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  • JavaScript: When does JavaScript evaluate a function, onload or when the function is called?

    - by Benj
    When does JavaScript evaluate a function? Is it on page load or when the function is called? The reason why I ask is because I have the following code: function scriptLoaded() { // one of our scripts finished loading, detect which scripts are available: var jQuery = window.jQuery; var maps = window.google && google.maps; if (maps && !requiresGmaps.called) { requiresGmaps.called = true; requiresGmaps(); } if (jQuery && !requiresJQuery.called) { requiresJQuery.called = true; requiresJQuery(); } if (maps && jQuery && !requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps.called = true; requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } } // asynch download of script function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; // older IE... script.onreadystatechange=function () { if (this.readyState == 'complete') scriptLoaded.call(this); } script.onload=scriptLoaded; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { // create JQuery objects } function requiresGmaps() { // create Google Maps object, etc } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } What I want to do is perform asynchronous download of my JavaScript and start at the earliest possible time to begin executing those scripts but my code has dependencies on when the scripted have been obviously downloaded and loaded. When I try the code above, it appears that my browser is still attempting to evaluate code within my require* functions even before those functions have been called. Is this correct? Or am I misunderstanding what's wrong with my code?

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  • Mechanize form submit not going to the correct response page, no errors as to why. Something I'm doing?

    - by Zack Shapiro
    I threw this all in one controller for testing purposes. My code fills out the form correctly for adding a new address to your Amazon account. There are two buttons that submit this form, one takes you to add a new address which is what I don't want, and the other is just a Save & Continue input/image. When I submit the form via that button, as I do below, the form is still on the page, filled out as I have with my code. Inspecting the page titles, they're the same. There are no discernible errors that Mechanize or Amazon spit back. Any ideas? class AmazonCrawler def initialize @agent = Mechanize.new do |agent| agent.user_agent_alias = 'Mac Safari' agent.follow_meta_refresh = true agent.redirect_ok = true end end def login # login_url = "https://www.amazon.com/ap/signin?_encoding=UTF8&openid.assoc_handle=usflex&openid.claimed_id=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select&openid.identity=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0%2Fidentifier_select&openid.mode=checkid_setup&openid.ns=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fauth%2F2.0&openid.ns.pape=http%3A%2F%2Fspecs.openid.net%2Fextensions%2Fpape%2F1.0&openid.pape.max_auth_age=0&openid.return_to=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.amazon.com%2Fgp%2Fcss%2Fhomepage.html%3Fie%3DUTF8%26ref_%3Dgno_yam_ya" login_url = "https://www.amazon.com/gp/css/account/address/view.html?ie=UTF8&ref_=ya_add_address&viewID=newAddress" @agent.get(login_url) form = @agent.page.forms.first form.email = "[email protected]" form.radiobuttons.first.value = "0" form.radiobuttons.last.check form.password = "my_password" dashboard = @agent.submit(form) end end class UsersController < ApplicationController def index response = AmazonCrawler.new.login form = response.forms[1] # fill out form form.enterAddressFullName == "Your Name" form.enterAddressAddressLine1 = "123 Main Street" form.enterAddressAddressLine2 = "Apartment 34" form.enterAddressCity = "San Francisco" form.enterAddressStateOrRegion = "CA" form.enterAddressPostalCode = "94101" form.enterAddressPhoneNumber = "415-555-1212" form.AddressType = "RES" new_response = form.submit( form.button_with(value: /Save.*Continue/) ) end end

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  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

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  • why this simple javascript doesnt work on friefox and chrome?

    - by user1647406
    why this simple code i have written wont work on fire fon and chrome but it works carefully on IE ? whats wrong whit this javascript code ? i just want to find a way too get selected checkbox text ( or label) and use it by $_post on another page . sorry for my bad english . <meta content="text/html; charset=utf-8" http-equiv="Content-Type" /> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function ReadCheckbox() { var temp = ''; var radio; var popupTag ; for (var i=1 ; i<5 ; i++) { radio = document.getElementById('chk'+i); if(radio.checked == true){temp += radio.value} } document.getElementById('aaaa').value = temp; } </script> </head> <body> <label>What is your Site Address ?</label><br/> <label>NetNic.ir</label><input id="chk1" type="checkbox" value="NetNic.ir" /> <label>SarirWeb.Com</label><input id="chk2" type="checkbox" value="SarirWeb.Com"/> <label>LearnCD.ir</label><input id="chk3" type="checkbox" value="LearnCD.ir"/> <label>AnimLand.ir</label><input id="chk4" type="checkbox" value="AnimLand.ir"/> <br /> <br/> <textarea rows="2" name="aaaa" cols="20"></textarea> <input type="button" onclick="ReadCheckbox()" value="???" style="height:32px; width:83px;"/>

