Search Results

Search found 15231 results on 610 pages for 'presentation model'.

Page 295/610 | < Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >

• Urgent Help not showing the grid on the page..

  - by kumar

  hello Friends, I have two user controlers 1) name.ascx 2) friends.ascx in both controlers Code is same just changing the Grid name and columns but URL pointing is differnt.. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid, "JQGrid1") %> </div> <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<JQGridMVCExamples.Models.OrdersJqGridModel2>" %> <div> <%= Html.Trirand().JQGrid(Model.OrdersGrid2, "JQGrid2") %> </div> But what hapeening is for second gri JQGrid2 is not showing up.. but First Grid is showing.. when i do first time second grid execution is not shoiwng up but when I do after first grid.. I am getting the result but Frist grid columns I am getting not the second grid columns.. can any body have sujjestion on this? thanks

  Read the article

• Binding Data into a Resource

  - by Jordan

  How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

  Read the article

• DBIx::Class base result class

  - by Rob

  Hi there, I am trying to create a model for Catalyst by using DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader. I want the result classes to have a base class I can add methods to. So MyTable.pm inherits from Base.pm which inherits from DBIx::Class::core (default). Somehow I cannot figure out how to do this. my create script is below, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The script creates my model ok, but all resultset classes just directly inherit from DBIx::Class::core without my Base class in between. #!/usr/bin/perl use DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader qw/ make_schema_at /; #specifically for the entities many-2-many relation $ENV{DBIC_OVERWRITE_HELPER_METHODS_OK} = 1; make_schema_at( 'MyApp::Schema', { dump_directory => '/tmp', debug => 1, overwrite_modifications => 1, components => ['EncodedColumn'], #encoded password column use_namespaces => 1, default_resultset_class => 'Base' }, [ 'DBI:mysql:database=mydb;host=localhost;port=3306','rob', '******' ], );

  Read the article

• reshaping a data frame into long format in R

  - by user1773115

  I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

  Read the article

• Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

  - by Dite

  A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

  Read the article

• Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

  - by user555937

  Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

  Read the article

• HTML Helper/Text Box validation

  - by slandau

  I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

  - by MLabib

  I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

  Read the article

• Resharper 5: How do I set the default formatting style for inline code blocks?

  - by nukefusion

  I've got a problem with the formatting of inline code blocks within the VS2010 text editor and wonder if anyone else has had similar problems and found the 'magic' setting I'm looking for. I'm working my way through tutorials in an MVC book. Whenever I add some inline code blocks to a view I want them formatted like so: <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> What I'm actually getting is this (auto-formatted by the IDE when I finish writing the code): <% foreach (var link in Model) { %> <a href="<%=Url.RouteUrl(link.RouteValues)%>"> <%=link.Text%> </a> <% } %> It's pretty irritating. Any ideas on how I can instruct the IDE to leave my <% % tags alone? I've been fiddling with options under "Tools - Options - Text Editor" for ages but alas am getting nowhere... Edit: I've just noticed that this is down to Resharper 5 (when I disable it the problem disappears), however I still don't know how to stop it. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Setting the height of a row in a JTable in java

  - by Douglas Grealis

  I have been searching for a solution to be able to increase the height of a row in a JTable. I have been using the setRowHeight(int int) method which compiles and runs OK, but no row[s] have been increased. When I use the getRowHeight(int) method of the row I set the height to, it does print out the size I increased the row to, so I'm not sure what is wrong. The code below is a rough illustration how I am trying to solve it. My class extends JFrame. String[] columnNames = {"Column 1", "Column 2", "Column 1 3"}; JTable table = new JTable(new DefaultTableModel(columnNames, people.size())); DefaultTableModel model = (DefaultTableModel) table.getModel(); int count =1; for(Person p: people) { model.insertRow(count,(new Object[]{count, p.getName(), p.getAge()+"", p.getNationality})); count++; } table.setRowHeight(1, 15);//Try set height to 15 (I've tried higher) Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong? I am trying to increase the height of row 1 to 15 pixels?

  Read the article

• Entity Framework not populating context

  - by stimms

  I'm just starting out with some entity framework exploration, I figured it was time to see what everybody was complaining about. I am running into an issue where the entities don't seem to be returning any of the object context. I generated the model from a database with three tables which link to one another. Courses Instructors CanTeach Relationships are as you would expect: a course can relate to multiple CanTeach entities and an instructor can also relate to multiple CanTeach entities. I also added an OData service to my project which also makes use of the same model. So I can run queries like from a in CanTeach where a.Instructor.FirstName == "Barry" select new { Name = a.Instructor.FirstName + " " + a.Instructor.LastName, Course = a.Course.Name} without issue against the OData endpoint using LINQPad. However when I do a simple query like public Instructor GetInstructorFromID(int ID) { return context.Instructors.Where(i => i.ID == ID).FirstOrDefault(); } The CanTeach list is empty. I know everything in EF is lazy loaded and it is possible that my context is out of scope by the time I look at the object context, however even trying to get the object context as soon as the query is run results in and empty object context. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

  - by Sumeet Pareek

  Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

  Read the article

• List of Objects to be used on ascx view with Inherits data already loaded MVC...

