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  • Xcode: Display Login View in applicationDidBecomeActive

    - by Patrick
    In my app I would like to show a login screen - which will be displayed when the app starts and when the app becomes active. For reference, I am using storyboards, ARC and it is a tabbed bar application. First off, I have this method which returns the topViewController. - (UIViewController *)topViewController:(UIViewController *)rootViewController { if (rootViewController.presentedViewController == nil) { return rootViewController; } if ([rootViewController.presentedViewController isMemberOfClass:[UINavigationController class]]) { UINavigationController *navigationController = (UINavigationController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; UIViewController *lastViewController = [[navigationController viewControllers] lastObject]; return [self topViewController:lastViewController]; } UIViewController *presentedViewController = (UIViewController *)rootViewController.presentedViewController; return [self topViewController:presentedViewController]; } And I call this method here: - (void)applicationDidBecomeActive:(UIApplication *)application { if ( ... ) { // if the user needs to login PasswordViewController *passwordView = [[PasswordViewController alloc] init]; UIViewController *myView = [self topViewController:self.window.rootViewController]; [myView presentModalViewController:passwordView animated:NO]; } } To an extent this does work - I can call a method in viewDidAppear which shows an alert view to allow the user to log in. However, this is undesirable and I would like to have a login text box and other ui elements. If I do not call my login method, nothing happens and the screen stays black, even though I have put a label and other elements on the view. Does anyone know a way to resolve this? My passcode view is embedded in a Navigation Controller, but is detached from the main storyboard.

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  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

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  • Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

    - by zildjohn01
    I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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  • Explain "Leader/Follower" Pattern

    - by Alex B
    I can't seem to find a good explanation of "Leader/Follower" pattern. All explanations either simply refer to it in the context of some problem, or are completely meaningless. Can anyone explain to the the mechanics of how this pattern works, and why and how it improves performance over more traditional asynchronous IO models? Examples and links to diagrams are appreciated too.

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • I need a tutorial for IIS/ASP.Net administration

    - by TheCodeMonk
    My technical support staff is only a little familiar with IIS and that's only as far as install goes. They need to install/update and configure ASP.Net web applications and WCF services that we write. Does anyone know any good tutorials/books/web sites that can help them understand some of the basic concepts of web applications and maintaining them on IIS?

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  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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  • javascript check function for a html form

    - by Reteras Remus
    I'm having a problem with a HTML form (name, e-mail, subject, message), I can't validate the form if it was completed correct or not. I want to call a javascript function when the form is submitted and alert if a field wasn't completed correct. My problem is with the submit button, because my boss said that I must use he's own php function to insert a submit button. The php function looke like: function normal_button($text, $width, $param = '', $class = 'button-blue') { $content = '<div class="'.$class.'" style="width:'.$width.'px;" '.$param.'>'.$text.'</div>'; return $content; } and how I call the function: echo normal_button('Send it', '100', 'onclick="document.getElementById(\'emailForm\').submit();" '); I tried to call the js function declaring the onSubmit="return checkForm(this)" in the <form action='email.php' method='post'> HTML form, but I can't "catch" the submit. Also I tried to catch it with jquery, $(document).ready(function() { $('.normal_button').click(function() { }); ); but I can't return false if a field wasn't completed correct. I must use he's PHP function to insert the submit button, but how can I "catch" the fields, how can I validate them? Any suggestions? Thank you !

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Calling web service from seems to hang

    - by anothershrubery
    I am trying to call an asmx web service from an Android app. Just literally started some Android development today. I've been following various solutions I have found on the net and on here and it seems it is more difficult than anticipated. I have tried various solutions and using KSoap2 seems to be the easiest way to implement this, well it would be if I could get it working. I have the following code which works up until a point: private class CallWebService extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://tempuri.org/GetUser"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "GetUser"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://tempuri.org/"; private static final String URL = "http://160.10.1.79:59315/Service1.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtMessage); try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); tv.setText(result.toString()); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } return null; } } It seems to hang at the line androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Any ideas why? Is this the correct approach? Should I be looking in another direction?

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  • Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

    - by brandon14_99
    I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

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  • Dynamically including multiple files within php for image descriptions

    - by Steve Jones
    Working on implementing image descriptions to a php run gallery and can't seem to figure out how to call each text file for each individual image. //total number of images $total = 77; //max number of thumbnails per page $max = 9; //what image do we want to start from? $startcount = $_GET["start"]; //if there is not a defined starting image, we start with the first if(empty($startcount)) { $startcount = 0; } //start off the loop at 1 $loop = 1; //start the loop while($loop <= $max) { //for the picture labels $num = $startcount + $loop; if($num > $total) { $num = $num - 1; break; } // Add class="last" to every third list item if(is_int($num / 3)) { $last = ' class="last"'; } else { $last = ""; } //the code for the image echo ' <li'.$last.'><a href="images/portfolio/pic-'.$num.'.jpg" rel="milkbox[gall1]"><img src="images/portfolio/thumbs/pic-'.$num.'-thumb.jpg" width="256" height="138" alt="Thumbnail of image '.$num.'" /></a><div>'.$num.'</div></li>'; I see that I can call the text files by number using '.$num.' (I have 77 individual text files with a phrase in each) but how do I tell it to call the files?