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  • How to force client browser to download images from server rather using its cache

    - by anonim.developer
    Assume a simple aspx data entry page in which admin user can upload an image as well as some other data. They are stored in database and the next time admin visits that page to edit record, image data fetched and a preview generated and saved to disk (using GDI+) and the preview is shown in an image control. This procedure works fine for the first time however if the image changes (a new one uploaded) the next time the page is surfed it shows previously uploaded image. I debugged the application and everything works correct. The new image data is in database and new preview is stored in Temp location however the page shows previous one. If I refresh the page it shows the new image preview. I should mention that preview is always saved to disk with one name (id of each record as the name). I think that is because of IE and other browsers use client cache instead of loading images each time a page is surfed. I wonder if there is a way to force the client browser to refresh itself so the newly uploaded image is shown without user intervention. Thanks and appreciation in advance,

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  • Quick question regarding MVC framework for a java game

    - by Jason
    I have a question regarding the use of the MVC framework for a blackjack game im writing in java. As I understand, my model would be a class that stores the state of the game, and more specifically, each players hand. Within the model class, I would have an array of listeners, which would be notified each time the game state changes (ie a player has drawn a new card). These listeners would be my viewer, which is the class that handles the display of the game. This class would implement the ActionListener interface, and each time the model changes, it would call/"notify" my viewer's actionPerformed method. My question is as follows: I intend to have two JPanels, each devoted to displaying the respective player's hand. As a player draws a new card, a new ImageIcon would be added to the panel. My question is how would the viewer class know what card has been added to the player's hand? I suppose I could store the player's hand before a notify event, and then upon the notification event, compare the new state with the old, to find out what has changed. I'm a complete novice here, so I could be completely wrong, but it seems a bit tedious to do this. Is there a more efficient/common way of detecting what has changed in the model between the before and after state? Another solution would be to redraw the entire panel each time the notification occurs? Would this be a better idea?

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  • jQuery .load() call doesn't execute javascript in loaded html file

    - by Mike
    This seems to be a problem related to Safari only. I've tried 4 on mac and 3 on windows and am still having no luck. What I'm trying to do is load an external html file and have the Javascript that is embedded execute. The code I'm trying to use is this: $("#myBtn").click(function() { $("#myDiv").load("trackingCode.html"); }); trackingCode.html looks like this (simple now, but will expand once/if I get this working): <html> <head> <title>Tracking HTML File</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> alert("outside the jQuery ready"); $(function() { alert("inside the jQuery ready"); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I'm seeing both alert messages in IE (6 & 7) and Firefox (2 & 3). However, I am not able to see the messages in Safari (the last browser that I need to be concerned with - project requirements - please no flame wars). Any thoughts on why Safari is ignoring the Javascript in the trackingCode.html file? Eventually I'd like to be able to pass Javascript objects to this trackingCode.html file to be used within the jQuery ready call, but I'd like to make sure this is possible in all browsers before I go down that road. Thanks for your help!

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  • How do you chain functions dynamically in jQuery?

    - by clarke78
    I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

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  • Calling multiple functions simultaneously with jquery.

    - by clarke78
    I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

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  • How to Get / Set Div and Table Width / Height

    - by Nasser Hajloo
    I have a Table (or a region) and want to set it's Width and Height value to another Div (or region). The second one is actually a Ajax Indicator modal which display a loading text when the page is asynchronously post back. here is the example <table id="MainTable"> <tr> <td> Content .... </td> </tr> </table> <div id="Progress"> Ajax Indocator </div> the following javascript didn't work document.getElementById("Progress").style.width = document.getElementById("MainTable").style.width; document.getElementById("Progress").style.height = document.getElementById("MainTable").style.height; It should work both on IE and FireFox. how to correct it. I checked some other solution in StackOverFlow but I couldn't fix it. I'mwaiting to hear from you.