  - by user54197

  I have an object list being loded from a database to a drop down list. The Model loads the data to the Controller. The aspx view includes an ascx view. The ascx view already inherits data from another Project. I cannot set my List object in the ascx page. Can this be done? Model ... string List = dr["example"].ToString().Trim(); int indicator = dr["ex"].ToString().Trim(); LossCauseList.Add(new LossCauses(indicator, List)); ... Controller LossCauses test = new LossCauses(); test.GetLossCauses(LossType); TempData["Select"] = test.LossCauseList; return View(myData); Partial View ... <select id="SelectedProperty"> <% List<string> selectProperty = new List<string>(); selectProperty = TempData["Select"] as List<string>; foreach(var item in selectProperty) { %> <option><%=item.ToString() %></option> <% } %> </select> ... Partial view's List should be an actual LossCauses object. HELP!!!

  Read the article

• ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

  - by Mortanis

  I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

  Read the article

• How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

  - by user1521587

  I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

  Read the article

• Rails Functional Test Failing Due to Association

  - by Koby

  I have an accounts model that holds some basic account info (account name, website, etc). I then have a user model that has the following in the app/models/user.rb belongs_to :account I also have the following in my routes.rb map.resources :account, :has_many => [:users, :othermodel] the problem I'm facing is that the following test is failing: test "should create user" do assert_difference('User.count') do post :create, :user => { } #this is the line it's actually failing on end assert_redirected_to user_path(assigns(:user)) #it doesn't get here yet end The error it gives is "Can't find Account without ID" so I kind of understand WHY it's failing, because of the fact that it doesn't have the account object (or account_id as it were) to know under what account to create the user. I have tried variations of the following but I am completely lost: post :create, :user => { accounts(:one) } #I have the 'fixtures :accounts' syntax at the top of the test class post :create, [accounts(:one), :user] => { } post :create, :user => { accounts(:one), #other params for :user } and like I said, just about every variation I could think of. I can't find much documentation on doing this and this might be why people have moved to Factories for doing test data, but I want to understand things that come standard in Rails before moving onto other things. Can anyone help me get this working?

  Read the article

• Unable to save data in database manually and get latest auto increment id, cakePHP

  - by shabby

  I have checked this question as well and this one as well. I am trying to implement the model described in this question. What I want to do is, on the add function of message controller, create a record in thread table(this table only has 1 field which is primary key and auto increment), then take its id and insert it in the message table along with the user id which i already have, and then save it in message_read_state and thread_participant table. This is what I am trying to do in Thread Model: function saveThreadAndGetId(){ //$data= array('Thread' => array()); $data= array('id' => ' '); //Debugger::dump(print_r($data)); $this->save($data); debug('id: '.$this->id); $threadId = $this->getInsertID(); debug($threadId); $threadId = $this->getLastInsertId(); debug($threadId); die(); return $threadId; } $data= array('id' => ' '); This line from the above function adds a row in the thread table, but i am unable to retrieve the id. Is there any way I can get the id, or am I saving it wrongly? Initially I was doing the query thing in the message controller: $this->Thread->query('INSERT INTO threads VALUES();'); but then i found out that lastId function doesnt work on manual queries so i reverted.

  Read the article

• How to get JTree expanded?

  - by Dzmitry Zhaleznichenka

  I have a wizard with several screens where user has to fill his/her details for further processing. At the second screen I have a radio group with three radio buttons that enable additional elements. To proceed, user has to choose one of them. When user selects third button, single-selection JTree filled in with data enables and user has to select an option from it. Then user has to press "Next" to get to next screen. The option he\she had selected is stored as a TreePath. So far so good. My problem is the following. If the user wants to come back from the following screen to the screen with a JTree, I want to provide him\her with the JTree expanded to the option that had been selected and to highlight the option. However, whatsoever I try to do for that (any combinations of expandPath, scrollPathToVisible, addSelectionPath, makeVisible) always provides me with a collapsed tree. I try to expand both leaves and nodes. My code looks like this: rbProcessJTree.setSelected(isProcessJTree()); if (null != getSelectedTablePath()){ trTables.addSelectionPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.expandPath(getSelectedTablePath()); trTables.scrollPathToVisible(getSelectedTablePath()); } When setSelected() is called, state change listener is invoked that enables JTree. The model is loaded during the form initialization. Each time I switch between screens, I save the input data from previous screen and dispose it. Then, when I need to open previous screen back, I save data from the following screen, dispose it, load data to this screen and show it. So each time the screen is generating from scratch. Could you please explain, what sequence of operations has to be done to get JTree expanded in a newly created form,with data model loaded and selection path provided?

