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  • How to find Tomcat's PID and kill it in python?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    Normally, one shuts down Apache Tomcat by running its shutdown.sh script (or batch file). In some cases, such as when Tomcat's web container is hosting a web app that does some crazy things with multi-threading, running shutdown.sh gracefully shuts down some parts of Tomcat (as I can see more available memory returning to the system), but the Tomcat process keeps running. I'm trying to write a simple Python script that: Calls shutdown.sh Runs ps -aef | grep tomcat to find any process with Tomcat referenced If applicable, kills the process with kill -9 <PID> Here's what I've got so far (as a prototype - I'm brand new to Python BTW): #!/usr/bin/python # Imports import sys import subprocess # Load from imported module. if __init__ == "__main__": main() # Main entry point. def main(): # Shutdown Tomcat shutdownCmd = "sh ${TOMCAT_HOME}/bin/shutdown.sh" subprocess.call([shutdownCmd], shell=true) # Check for PID grepCmd = "ps -aef | grep tomcat" grepResults = subprocess.call([grepCmd], shell=true) if(grepResult.length > 1): # Get PID and kill it. pid = ??? killPidCmd = "kill -9 $pid" subprocess.call([killPidCmd], shell=true) # Exit. sys.exit() I'm struggling with the middle part - with obtaining the grep results, checking to see if their size is greater than 1 (since grep always returns a reference to itself, at least 1 result will always be returned, methinks), and then parsing that returned PID and passing it into the killPidCmd. Thanks in advance!

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Explain "Leader/Follower" Pattern

    - by Alex B
    I can't seem to find a good explanation of "Leader/Follower" pattern. All explanations either simply refer to it in the context of some problem, or are completely meaningless. Can anyone explain to the the mechanics of how this pattern works, and why and how it improves performance over more traditional asynchronous IO models? Examples and links to diagrams are appreciated too.

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  • Modify the server side functions using jquery

    - by ant
    Hi, I am developing one website using cakephp and jquery technologies. Server-side there are some functions which handles sql queris. As per requirement I want to modify server side functions on client side using jquery AJAX call. E.g. : Below is the function on server side to modify users information. function modifyUser(username,userid) { //update query statements } Then jquery AJAX call will be like this : $.ajax({ url: 'users/modiyUser', success: function() { alert("Updation done") or any statements. } }); and I want to modify above i.e. server side function depending upon client input criteria. $.ajax({ function users/modiyUser(username,userid) { // I will write here any other statements which gives me some other output. } }); Above AJAX call syntax may not present, but i think you all understood what I am trying to do I simply wants to modify/override server side functions on client side. Please let me know is there any way to resolve above mentioned requirement. Thanks in adavance

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  • Datareceived Serialport event stops raising after some seconds

    - by Mario
    Hi, I was hoping someone could help me out with this problem. I have a system (VB .NET) where I must read a person's weight (RS232 Sluice) and id (Fingerprint - 2 biometric reader, rs232) and compare it to a database. I have 3 serialports in my app, one for the sluice and the other 2 are to receive the id from the fingerprint readers, both of which call the same sub to get the id from the reader. I've been testing just one reader and it seemed to work fine, I got data from the datareceived and joined it together to get the id. The problem comes at this moment: I put a finger, sends the id, if it's ok sends a message, otherwise, writes the id to a textbox. But in-between reads, if I let 5 or 10 seconds pass without putting a finger on the reader it seems like I get no data at all anymore, the datareceived event nevers gets raised but if I keep putting a finger constantly it works pretty good, this is really weird to me. I was thinking of some things: **Maybe the port gets closed somehow after some time? I never call the CLose() method **The fact both datareceived eventhandlers call the same method and delegate **Maybe the connection settings are missing something? I tested with hyperterminal and the port keeps getting info even after time without activity and I use the same config with my application, maybe I need to change more settings like DTEenable and RTSenable? Please I need some help with this issue, it's to control access so it needs to be running 24/7 thanks in advance!

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  • Touch draw in Quatz 2D/Core Graphics

    - by OgreSwamp
    Hello, I'm trying to implement "hand draw tool". At the moment algorythm looks like that (I don't insert any code because methods are quite big, will try to explain an idea): Drawing In touchesStarted: method I create NSMutableArray *pointsArray and add point into it. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesMoved: method I calculate points between last added point from the pointsArray and current point. Add all points to the pointsArray. Call setNeedsDisplay: method. In touchesFinished: event I calculate points between last added point from the array and current point. Set flag touchesWereFinished. Call setNeedsDisplay:. Render: drawRect: method checks is pointsArray != nil and is there any data in it. If there is - it starts to traw circles in each point of this array. If flag touchesWereFinished is set - save current context to the UIImage, release pointsArray, set it to nil and reset the flag. There are a lot disadvantages of this method: It is slow It becomes extremely slow when user touches and move finger for long time. Array becomes enormous "Lines" composed by circles are ugly I would like to change my algorithm to make it bit faster and line smoother. In result I would like to have lines like on the picture at following URL (sorry, not enough reputation to insert an image): http://2.bp.blogspot.com/_r5VzEAUYXJ4/SrOYp8tJCPI/AAAAAAAAAMw/ZwDKXiHlhV0/s320/SketchBook+Mobile(4).png Can you advice me, ho I can draw lines this way (smooth and slim on the edges)? I thought to draw circles with alpha gradient on the edges (to make lines smoother), but it will be extremely slowly IMHO. Thanks for help

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • I need a tutorial for IIS/ASP.Net administration

    - by TheCodeMonk
    My technical support staff is only a little familiar with IIS and that's only as far as install goes. They need to install/update and configure ASP.Net web applications and WCF services that we write. Does anyone know any good tutorials/books/web sites that can help them understand some of the basic concepts of web applications and maintaining them on IIS?

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  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

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  • Reactive Extensions for Java

    - by Timo Westkämper
    Is there any equivalent of Reactive Extensions (.NET) for Java? About Rx (Reactive Extensions) Rx is a library for composing asynchronous and event-based programs using observable collections. I am aware of rule engines such as Drools from JBOSS, but is there some other way that is closer to the Microsoft .NET approach?

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  • What's the Microsoft Ajax equivalent to jquery.ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError()?

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I have an ASP.NET MVC site that uses both Microsoft Ajax [Ajax.BeginForm()] and jQuery to make asynchronous requests. I want to configure both frameworks such that a generic error handler is automatically attached if the developer does not explicitly specify a failure callback. In jQuery I can accomplish this with either .ajaxSetup() or .ajaxError(). What is the equivalent in the Microsoft Ajax client library? I'm fairly sure it's something in the Sys object but I can't find it...

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  • Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

    - by brandon14_99
    I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

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  • javascript check function for a html form

    - by Reteras Remus
    I'm having a problem with a HTML form (name, e-mail, subject, message), I can't validate the form if it was completed correct or not. I want to call a javascript function when the form is submitted and alert if a field wasn't completed correct. My problem is with the submit button, because my boss said that I must use he's own php function to insert a submit button. The php function looke like: function normal_button($text, $width, $param = '', $class = 'button-blue') { $content = '<div class="'.$class.'" style="width:'.$width.'px;" '.$param.'>'.$text.'</div>'; return $content; } and how I call the function: echo normal_button('Send it', '100', 'onclick="document.getElementById(\'emailForm\').submit();" '); I tried to call the js function declaring the onSubmit="return checkForm(this)" in the <form action='email.php' method='post'> HTML form, but I can't "catch" the submit. Also I tried to catch it with jquery, $(document).ready(function() { $('.normal_button').click(function() { }); ); but I can't return false if a field wasn't completed correct. I must use he's PHP function to insert the submit button, but how can I "catch" the fields, how can I validate them? Any suggestions? Thank you !

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  • Outstanding issues with jQuery.ajax() in IE8?

    - by RyanV
    I am loading feed-items into a ul using this jQuery .ajax() call, which I basically lifted from http://www.makemineatriple.com/2007/10/bbcnewsticker/ var timestamp = true; //set whether timestamp is displayed in $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "sample-feed.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find('item').each(function(){ var title = $(this).find('title').text(); var link = $(this).find('link').text(); if(title.length >=57){ title = title.substring(0,54) + "..."; } var addItem = '<li class="tickerTitle"><a href="'+link+'">'+title+'</a>'; if (Boolean(timestamp)== true){ var time = new Date(Date.parse($(this).find('pubDate').text())); addItem +='<span class="timestamp">' + makestamp(time) +'</span></li>'; } $('ul#news').append(addItem); }); It works in Chrome 4 and Firefox 3.6, but I load it up in IE8 and somehow the ajax call fails. I have tried to use IE8's Developer tools to see where exactly it fails, but I haven't been successful yet. So two questions Is there anything blatantly wrong with my ajax call here that could be preventing me from seeing it in IE where it works in FF/Chrome? Are there any special considerations I have to make for the Internet Explorer family of browsers with regards to this particular jQuery method? I've done some googling on this but nothing obvious is coming up. One other note: I am currently using jQuery 1.3.2 due to some legacy scripts on the same site. I did try loading 1.4.2 and it had the same results on IE8

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  • Can I use drawRect to refresh a UIView subclass?

    - by Timbo
    I've created a subclass of UIView called Status which is designed to display a rectangle of a certain size (within a view) depending on the value of a variable. // Interface #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <QuartzCore/QuartzCore.h> @interface Status: UIView { NSString* name; int someVariable; } @property int someVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName; - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect; @end // Implementation #import "Status.h" @implementation Status @synthesize name, someVariable; - (void) createStatus: (NSString*)withName { name = withName; someVariable = 10000; } - (void) drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //Draw Status CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0, 1); // fill CGContextFillRect(context, CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, someVariable, 40.0)); } //// myviewcontroller implementation - (void) viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; myStatus = [[Status alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(8,8,200,56)]; myStatus.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.view addSubview:myStatus]; } How do I set this up so I can repeatedly call a refresh of the status bar? I'll probably call the refresh 4 times per second using a NSTimer, I'm just not sure what to call or if I should move this rectangle drawing to a separate function or something... Thanks in advance for your help :)

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  • Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

    - by amougeot
    I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

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  • Where does java.util.logging.Logger store their log

    - by Harry Pham
    This might be a stupid question but I am a bit lost with java Logger private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("order.web.OrderManager"); logger.info("Removed order " + id + "."); Where do I see the log? Also this quote from java.util.logging.Logger library: On each logging call the Logger initially performs a cheap check of the request level (e.g. SEVERE or FINE) against the effective log level of the logger. If the request level is lower than the log level, the logging call returns immediately. After passing this initial (cheap) test, the Logger will allocate a LogRecord to describe the logging message. It will then call a Filter (if present) to do a more detailed check on whether the record should be published. If that passes it will then publish the LogRecord to its output Handlers. Does this mean that if I have 3 request level log: logger.log(Level.FINE, "Something"); logger.log(Level.WARNING, "Something"); logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Something"); And my log level is SEVERE, I can see all three logs, if my log level is WARNING, then I cant see SEVERE log, is that correct? And how do I set the log level?