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  • Move and rename file in android

    - by Andre Fróes
    I am trying to copy a file to another folder in the android, but so far, i got no success. I manage to do so with a selected image and when taking a photo, but not with files. I've read and tried several solutions passed by the community (searched over the forum and the internet), but none of it was able to solve my problem when copying. First things first. I added the permissions to my manifest: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> after that, before copying a file, i print its filepath and the directory file path: 06-10 11:11:11.700: I/System.out(1442): /mimetype/storage/sdcard/Misc/Javascript erros for Submit and Plan buttons in IE.doc 06-10 11:11:11.710: I/System.out(1442): /storage/sdcard/mywfm/checklist-files both exists: to copy the file to the expected folder I used the FileUtils: try { FileUtils.copyFile(selectedFile, dir); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } The problem is: I get no exception and the file isn't there. I tried this solution either: How to move/rename file from internal app storage to external storage on Android? same thing, no exception, but no file either.

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  • Google Chrome forgetting registration cookie immediately

    - by Ryan Giglio
    I'm having trouble with cookies on my site's registration form. When a user creates an account, PHP sets one cookie with their user id, and one cookie with a hash containing their user agent and a few other things. Both of these cookies are set to expire in an hour. This is the code that sets the cookie after creating your account $registerHash = hash( "sha512", $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'] . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] . $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] ); setcookie("register_user_id", $newUserID, time() + 7200, "/"); setcookie("register_hash", $registerHash, time() + 7200, "/"); The next page is a confirmation page which sends an email and then optionally lets the user go on to fill out more account information. If the user goes on to fill out more, it uses the cookie to know what account to save it to. It works correctly in Firefox and IE, but in Chrome the cookie is forgotten as soon as you go to the next page. The cookie simply doesn't exist. You can see the problem here: http://crewinyourcode.com/register/paid/ If you use Chrome, you will get a registration timeout error as soon as you try to advance past the confirmation page. However on Firefox it works fine.

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  • Remove in between folder structure from the url in a php website

    - by pabz
    I have a php website having following folder structure (basic structure). project_name app controller model view css js img index.php So when I view index.php in WAMP the url is http://localhost/project_name/ But when I go inside the site (eg. login.php which resides under view folder) url is like this. http://localhost/project_name/app/view/login.php I found that using .htaccess we can change the urls. So I tried this (in .htaccess). RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / Redirect 301 /project_name/app/view/login.php /project_name/login.php RewriteRule ^/project_name/login.php$ /project_name/app/view/login.php [L] Now url is http://localhost/project_name/login.php It is correct. But it seems php does not use the original link to grab the file (ie. from /project_name/app/view/login.php) but from here /project_name/login.php So it throws 404 error. What should I change? Please help me, i am just trying to hide /app/view/ part from the url so that user won't see my folder structure. I have read about various ways of doing that for about 9hrs today but still couldn't get anything working correctly. Hope my question is clear enough. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Slow loading of UITableView. How know why?

    - by mamcx
    I have a UITableView that show a long list of data. Use sections and follow the sugestion of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695814/how-solve-slow-scrolling-in-uitableview . The flow is load a main UITableView & push a second selecting a row from there. However, with 3000 items take 11 seconds to show. I suspect first from the load of the records from sqlite (I preload the first 200). So I cut it to only 50. However, no matter if I preload only 1 or 500, the time is the same. The view is made from IB and all is opaque. I run out of ideas in how detect the problem. I run the Instruments tool but not know what to look. Also, when the user select a cell from the previous UITable, no visual feedback is show (ie: the cell not turn selected) for a while so he thinks he not select it and try several times. Is related to this problem. What to do? NOTE: The problem is only in the actual device: iPod Touch 2d generation Using fmdb as sqlite api Doing the caching in viewDidLoad Using NSDictionary for the caching Using a NSAutoreleasePool for the caching part. Only caching the row ID & mac 4 fields necesary to show the cell data UIView made with interface builder, SDK 2.2.1 Instruments say I use 2.5 MB in the device

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  • fastest public web app framework for quick DB apps?

    - by Steve Eisner
    I'd like to pick up a new tech for my toolbox - something for rapid prototyping of web apps. Brief requirements: public access (not hosted on my machine) - like Google's appengine, etc no tricky configuration necessary to build a simple web app host DB access (small storage provided) including some kind of SQLish query language easy front end HTML templating ability to access as a JSON service C# or Java,PHP or Python - or a fun new language to learn is OK free! An example app, very simple: render an AJAXy editable (add/delete/edit/drag) list of rich-data list items via some template language, so I can quickly mock up a UI for a client. ie. I can do most of the work client-side, but need convenient back end to handle the permanent storage. (In fact I suppose it doesn't even need HTML templating if I can directly access a DB via AJAX calls.) I realize this is a bit vague but am wondering if anyone has recommendations. A Rails host might be best for this (but probably not free) or maybe App Engine, or some other choice I'm not aware of? I've been doing everything with heavyweight servers (ASP.NET etc) for so long that I'm just not up on the latest... Thanks - I'll follow up on comments if this isn't clear enough :)

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  • How to delay execution of a method in c#?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have this if condition, if (sendSMS(Convert.ToInt32(DLComportNo.SelectedItem.Text), TxtDriMob.Text, TxtCliDet.Text) && sendSMS(Convert.ToInt32(DLComportNo.SelectedItem.Text), TxtCliMob.Text, TxtDriDet.Text)) { // I am inserting details to my db } and my sendSMS method looks like this, private bool sendSMS(int portNo, string mobNo, string details) { try { SerialPort SerialPort1 = new SerialPort(); SerialPort1.PortName = "COM" + portNo.ToString(); SerialPort1.BaudRate = 9600; SerialPort1.Parity = Parity.None; SerialPort1.DataBits = 8; SerialPort1.StopBits = StopBits.One; SerialPort1.RtsEnable = true; SerialPort1.DtrEnable = true; SerialPort1.Encoding.GetEncoder(); SerialPort1.ReceivedBytesThreshold = 1; SerialPort1.NewLine = Environment.NewLine; SerialPort1.Open(); SerialPort1.Write("AT" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1" + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(500); SerialPort1.Write("AT+CMGS=" + (char)34 + mobNo + (char)34 + SerialPort1.NewLine); Sleep(1000); SerialPort1.Write(details + (char)26); Sleep(2000); SerialPort1.Close(); } catch { } return true; } What happens is when i use break point in my sendSMS i get my output (ie) both the methods get executed and messages are sent properly... But when i removed my breakpoint both the methods in the if statement are executed but message from the first method is sent and not from the second method.... Any suggestion?

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  • How to automatically extend the tab control as items are added to it without creating a scroll bar?

    - by MICHELINE
    I am using a WPF user control (tab control) to add tab items dynamically in the simplified code below: .... foreach (string id in ids) { TabControl.Items.Add(CreateTabItem(id)); } private TabItem CreateTabItem(string name) { StackPanel txtBlock = new TextBlock(); txtblock.Text = name; txtBlock.HorizontalAlignment = Horizontalalignment.Center; panel.Children.Add(txtBlock); TabItem item = new TabItem(); item.Header = panel; <SomeControl> control = new <SomeControl>(); item.Content = control; return item; } In the xaml file I specified the following to stack all my tab items to the left column: MinWidth="100" MinHeight="300" TabStripPlacement="Left" How do I make my tab control automatically extending (ie. stretching) its height to show all the tab items as I add them in? For now, I have to manually extend the height of the display window to see all the tab items. Your insights/tips are greatly appreciated. PS: if you know how to make the vertical scroll bar appears (without adding scroll bar to my control) as soon as the tab items exceed the window height, I can settle for that if there are no answers for my original intent.

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  • Why can't I dynamically add rows to a HTML table using JavaScript in Internet Explorer?

    - by karlthorwald
    In Firefox it works, in my Internet Explorer 6 or 7 it doesn't: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function newLine() { var tdmod = document.createElement('td'); tdmod.appendChild(document.createTextNode("dynamic")); var tr = document.createElement('tr'); tr.appendChild(tdmod); var tt = document.getElementById("t1"); tt.appendChild(tr); } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="newLine()">newLine</a> <table id="t1" border="1"> <tr> <td> static </td> </tr> </table> </body> The user clicks on the link "newLine" and new rows should be added to the table. How to make this work also in IE? Edit: Thanks to the accepted answer I changed it like this and now it works: <table border="1"> <tbody id="t1"> <tr> <td> static </td> </tr> </tbody> </table>

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  • dotNet Templated, Repeating, Databound ServerControl: Counting the templates OnDataBind?

    - by Campbeln
    I have a server control that wraps an underlying class which manages a number of indexes to track where it is in a dataset (ie: RenderedRecordCount, ErroredRecordCount, NewRecordCount, etc.). I've got the server control rendering great, but OnDataBinding I'm having an issue as to seems to happen after CreateChildControls and before Render (both of which properly manage the iteration of the underlying indexes). While I'm somewhat familiar with the ASP.NET page lifecycle, this one seems to be beyond me at the moment. So... how do I hook into the iterative process OnDataBinding uses so I can manage the underlying indexes? Will I have to iterate over the ITemplates myself, managing the indexes as I go or is there an easier solution? Also... I implemented the iteration of the underlying indexes during CreateChildControls originally in the belief that was the proper place to hook in for events like OnDataBinding (thining it was done as the controls were being .Add'd). Now it seems that this may actually be unnecessary. So I guess the secondary question is: What happens during CreateChildControls? Are the unadulterated (read: with <%-tags in place) controls added to the .Controls collection without any other processing?

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  • Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

    - by Gilly
    Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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  • Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

    - by i8abug
    Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

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  • Hide Dynamically Added Columns/Fields

    - by baldwingrand
    I have some dynamically created rows/columns. What I'd like to do is set a section of it (txtOffsetID) to be hidden. I tried this: txtOffsetID.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); but it didn't work. I want to hide that entire column and any new columns added. I need it to work in IE. Thanks. Sample code: function addNewOffsetItem() { var iX = document.getElementById("txtOffsetIndex").value; iX ++; document.getElementById("txtOffsetIndex").value = iX; var tbl = document.getElementById("tblOffsetDetail").getElementsByTagName("TBODY")[0]; var tr = document.createElement("TR"); tbl.appendChild(tr); //This section should be hidden. //txtOffsetID1 var tdID = document.createElement("TD"); tr.appendChild(tdID); var p = document.createElement("P"); tdID.appendChild(p); var txtOffsetID = document.createElement("input"); p.appendChild(txtOffsetID); txtOffsetID.id = "txtOffsetID" + iX; txtOffsetID.setAttribute('name','txtOffsetID' + iX); //This section should be visible. //txtOffsetComments1 var tdComments = document.createElement("TD"); tr.appendChild(tdComments); var p = document.createElement("P"); tdComments.appendChild(p); var txtOffsetComments = document.createElement("textarea"); p.appendChild(txtOffsetComments); txtOffsetComments.id = "txtOffsetComments" + iX; txtOffsetComments.setAttribute('name','txtOffsetComments' + iX); }

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  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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  • Should a "script" tag be allowed to remove itself?

    - by Nischal
    We've been having a discussion at our workplace on this with some for and some against the behavior. Wanted to hear views from you guys : <html> <body> <div> Test! <script> document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); </script> </div> </body> </html> Should the above script work and do what it's supposed to do? First, let's see what's happening here : I have a javascript that's inside the <div> element. This javascript will delete the child node within body which happens to hold the div inside which the script itself exists. Now, the above script works fine in Firefox, Opera and IE8. But IE6 and IE7 give an alert saying they cannot open the page. Let's not debate on how IE should have handled this (they've accepted it as a bug and hence fixed it in IE8). The point here is since the 'SCRIPT' tag itself is a part of DOM, should it be allowed to do something like this? Should it even exist after such an operation? Edit: Firefox, Opera, IE9 etc. do not remove the 'script' tag if I run the above code. But, document.getElementsByTagName('script').length returns 0! To understand what I mean, add alert(document.getElementsByTagName('script').length); before and after document.body.removeChild(document.getElementsByTagName('div')[0]); in the code above.

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  • Iterate over defined elements of a JS array

    - by sibidiba
    I'm using a JS array to Map IDs to actual elements, i.e. a key-value store. I would like to iterate over all elements. I tried several methods, but all have its caveats: for (var item in map) {...} Does iterates over all properties of the array, therefore it will include also functions and extensions to Array.prototype. For example someone dropping in the Prototype library in the future will brake existing code. var length = map.lenth; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { var item = map[i]; ... } does work but just like $.each(map, function(index, item) {...}); They iterate over the whole range of indexes 0..max(id) which has horrible drawbacks: var x = []; x[1]=1; x[10]=10; $.each(x, function(i,v) {console.log(i+": "+v);}); 0: undefined 1: 1 2: undefined 3: undefined 4: undefined 5: undefined 6: undefined 7: undefined 8: undefined 9: undefined 10: 10 Of course my IDs wont resemble a continuous sequence either. Moreover there can be huge gaps between them so skipping undefined in the latter case is unacceptable for performance reasons. How is it possible to safely iterate over only the defined elements of an array (in a way that works in all browsers and IE)?

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