElementById('" + clientId + "');" + "if(field == null) return false;" + "field.focus(); return false;"; writer.startElement("li", null); writer.startElement("a", null); writer.writeAttribute("onclick", javaScript, null); writer.writeAttribute("href", "#", null); while (messages.hasNext()) { writer.writeText(messages.next().getSummary(), null); } writer.endElement("a"); writer.endElement("li"); } writer.endElement("ul"); writer.endElement("div"); } } This renderer is defined in faces-config.xml: add to base HTML_BASIC renderkit HTML_BASIC HTML_BASIC CustomErrorRenderer javax.faces.Output custom.CustomErrorRenderer custom.CustomErrorRenderer CustomErrorMessages custom.Errors javax.faces.component.UIOutput a tag class: package custom; import javax.faces.webapp.UIComponentELTag; public class CustomErrorTag extends UIComponentELTag { @Override public String getComponentType() { return "custom.Errors"; } @Override public String getRendererType() { return "custom.CustomErrorRenderer"; } } This is defined in a TLD file: http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-jsptaglibrary_2_1.xsd" version="2.1" 1.0 custom http://custom errors custom.CustomErrorTag empty This goes at the top of the JSP page: <%@ taglib prefix="custom" uri="http://custom"%

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  • Capture Highlighted Text from any window using C#

    - by dineshrekula
    How to read the highlighted/Selected Text from any window using c#. i tried 2 approaches. Send "^c" whenever user selects some thing. But in this case my clipboard is flooded with lots of unnecessary data. Sometime it copied passwords also. so i switched my approach to 2nd method, send message method. see this sample code [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern int GetFocus(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool AttachThreadInput(uint idAttach, uint idAttachTo, bool fAttach); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] static extern uint GetCurrentThreadId(); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(int hWnd, int ProcessId); [DllImport("user32.dll") ] static extern int GetForegroundWindow(); [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = false)] static extern int SendMessage(int hWnd, int Msg, int wParam, StringBuilder lParam); // second overload of SendMessage [DllImport("user32.dll")] private static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, uint Msg, out int wParam, out int lParam); const int WM_SETTEXT = 12; const int WM_GETTEXT = 13; private string PerformCopy() { try { //Wait 5 seconds to give us a chance to give focus to some edit window, //notepad for example System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(500); int foregroundWindowHandle = GetForegroundWindow(); uint remoteThreadId = GetWindowThreadProcessId(foregroundWindowHandle, 0); uint currentThreadId = GetCurrentThreadId(); //AttachTrheadInput is needed so we can get the handle of a focused window in another app AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, true); //Get the handle of a focused window int focused = GetFocus(); //Now detach since we got the focused handle AttachThreadInput(remoteThreadId, currentThreadId, false); //Get the text from the active window into the stringbuilder SendMessage(focused, WM_GETTEXT, builder.Capacity, builder); return builder.ToString(); } catch (System.Exception oException) { throw oException; } } this code working fine in Notepad. But if i try to capture from another applications like Mozilla firefox, or Visual Studio IDE, it's not returning the text. Can anybody please help me, where i am doing wrong? First of all, i have chosen the right approach?

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  • user generated / user specific functions

    - by pedalpete
    I'm looking for the most elegant and secure method to do the following. I have a calendar, and groups of users. Users can add events to specific days on the calendar, and specify how long each event lasts for. I've had a few requests from users to add the ability for them to define that events of a specific length include a break, of a certain amount of time, or require that a specific amount of time be left between events. For example, if event is 2 hours, include a 20min break. for each event, require 30 minutes before start of next event. The same group that has asked for an event of 2 hours to include a 20 min break, could also require that an event 3 hours include a 30 minute break. In the end, what the users are trying to get is an elapsed time excluding breaks calculated for them. Currently I provide them a total elapsed time, but they are looking for a running time. However, each of these requests is different for each group. Where one group may want a 30 minute break during a 2 hour event, and another may want only 10 minutes for each 3 hour event. I was kinda thinking I could write the functions into a php file per group, and then include that file and do the calculations via php and then return a calculated total to the user, but something about that doesn't sit right with me. Another option is to output the groups functions to javascript, and have it run client-side, as I'm already returning the duration of the event, but where the user is part of more than one group with different rules, this seems like it could get rather messy. I currently store the start and end time in the database, but no 'durations', and I don't think I should be storing the calculated totals in the db, because if a group decides to change their calculations, I'd need to change it throughout the db. Is there a better way of doing this? I would just store the variables in mysql, but I don't see how I can then say to mysql to calculate based on those variables. I'm REALLY lost here. Any suggestions? I'm hoping somebody has done something similar and can provide some insight into the best direction. If it helps, my table contains eventid, user, group, startDate, startTime, endDate, endTime, type The json for the event which I return to the user is {"eventid":"'.$eventId.'", "user":"'.$userId.'","group":"'.$groupId.'","type":"'.$type.'","startDate":".$startDate.'","startTime":"'.$startTime.'","endDate":"'.$endDate.'","endTime":"'.$endTime.'","durationLength":"'.$duration.'", "durationHrs":"'.$durationHrs.'"} where for example, duration length is 2.5 and duration hours is 2:30.

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  • Using FluentNHibernate + SQLite with .Net4?

    - by stiank81
    I have a WPF application running with .Net3.5 using FluentNHibernate, and all works fine. When I upgraded to VS2010 I ran into some odd problems, but after changing to use x64 variant of SQLite it worked fine again. Now I want to change to use .Net4, but this has turned into a more painful experience then I expected.. When calling FluentConfiguration.BuildConfiguration I get an exception thrown: FluentConfigurationException unhandled An invalid or incomplete configuration was used while creating a SessionFactory. Check PotentialReasons collection, and InnerException for more detail The inner exception gives us more information: Message = "Could not create the driver from NHibernate.Driver.SQLite20Driver, NHibernate, Version=2.1.2.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4." It has an InnerException again: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Which again has an InnerException: The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly System.Data.SQLite could not be found. Ensure that the assembly System.Data.SQLite is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly. Now - to me it sounds like it doesn't find System.Data.SQLite.dll, but I can't understand this. Everywhere this is referenced I have "Copy Local", and I have verified that it is in every build folder for projects using SQLite. I have also copied it manually to every Debug folder of the solution - without luck. Notes: This exact same code worked just fine before I upgraded to .Net4. I did see some x64 x86 mismatch problems earlier, but I have switched to use x86 as the target platform and for all referenced dlls. I have verified that all files in the Debug-folder are x86. I have tried the precompiled Fluent dlls, I have tried compiling myself, and I have compiled my own version of Fluent using .Net4. I see that there are also others that have seen this problem, but I haven't really seen any solution yet. After @devio's answer I tried adding a reference to the SQLite dll. This didn't change anything, but I hope I made it right though.. This is what I added to the root node of the app.config file: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <qualifyAssembly partialName="System.Data.SQLite" fullName="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.60.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> Anyone out there using Fluent with .Net4 and SQLite successfully? Help! I'm lost...

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  • Dropdown OnSelectedIndexChanged not firing

    - by Jim
    The OnSelectedIndexChanged event is not firing for my dropdown box. All forums I have looked at told me to add the AutoPostBack="true", but that didn't change the results. HTML: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Current Time: " /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblCurrent" runat="server" Text="Label" /><br /><br /> <asp:DropDownList ID="cboSelectedLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged" /><br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="lblSelectedTime" runat="server" Text="Label" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string _sLocation = string.Empty; string _sCurrentLoc = string.Empty; TimeSpan _tsSelectedTime; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { AddTimeZones(); cboSelectedLocation.Focus(); lblCurrent.Text = "Currently in " + _sCurrentLoc + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.Now; lblSelectedTime.Text = _sLocation + ":" + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.UtcNow.Add(_tsSelectedTime); } //adds all timezone displaynames to combobox //defaults combo location to seoul, South Korea //defaults current location to current location private void AddTimeZones() { foreach(TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { string s = tz.DisplayName; cboSelectedLocation.Items.Add(s); if (tz.StandardName == "Korea Standard Time") cboSelectedLocation.Text = s; if (tz.StandardName == System.TimeZone.CurrentTimeZone.StandardName) _sCurrentLoc = tz.StandardName; } } //changes timezone name and time depending on what is selected in the cbobox. protected void cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { if (cboSelectedLocation.Text == tz.DisplayName) { _sLocation = tz.StandardName; _tsSelectedTime = tz.GetUtcOffset(DateTime.UtcNow); } } } } Any advice into what to look at for a rookie asp coder? EDIT: added more code behind