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  • nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

    - by npeBeg
    my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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  • Dynamically including multiple files within php for image descriptions

    - by Steve Jones
    Working on implementing image descriptions to a php run gallery and can't seem to figure out how to call each text file for each individual image. //total number of images $total = 77; //max number of thumbnails per page $max = 9; //what image do we want to start from? $startcount = $_GET["start"]; //if there is not a defined starting image, we start with the first if(empty($startcount)) { $startcount = 0; } //start off the loop at 1 $loop = 1; //start the loop while($loop <= $max) { //for the picture labels $num = $startcount + $loop; if($num > $total) { $num = $num - 1; break; } // Add class="last" to every third list item if(is_int($num / 3)) { $last = ' class="last"'; } else { $last = ""; } //the code for the image echo ' <li'.$last.'><a href="images/portfolio/pic-'.$num.'.jpg" rel="milkbox[gall1]"><img src="images/portfolio/thumbs/pic-'.$num.'-thumb.jpg" width="256" height="138" alt="Thumbnail of image '.$num.'" /></a><div>'.$num.'</div></li>'; I see that I can call the text files by number using '.$num.' (I have 77 individual text files with a phrase in each) but how do I tell it to call the files?

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  • Does waitpid yield valid status information for a child process that has already exited?

    - by dtrebbien
    If I fork a child process, and the child process exits before the parent even calls waitpid, then is the exit status information that is set by waitpid still valid? If so, when does it become not valid; i.e., how do I ensure that I can call waitpid on the child pid and continue to get valid exit status information after an arbitrary amount of time, and how do I "clean up" (tell the OS that I am no longer interested in the exit status information for the finished child process)? I was playing around with the following code, and it appears that the exit status information is valid for at least a few seconds after the child finishes, but I do not know for how long or how to inform the OS that I won't be calling waitpid again: #include <assert.h> #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/wait.h> int main() { pid_t pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to fork\n"); return EXIT_FAILURE; } else if (pid == 0) { // code for child process _exit(17); } else { // code for parent sleep(3); int status; waitpid(pid, &status, 0); waitpid(pid, &status, 0); // call `waitpid` again just to see if the first call had an effect assert(WIFEXITED(status)); assert(WEXITSTATUS(status) == 17); } return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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  • How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

    - by Leonard
    I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

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  • Calling web service from seems to hang

    - by anothershrubery
    I am trying to call an asmx web service from an Android app. Just literally started some Android development today. I've been following various solutions I have found on the net and on here and it seems it is more difficult than anticipated. I have tried various solutions and using KSoap2 seems to be the easiest way to implement this, well it would be if I could get it working. I have the following code which works up until a point: private class CallWebService extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { private static final String SOAP_ACTION = "http://tempuri.org/GetUser"; private static final String METHOD_NAME = "GetUser"; private static final String NAMESPACE = "http://tempuri.org/"; private static final String URL = "http://160.10.1.79:59315/Service1.asmx"; TextView tv; @Override protected Void doInBackground(Void... params) { tv=(TextView)findViewById(R.id.txtMessage); try { SoapObject request = new SoapObject(NAMESPACE, METHOD_NAME); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.dotNet=true; envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Object result = (Object)envelope.getResponse(); tv.setText(result.toString()); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); } return null; } } It seems to hang at the line androidHttpTransport.call(SOAP_ACTION, envelope); Any ideas why? Is this the correct approach? Should I be looking in another direction?

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  • Calling private constructors with Reflection.Emit?

    - by Jakob Botsch Nielsen
    I'm trying to emit the following IL: LocalBuilder pointer = il.DeclareLocal(typeof(IntPtr)); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); il.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloca, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Call, typeof(IntPtr).GetMethod("ToPointer")); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); The delegate I bind with has the signature void* TestDelegate(IntPtr ptr) It throws the exception Operation could destabilize the runtime. Anyone knows what's wrong? EDIT: Alright, so I got the IL working now. The entire goal of this was to be able to call a private constructor. The private constructor takes a pointer so I can't use normal reflection. Now.. When I call it, I get an exception saying Attempt by method <built method> to access method <private constructor> failed. Apparently it's performing security checks - but from experience I know that Reflection is able to do private stuff like this normally, so hopefully there is a way to disable that check?

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ work?

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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