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • Reactive Extensions for Java

    - by Timo Westkämper
    Is there any equivalent of Reactive Extensions (.NET) for Java? About Rx (Reactive Extensions) Rx is a library for composing asynchronous and event-based programs using observable collections. I am aware of rule engines such as Drools from JBOSS, but is there some other way that is closer to the Microsoft .NET approach?

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  • Does waitpid yield valid status information for a child process that has already exited?

    - by dtrebbien
    If I fork a child process, and the child process exits before the parent even calls waitpid, then is the exit status information that is set by waitpid still valid? If so, when does it become not valid; i.e., how do I ensure that I can call waitpid on the child pid and continue to get valid exit status information after an arbitrary amount of time, and how do I "clean up" (tell the OS that I am no longer interested in the exit status information for the finished child process)? I was playing around with the following code, and it appears that the exit status information is valid for at least a few seconds after the child finishes, but I do not know for how long or how to inform the OS that I won't be calling waitpid again: #include <assert.h> #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/wait.h> int main() { pid_t pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to fork\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } else if (pid == 0) { // code for child process _exit(17); } else { // code for parent sleep(3); int status; waitpid(pid, &status, 0); waitpid(pid, &status, 0); // call `waitpid` again just to see if the first call had an effect assert(WIFEXITED(status)); assert(WEXITSTATUS(status) == 17); } return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • Calling private constructors with Reflection.Emit?

    - by Jakob Botsch Nielsen
    I'm trying to emit the following IL: LocalBuilder pointer = il.DeclareLocal(typeof(IntPtr)); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); il.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloca, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Call, typeof(IntPtr).GetMethod("ToPointer")); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); The delegate I bind with has the signature void* TestDelegate(IntPtr ptr) It throws the exception Operation could destabilize the runtime. Anyone knows what's wrong? EDIT: Alright, so I got the IL working now. The entire goal of this was to be able to call a private constructor. The private constructor takes a pointer so I can't use normal reflection. Now.. When I call it, I get an exception saying Attempt by method <built method> to access method <private constructor> failed. Apparently it's performing security checks - but from experience I know that Reflection is able to do private stuff like this normally, so hopefully there is a way to disable that check?

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

    - by Timbo
    I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

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  • How to write a JOIN statement to combine data from disparate tables

    - by Amarundo
    I have the following 2 procedures that I use as my source for a report. As of now, I'm presenting 2 different tables in my SQL Server Reporting Services 2008 R2 report, because it doesn't let me put them together as they belong to 2 different data sets. I want to present them in a single table, but I have not been successful trying to use JOIN here. How do I do that? NOTE: cName in IAgentQueueStats corresponds to UserId in AgentActivityLog. /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for calls, talk and hold time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per 30-minute interval ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_IAgentQueueStats_OnlyCalls_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [cName] ,sum([nAnswered]) SumNAnswered ,sum([nAnsweredAcd]) SumNAnsweredAcd ,sum([tTalkAcd]) SumTTalkAcd ,sum([nHoldAcd]) SumNHoldAcd ,sum([tHoldAcd]) SumTHoldAcd ,sum([tAcw]) SumTAcw FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[IAgentQueueStats] WHERE dIntervalStart between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( cName ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND cReportGroup <> '*' AND cHKey3 = '*' and cHKey4 ='*' AND nEnteredAcd > 0 AND cReportGroup <> 'CCFax Email' GROUP BY cName And here is the second one: /*** Aggregate values for Call Center Agents for status/activity time ***/ /*** The detail/row values is per start-time/end-time ***/ ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_AgentActivity_Grouped] @p_StartDate datetime, @p_EndDate datetime, @p_Agents varchar(8000) AS SELECT [UserId],[StatusCategory],SUM([StateDuration]) [StatusDuration] FROM ( SELECT [UserId] ,[StatusGroup] ,[StatusKey] , CASE [StatusKey] WHEN 'Available' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Follow Up' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Campaign Call' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'Awaiting Callback' THEN 'Productive' WHEN 'In a Meeting' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Project Work' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At a Training Session'THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'System Issues' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'Test' THEN 'Not Your Fault' WHEN 'At Lunch' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Forward' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, Follow-Me' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'At Play' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'AcdAgentNotAnswering' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Do Not Disturb' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Available, No ACD' THEN 'Non Productive' WHEN 'Away from desk' THEN 'Non Productive' ELSE [StatusKey] END StatusCategory ,stateduration FROM [I3_IC].[dbo].[AgentActivityLog] WHERE [StatusDateTime] between @p_StartDate and DATEADD(s, 86400-1, @p_EndDate) AND CHARINDEX ( [UserId] ,@p_Agents)> 0 AND [StatusKey] not in ('Gone Home','Out of the Office','On Vacation','Out of Town') ) a GROUP BY [UserId],[StatusCategory] ORDER BY [UserId], [StatusCategory] desc BTW, if I take some time to comment/reply on your posts, it's not lack of interest, but of understanding...

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  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

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  • How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

    - by Leonard
    I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

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