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  • iPhone UIImage upload to web service

    - by user347635
    Hi all, I worked on this for several hours today and I'm pretty close to a solution but clearly need some help from someone who's pulled this off. I'm trying to post an image to a web service from the iPhone. I'll post the code first then explain everything I've tried: NSData *imageData = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(barCodePic, .9); NSString *soapMsg = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?><soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\"><soap:Body><WriteImage xmlns=\"http://myserver/imagewebservice/\"><ImgIn>%@</ImgIn></WriteImage></soap:Body></soap:Envelope>", [NSData dataWithData:imageData] ]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/service1.asmx"]; NSMutableURLRequest *req = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMsg length]]; [req addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [req addValue:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/WriteImage" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [req addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [req setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [req setHTTPBody: [soapMsg dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if (conn) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } First thing, this code works fine for anything but an image. The web service is running on my local network and I can change the source code at will and if I change the "ImgIn" parameter to a string and pass a string in, everything works fine, I get a return value no problem. So there are no connectivity issues at all, I'm able to call and get data from this web service on this server no problems. But I need to upload an image to this web service via the ImgIn parameter, so the above code is my best shot so far. I also have didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError, etc all being handled. The above code fires off didRecieveResponse every time. However didReceiveData is never fired and it's like the web service itself never even runs. When I debug the web service itself, it runs and debugs fine when I use a string parameter, but with the image parameter, it never even debugs when I call it. It's almost like the ImgIn parameter is too long (it's huge when I output it to the screen) and the web service just chokes on it. I've read about having to encode to Base64 when using this method, but I can't find any good links on how that's done. If that's what I'm doing wrong, can you PLEASE provide code as to how to do this, not just "you need to use Base64", I'd really appreciate it as I can find almost nothing on how to implement this with an example. Other than that, I'm kind of lost, it seems like I'm doing everything else right. Please help! Thanks

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  • Multi-part question about multi-threading, locks and multi-core processors (multi ^ 3)

    - by MusiGenesis
    I have a program with two methods. The first method takes two arrays as parameters, and performs an operation in which values from one array are conditionally written into the other, like so: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } The second method creates two separate sets of int arrays and iterates through them such that each array of one set is Blended with each array from the other set, like so: void CrossBlend() { int[][] set1 = new int[150][75000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles int[][] set2 = new int[25][10000]; // we'll pretend this actually compiles for (int i1 = 0; i1 < set1.Length; i1++) { for (int i2 = 0; i2 < set2.Length; i2++) { Blend(set1[i1], set2[i2], 0); // or any offset, doesn't matter } } } First question: Since this apporoach is an obvious candidate for parallelization, is it intrinsically thread-safe? It seems like no, since I can conceive a scenario (unlikely, I think) where one thread's changes are lost because a different threads ~simultaneous operation. If no, would this: void Blend(int[] dest, int[] src, int offset) { lock (dest) { for (int i = 0; i < src.Length; i++) { int rdr = dest[i + offset]; dest[i + offset] = src[i] > rdr? src[i] : rdr; } } } be an effective fix? Second question: If so, what would be the likely performance cost of using locks like this? I assume that with something like this, if a thread attempts to lock a destination array that is currently locked by another thread, the first thread would block until the lock was released instead of continuing to process something. Also, how much time does it actually take to acquire a lock? Nanosecond scale, or worse than that? Would this be a major issue in something like this? Third question: How would I best approach this problem in a multi-threaded way that would take advantage of multi-core processors (and this is based on the potentially wrong assumption that a multi-threaded solution would not speed up this operation on a single core processor)? I'm guessing that I would want to have one thread running per core, but I don't know if that's true.

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  • Why does PostgresQL query performance drop over time, but restored when rebuilding index

    - by Jim Rush
    According to this page in the manual, indexes don't need to be maintained. However, we are running with a PostgresQL table that has a continuous rate of updates, deletes and inserts that over time (a few days) sees a significant query degradation. If we delete and recreate the index, query performance is restored. We are using out of the box settings. The table in our test is currently starting out empty and grows to half a million rows. It has a fairly large row (lots of text fields). We are search is based of an index, not the primary key (I've confirmed the index is being used, at least under normal conditions) The table is being used as a persistent store for a single process. Using PostgresQL on Windows with a Java client I'm willing to give up insert and update performance to keep up the query performance. We are considering rearchitecting the application so that data is spread across various dynamic tables in a manner that allows us to drop and rebuild indexes periodically without impacting the application. However, as always, there is a time crunch to get this to work and I suspect we are missing something basic in our configuration or usage. We have considered forcing vacuuming and rebuild to run at certain times, but I suspect the locking period for such an action would cause our query to block. This may be an option, but there are some real-time (windows of 3-5 seconds) implications that require other changes in our code. Additional information: Table and index CREATE TABLE icl_contacts ( id bigint NOT NULL, campaignfqname character varying(255) NOT NULL, currentstate character(16) NOT NULL, xmlscheduledtime character(23) NOT NULL, ... 25 or so other fields. Most of them fixed or varying character fiel ... CONSTRAINT icl_contacts_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id) ) WITH (OIDS=FALSE); ALTER TABLE icl_contacts OWNER TO postgres; CREATE INDEX icl_contacts_idx ON icl_contacts USING btree (xmlscheduledtime, currentstate, campaignfqname); Analyze: Limit (cost=0.00..3792.10 rows=750 width=32) (actual time=48.922..59.601 rows=750 loops=1) - Index Scan using icl_contacts_idx on icl_contacts (cost=0.00..934580.47 rows=184841 width=32) (actual time=48.909..55.961 rows=750 loops=1) Index Cond: ((xmlscheduledtime < '2010-05-20T13:00:00.000'::bpchar) AND (currentstate = 'SCHEDULED'::bpchar) AND ((campaignfqname)::text = '.main.ee45692a-6113-43cb-9257-7b6bf65f0c3e'::text)) And, yes, I am aware there there are a variety of things we could do to normalize and improve the design of this table. Some of these options may be available to us. My focus in this question is about understanding how PostgresQL is managing the index and query over time (understand why, not just fix). If it were to be done over or significantly refactored, there would be a lot of changes.

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  • Visual Studio Express 2012 debug mode doesn't work

    - by user2350086
    I have a project in Visual Studio that I have been working on for a while, and I have used the debugger extensively. Recently I changed some settings and I have lost the ability to stop the program and step through code. I can't figure out what I had changed that might have affected this. If I put a breakpoint in my code and try to have the program stop there, it doesn't. The break point shows up white with a red outline. If I hover the mouse over it, it says "The breakpoint will not currently be hit. No executable code of the debugger's target code type is associated with this line. Possible causes include: conditional compilation, compiler optimizations, or the target architecture of this line is not supported by the current debugger code type." I know for a fact that the program executes the code where the breakpoint is because I put the breakpoint in the beginning of the InitializeComponent method. The program displays the window fine, but does not stop at the breakpoint. Yes, I am running in debug mode. It seems as though there is a disconnect between the compiled code and the source code displayed. Does anyone know what that would be, or know which compiler settings I should check to re-enable debugging? Here are the compiler options: /GS /analyze- /W3 /Zc:wchar_t /I"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\include" /Zi /Od /sdl /Fd"Debug\vc110.pdb" /fp:precise /D "WIN32" /D "_DEBUG" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /errorReport:prompt /WX- /Zc:forScope /Oy- /clr /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\mscorlib.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Data.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Drawing.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Windows.Forms.dll" /FU"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework.NETFramework\v4.5\System.Xml.dll" /MDd /Fa"Debug\" /EHa /nologo /Fo"Debug\" /Fp"Debug\Prog.pch" The linker options are: /OUT:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.exe" /MANIFEST /NXCOMPAT /PDB:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pdb" /DYNAMICBASE "curllib.lib" "winmm.lib" "kernel32.lib" "user32.lib" "gdi32.lib" "winspool.lib" "comdlg32.lib" "advapi32.lib" "shell32.lib" "ole32.lib" "oleaut32.lib" "uuid.lib" "odbc32.lib" "odbccp32.lib" /FIXED:NO /DEBUG /MACHINE:X86 /ENTRY:"Main" /INCREMENTAL /PGD:"D:\dev\Prog\Debug\Prog.pgd" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /ManifestFile:"Debug\Prog.exe.intermediate.manifest" /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT /NOLOGO /LIBPATH:"D:\dev\libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc\lib\Debug" /ASSEMBLYDEBUG /TLBID:1

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  • Splitting a test to a set of smaller tests

    - by mkorpela
    I want to be able to split a big test to smaller tests so that when the smaller tests pass they imply that the big test would also pass (so there is no reason to run the original big test). I want to do this because smaller tests usually take less time, less effort and are less fragile. I would like to know if there are test design patterns or verification tools that can help me to achieve this test splitting in a robust way. I fear that the connection between the smaller tests and the original test is lost when someone changes something in the set of smaller tests. Another fear is that the set of smaller tests doesn't really cover the big test. An example of what I am aiming at: //Class under test class A { public void setB(B b){ this.b = b; } public Output process(Input i){ return b.process(doMyProcessing(i)); } private InputFromA doMyProcessing(Input i){ .. } .. } //Another class under test class B { public Output process(InputFromA i){ .. } .. } //The Big Test @Test public void theBigTest(){ A systemUnderTest = createSystemUnderTest(); // <-- expect that this is expensive Input i = createInput(); Output o = systemUnderTest.process(i); // <-- .. or expect that this is expensive assertEquals(o, expectedOutput()); } //The splitted tests @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest1(){ // this method is a bit too long but its just an example.. Input i = createInput(); InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B b = mock(B.class); when(b.process(x)).thenReturn(expected); A classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassA(); classUnderTest.setB(b); Output o = classUnderTest.process(i); assertEquals(o, expected); verify(b).process(x); verifyNoMoreInteractions(b); } @PartlyDefines("theBigTest") // <-- so something like this should come from the tool.. @Test public void smallerTest2(){ InputFromA x = expectedInputFromA(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow Output expected = expectedOutput(); // this should be the same in both tests and it should be ensured somehow B classUnderTest = createInstanceOfClassB(); Output o = classUnderTest.process(x); assertEquals(o, expected); }

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  • Securing a license key with RSA key.

    - by Jesse Knott
    Hello, it's late, I'm tired, and probably being quite dense.... I have written an application that I need to secure so it will only run on machines that I generate a key for. What I am doing for now is getting the BIOS serial number and generating a hash from that, I then am encrypting it using a XML RSA private key. I then sign the XML to ensure that it is not tampered with. I am trying to package the public key to decrypt and verify the signature with, but every time I try to execute the code as a different user than the one that generated the signature I get a failure on the signature. Most of my code is modified from sample code I have found since I am not as familiar with RSA encryption as I would like to be. Below is the code I was using and the code I thought I needed to use to get this working right... Any feedback would be greatly appreciated as I am quite lost at this point the original code I was working with was this, this code works fine as long as the user launching the program is the same one that signed the document originally... CspParameters cspParams = new CspParameters(); cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; cspParams.Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore; // Create a new RSA signing key and save it in the container. RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(cspParams) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; This code is what I believe I should be doing but it's failing to verify the signature no matter what I do, regardless if it's the same user or a different one... RSACryptoServiceProvider rsaKey = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(); //Load the private key from xml file XmlDocument xmlPrivateKey = new XmlDocument(); xmlPrivateKey.Load("KeyPriv.xml"); rsaKey.FromXmlString(xmlPrivateKey.InnerXml); I believe this to have something to do with the key container name (Being a real dumbass here please excuse me) I am quite certain that this is the line that is both causing it to work in the first case and preventing it from working in the second case.... cspParams.KeyContainerName = "XML_DSIG_RSA_KEY"; Is there a way for me to sign/encrypt the XML with a private key when the application license is generated and then drop the public key in the app directory and use that to verify/decrypt the code? I can drop the encryption part if I can get the signature part working right. I was using it as a backup to obfuscate the origin of the license code I am keying from. Does any of this make sense? Am I a total dunce? Thanks for any help anyone can give me in this..

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  • Offline backup synchronization

    - by Pavan Kumar
    There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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  • Use native HBitmap in C# while preserving alpha channel/transparency. Please check this code, it works on my computer...

    - by David
    Let's say I get a HBITMAP object/handle from a native Windows function. I can convert it to a managed bitmap using Bitmap.FromHbitmap(nativeHBitmap), but if the native image has transparency information (alpha channel), it is lost by this conversion. There are a few questions on Stack Overflow regarding this issue. Using information from the first answer of this question (How to draw ARGB bitmap using GDI+?), I wrote a piece of code that I've tried and it works. It basically gets the native HBitmap width, height and the pointer to the location of the pixel data using GetObject and the BITMAP structure, and then calls the managed Bitmap constructor: Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap(bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); As I understand (please correct me if I'm wrong), this does not copy the actual pixel data from the native HBitmap to the managed bitmap, it simply points the managed bitmap to the pixel data from the native HBitmap. And I don't draw the bitmap here on another Graphics (DC) or on another bitmap, to avoid unnecessary memory copying, especially for large bitmaps. I can simply assign this bitmap to a PictureBox control or the the Form BackgroundImage property. And it works, the bitmap is displayed correctly, using transparency. When I no longer use the bitmap, I make sure the BackgroundImage property is no longer pointing to the bitmap, and I dispose both the managed bitmap and the native HBitmap. The Question: Can you tell me if this reasoning and code seems correct. I hope I will not get some unexpected behaviors or errors. And I hope I'm freeing all the memory and objects correctly. private void Example() { IntPtr nativeHBitmap = IntPtr.Zero; /* Get the native HBitmap object from a Windows function here */ // Create the BITMAP structure and get info from our nativeHBitmap NativeMethods.BITMAP bitmapStruct = new NativeMethods.BITMAP(); NativeMethods.GetObjectBitmap(nativeHBitmap, Marshal.SizeOf(bitmapStruct), ref bitmapStruct); // Create the managed bitmap using the pointer to the pixel data of the native HBitmap Bitmap managedBitmap = new Bitmap( bitmapStruct.bmWidth, bitmapStruct.bmHeight, bitmapStruct.bmWidth * 4, PixelFormat.Format32bppArgb, bitmapStruct.bmBits); // Show the bitmap this.BackgroundImage = managedBitmap; /* Run the program, use the image */ MessageBox.Show("running..."); // When the image is no longer needed, dispose both the managed Bitmap object and the native HBitmap this.BackgroundImage = null; managedBitmap.Dispose(); NativeMethods.DeleteObject(nativeHBitmap); } internal static class NativeMethods { [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct BITMAP { public int bmType; public int bmWidth; public int bmHeight; public int bmWidthBytes; public ushort bmPlanes; public ushort bmBitsPixel; public IntPtr bmBits; } [DllImport("gdi32", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "GetObject")] public static extern int GetObjectBitmap(IntPtr hObject, int nCount, ref BITMAP lpObject); [DllImport("gdi32.dll")] internal static extern bool DeleteObject(IntPtr hObject); }

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  • How can I highlight empty fields in ASP.NET MVC 2 before model binding has occurred?

    - by Richard Poole
    I'm trying to highlight certain form fields (let's call them important fields) when they're empty. In essence, they should behave a bit like required fields, but they should be highlighted if they are empty when the user first GETs the form, before POST & model validation has occurred. The user can also ignore the warnings and submit the form when these fields are empty (i.e. empty important fields won't cause ModelState.IsValid to be false). Ideally it needs to work server-side (empty important fields are highlighted with warning message on GET) and client-side (highlighted if empty when losing focus). I've thought of a few ways of doing this, but I'm hoping some bright spark can come up with a nice elegant solution... Just use a CSS class to flag important fields Update every view/template to render important fields with an important CSS class. Write some jQuery to highlight empty important fields when the DOM is ready and hook their blur events so highlights & warning messages can be shown/hidden as appropriate. Pros: Quick and easy. Cons: Unnecessary duplication of importance flags and warning messages across views & templates. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Custom data annotation and client-side validator Create classes similar to RequiredAttribute, RequiredAttributeAdapter and ModelClientValidationRequiredRule, and register the adapter with DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider.RegisterAdapter. Create a client-side validator like this that responds to the blur event. Pros: Data annotation follows DRY principle (Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> picks up field importance and warning message from attribute, no duplication). Cons: Must call TryValidateModel from GET actions to ensure empty fields are decorated. Not technically validation (client- & server-side rules don't match) so it's at the mercy of framework changes. Clients with JavaScript disabled will never see highlights/warnings. Clone the entire validation framework It strikes me that I'm trying to achieve exactly the same thing as validation but with warnings rather than errors. It needs to run before model binding (and therefore validation) has occurred. Perhaps it's worth designing a similar framework with annotations like Required, RegularExpression, StringLength, etc. that somehow cause Html.TextBoxFor<T> etc. to render the warning CSS class and Html.ValidationMessageFor<T> to emit the warning message and JSON needed to enable client-side blur checks. Pros: Sounds like something MVC 2 could do with out of the box. Cons: Way too much effort for my current requirement! I'm swaying towards option 1. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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  • jQuery / javascript and nested if statements

    - by rayne
    I have a multi-lingual page where I want to display form validation error in the user's language. I use a hidden input to determine which language version the user is browsing like this: <input type="hidden" name="lang" id="lang" value="<?php echo $lang; ?>" /> The PHP side of the script works, but jQuery doesn't seem to realize which language is passed on. It displays the English error message no matter on which language site I am. Here's the code (I removed the other form fields for length): $(document).ready(function(){ $('#contact').submit(function() { $(".form_message").hide(); var emailReg = /^([\w-\.]+@([\w-]+\.)+[\w-]{2,4})?$/; var lang = $("#lang").val(); var name = $("#name").val(); var dataString = { 'lang': lang, 'name': name } if (name == '') { if (lang == 'de') { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Fehler:</span> Bitte gib deinen Namen an!</p></div>'); } else { $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p><span class="error">Error:</span> Please enter your name!</p></div>'); } $("#name").focus(); $("#name").addClass('req'); } else { $("#loading").show(); $("#loading").fadeIn(400).html('<img src="/img/loading.gif" />Loading...'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/contact-post.php", data: dataString, cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#loading").hide(); $("#posted").after('<div class="form_message"><p>Thank you! Your contact request has been sent.</p></div>'); $("#contact input:submit").attr("disabled", "disabled").val("Success!"); } }); }return false; }); }); The problem seems to be somewhere in the nested if statement. Does jQuery / javascript even recognize nested ifs? And if yes, why is it not working?

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  • Which mobile operating system should I code for?

    - by samgoody
    It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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  • Form won't submit properly in IE

    - by VUELA
    Hi! My simple donation form submits properly except for Internet Explorer. I'm sure it has to do with issues with change() and focus() or blur(), but all my hundreds of attempts so far have failed me. I tried using .click() instead of change() as mentioned in this post:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/208471/getting-jquery-to-recognise-change-in-ie (and elsewhere), but I could not get it to work! ... so I am overlooking something simple perhaps. Any help is greatly appreciated!! Here is the link to the page: http://www.wsda.org/donate HTML FORM: <form id="donationForm" method="post" action="https://wsda.foxycart.com/cart.php" class="foxycart"> <input type="hidden" id="name" name="name" value="Donation" /> <input type="hidden" id="price" name="price" value="10" /> <div class="row"> <label for="price_select">How much would you like to donate?</label> <select id="price_select" name="price_select"> <option value="10">$10</option> <option value="20">$20</option> <option value="50">$50</option> <option value="100">$100</option> <option value="300">$300</option> <option value="0">Other</option> </select> </div> <div class="row" id="custom_amount"> <label for="price_input">Please enter an amount: $</label> <input type="text" id="price_input" name="price_select" value="" /> </div> <input type="submit" id="DonateBtn" value="Submit Donation »" /> </form> JQUERY: // donation form $("#custom_amount").hide(); $("#price_select").change(function(){ if ($("#price_select").val() == "0") { $("#custom_amount").show(); } else { $("#custom_amount").hide(); } $("#price").val($("#price_select").val()); }); $("#price_input").change(function(){ $("#price").val($("#price_input").val()); });

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  • jQuery - google chrome won't get updated textarea value

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, I have a textarea with default text 'write comment...'. when a user updates the textarea and clicks 'add comment' Google chrome does not get the new text. heres my code; function add_comment( token, loader ){ $('textarea.n-c-i').focus(function(){ if( $(this).html() == 'write a comment...' ) { $(this).html(''); } }); $('textarea.n-c-i').blur(function(){ if( $(this).html() == '' ) { $(this).html('write a comment...'); } }); $(".add-comment").bind("click", function() { try{ var but = $(this); var parent = but.parents('.n-w'); var ref = parent.attr("ref"); var comment_box = parent.find('textarea'); var comment = comment_box.val(); alert(comment); var con_wrap = parent.find('ul.com-box'); var contents = con_wrap .html(); var outa_wrap = parent.find('.n-c-b'); var outa = outa_wrap.html(); var com_box = parent.find('ul.com-box'); var results = parent.find('p.com-result'); results.html(loader); comment_box.attr("disabled", "disabled"); but.attr("disabled", "disabled"); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: './', data: 'add-comment=true&ref=' + encodeURIComponent(ref) + '&com=' + encodeURIComponent(comment) + '&token=' + token + '&aj=true', cache: false, timeout: 7000, error: function(){ $.fancybox(internal_error, internal_error_fbs); results.html(''); comment_box.removeAttr("disabled"); but.removeAttr("disabled"); }, success: function(html){ auth(html); if( html != '<span class="error-msg">Error, message could not be posted at this time</span>' ) { if( con_wrap.length == 0 ) { outa_wrap.html('<ul class="com-box">' + html + '</ul>' + outa); outa_wrap.find('li:last').fadeIn(); add_comment( token, loader ); }else{ com_box.html(contents + html); com_box.find('li:last').fadeIn(); } } results.html(''); comment_box.removeAttr("disabled"); but.removeAttr("disabled"); } }); }catch(err){alert(err);} return false; }); } any help much appreciated.

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  • XML Parsing Error - C#

    - by Indebi
    My code is having an XML parsing error at line 7 position 32 and I'm not really sure why Exact Error Dump 5/1/2010 10:21:42 AM System.Xml.XmlException: An error occurred while parsing EntityName. Line 7, position 32. at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Throw(Exception e) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Throw(String res, Int32 lineNo, Int32 linePos) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.HandleEntityReference(Boolean isInAttributeValue, EntityExpandType expandType, Int32& charRefEndPos) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseAttributeValueSlow(Int32 curPos, Char quoteChar, NodeData attr) at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseAttributes() at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseElement() at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.ParseElementContent() at System.Xml.XmlTextReaderImpl.Read() at System.Xml.XmlLoader.LoadNode(Boolean skipOverWhitespace) at System.Xml.XmlLoader.LoadDocSequence(XmlDocument parentDoc) at System.Xml.XmlLoader.Load(XmlDocument doc, XmlReader reader, Boolean preserveWhitespace) at System.Xml.XmlDocument.Load(XmlReader reader) at System.Xml.XmlDocument.Load(String filename) at Lookoa.LoadingPackages.LoadingPackages_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\Lookoa\Lookoa\LoadingPackages.cs:line 30 Xml File, please note this is just a sample because I want the program to work before I begin to fill this repository <repo> <Packages> <TheFirstPackage id="00001" longname="Mozilla Firefox" appver="3.6.3" pkgver="0.01" description="Mozilla Firefox is a free and open source web browser descended from the Mozilla Application Suite and managed by Mozilla Corporation. A Net Applications statistic put Firefox at 24.52% of the recorded usage share of web browsers as of March 2010[update], making it the second most popular browser in terms of current use worldwide after Microsoft's Internet Explorer." cat="WWW" rlsdate="4/8/10" pkgloc="http://google.com"/> </Packages> <categories> <WWW longname="World Wide Web" description="Software that's focus is communication or primarily uses the web for any particular reason."> </WWW> <Fun longname="Entertainment & Other" description="Music Players, Video Players, Games, or anything that doesn't fit in any of the other categories."> </Fun> <Work longname="Productivity" description="Application's commonly used for occupational needs or, stuff you work on"> </Work> <Advanced longname="System & Security" description="Applications that protect the computer from malware, clean the computer, and other utilities."> </Advanced> </categories> </repo> Small part of C# Code //Loading the Package and Category lists //The info from them is gonna populate the listboxes for Category and Packages Repository.Load("repo.info"); XmlNodeList Categories = Repository.GetElementsByTagName("categories"); foreach (XmlNode Category in Categories) { CategoryNumber++; CategoryNames[CategoryNumber] = Category.Name; MessageBox.Show(CategoryNames[CategoryNumber]); } The Messagebox.Show() is just to make sure it's getting the correct results

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  • How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

    - by kvaruni
    I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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