  Read the article

• Data Warehouse: Modelling a future schedule

  - by Pat

  I'm creating a DW that will contain data on financial securities such as bonds and loans. These securities are associated with payment schedules. For example, a bond could pay quarterly, while a mortage would usually pay monthly (sometimes biweekly). The payment schedule is created when the security is traded and, in the majority of cases, will remain unchanged. However, the design would need to accomodate those cases where it does change. I'm currently attempting to model this data and I'm having difficulty coming up with a workable design. One of the most commonly queried fields is "next payment date". Users often want to know when a security will pay next. Therefore, I want to make it as easy as possible for them to get the next payment date and amount for each security. Also, users often run historical queries in which case they'd want the next payment date and amount as of a specific point in time. For example, they may want to look back at 1/31/09 and query the next payment dates (which would usually be in February 2009 for mortgages). It's also common that they want to query a security's entire payment schedule, which might consist of 360 records (30 year mortgage x 12 payments/year). Since the next payment date and amount would be changing each month or even biweekly, these fields wouldn't seem to fit into a slow-changing dimension very well. It would probably make more sense to use a fact table, but I'm unsure of how to model it. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How should approach allowing users to create notes with revisions?

  - by Magicked

  I'm working on a Rails project where I want to allow users to create individual notes, which are really just text fields at this time. With each note, the user can edit what they have previously written, but the old version is kept in a revision table. I'm trying to figure out the best way to approach this. My initial thoughts are to have the following relationships: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :note_revisions belongs_to :user end class NoteRevision < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :note_revision end The Note model will only contain a timestamp of when the note was first created. The NoteRevision model will contain the text, as well as a timestamp for each revision. This way, every time a new revision is made, a new entry is created into the NoteRevision table which is tracked through the Note table. Hopefully this makes sense! First, does this look like a good way to do this? If so, I'm having trouble figuring out how the controller and view will present this information in one form. Are there any good tutorials or has someone seen anything similar that can point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• CGridView Filter doesn't work when you add more than one button to the CButtonColumn

  - by era

  I have a CGridView as follows, <?php $this->widget('zii.widgets.grid.CGridView', array( 'id'=>'order-grid', 'dataProvider'=>$model->search(), 'filter'=>$model, 'columns'=>array( 'order_id', //'ordered_datetime', 'customer_id', 'status', //'delivery_address', array( 'class'=>'CButtonColumn', 'template' => '{view} {rollback} {receive}{pack} {dispatch}{delivered}', 'htmlOptions'=>array('width'=>'250px'), 'buttons'=>array( 'receive'=>array( 'id'=>'receive', 'name'=>'receive', 'url'=>'$this->grid->controller->createUrl("/shop/order/admin&received=true", array("id"=>$data->order_id,"asDialog"=>1,"gridId"=>$this->grid->id))', 'type'=>'submit', 'imageUrl'=>'/mdg/images/Receive1.png', 'visible'=>'($data->status=="pending")?true:false;' ), 'rollback'=>array( 'id'=>'rollback', 'name'=>'rollback', 'url'=>'$this->grid->controller->createUrl("/shop/order/admin&rollback=true", array("id"=>$data->order_id,"asDialog"=>1,"gridId"=>$this->grid->id))', 'imageUrl'=>'/mdg/images/rollback.jpg', 'visible'=>'($data->status=="pending")?false:true;' ), ), ), ), )); ? And When I add one more button to the buttons array, the filter doesnt work. Any Idea why that is? It's Great if anyone can help.. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to face observable object containing an observable field

  - by iseek

  Hello, I need a hint concerning MVC and Observer-Pattern. For example a model contains the classes "Address" and "Person". The Address class contains the fields street:String, zipcode:String, location:String. Whereas the Person class contains the fields name:String, firstName:String, address:Address. My approach so far looks something like this: Both, Address and Person are observable. If one of their setters is being called, I validate whether the current value and new value differ. Only in this case an update event is fired. The event contains the source, the name of the changed field, the old and the new value. The class for the view contains text fields to display and edit the information of a person: name, firstname, street, zipcode, location. It knows the Person model and is an subscribed observer for the person. So it gets the update events from the person object. My questions concerns the address field from type Address in the person class, since an address is observable on its own. If the view gets an update event from person when a new address has been set, I can update all of the address related fields in the view. But what if a field of the address changes? Should the view also register for update events from the address? Any hints about common design approaches would be appreciated. Greetings.

  Read the article

• implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

  - by tommy

  How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• Display and Use Advanced Find for Product Subscriptions by Account in Microsoft CRM 4.0

  - by Chris

  By default when viewing an account in edit mode you have access to Opportunities, Invoices, and Quotes which contain the products being shopped by the account and/or the sales department. I'm trying to determine where to store, display, and use the products that an account has a subscription too. I may not understand the implementation but it seems that there should be "Products" option directly off the root Account management window that will show the user all the products the account has purchased. We are trying to integrate this with our production tracking system where product sales can originate from other channels that will not flow through CRM first. This product subscription does not fit into the Opportunity, Quote, or Invoice model because they are confirmed recurring sales that were automatically purchased via tools like a Public Website, Portal, etc. By enabling this tracking in CRM we can use the advanced find feature to facilitate follow up sales and marketing efforts. Example: Find everyone who is subscribed to model A, so we can notify them of a new holiday campaign where they can get 10% off on all add-ons. It's my assumption that this is a common scenario, however I'd like to better understand how to approach this within the world of Microsoft CRM. Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

  - by user227290

  I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >