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  • problem linking vba modules in MS Access 2007

    - by Ted
    I am upgrading a database system from Access 2000 db to Access 2007, which communicates with several chemistry measuring devices(pH meter, scale, etc) via an RS 232 serial port. The first db consists of several modules containing vba code that enables the communications with the ports, as well as supports the code behind the forms in the second db. The user, or lab tech, navigates through the forms in the second db to interact with the lab devices, and also to generate the reports which display the info. from the devices. The reports are also part of the second db. The code works in Access 2000, but once I convert it to 2007, the code in the second db cannot find the function calls in the first db that dictate the progression from screen to screen. I have tried importing the modules into the second db, and I have tried linking them, but it still doesn't work. The error message is #438: "Object doesn't support this property or method." Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Here is the code for the first function that is not being called correctly: Description: ' This routine is used to return to the calling form and close the active form. ' ' Input: ' strFormCalled --- the active form ' strCallingForm --- the form that called the active form ' blnUnhideOrOpen --- whether to open or just unhide form Public Sub basReturnToCallingForm(ByVal strFormCalled As String, ByVal _ strCallingForm As Variant, Optional blnUnhideOrOpen As Boolean = True) On Error GoTo err_basReturnToCaliingForm If Not basIsBlankString(strCallingForm) And blnUnhideOrOpen Then DoCmd.OpenForm strCallingForm, acNormal Else Call basUnHideForm(strCallingForm) End If Call basCloseForm(strFormCalled) exit_basReturnToCaliingForm: Exit Sub err_basReturnToCaliingForm: Err.Raise Err.Number, "basReturnToCaliingForm", Err.Description End Sub I will post the second function shortly, but I have to go to a meeting... The second funtion that isn't 'working' is a cmdStartClick that is supposed to be called when a user initializes a pump. However, within that function, it's also sticking on a line that is supposed to progress to the next form in the db. The other thing is that the code works in Access 2002, but not in Access 2007...

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  • Is there a design pattern that expresses objects (an their operations) in various states?

    - by darren
    Hi I have a design question about the evolution of an object (and its state) after some sequence of methods complete. I'm having trouble articulating what I mean so I may need to clean up the question based on feedback. Consider an object called Classifier. It has the following methods: void initialise() void populateTrainingSet(TrainingSet t) void pupulateTestingSet(TestingSet t) void train() void test() Result predict(Instance i) My problem is that these methods need to be called in a certain order. Futher, some methods are invalid until a previous method is called, and some methods are invalid after a method has been called. For example, it would be invalid to call predict() before test() was called, and it would be invalid to call train() after test() was called. My approach so far has been to maintain a private enum that represents the current stateof the object: private static enum STATE{ NEW, TRAINED, TESTED, READY}; But this seems a bit cloogy. Is there a design pattern for such a problem type? Maybe something related to the template method.

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  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

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  • What's the "proper" way to retrieve a reference to a ribbon object?

    - by Nick
    For a VSTO workbook project, is there a best practice for retrieving a reference to the Ribbon object from the ThisWorkbook class? Here's what I'm doing: In my Ribbon class, I created a public method called InvalidateControl(string controlID). I need to call that method from the ThisWorkbook class based on when a certain workbook level event fires. But the only way I can see to "get" a reference to that Ribbon object is to do this... // This is all in the ThisWorkbook class Ribbon ribbon; protected override IRibbonExtensibility CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() { this.ribbon = new Ribbon(); return this.ribbon; } ...which seems a little smelly. I mean, I have to override CreateRibbonExtensibilityObject() regardless; all I'm doing beyond that is maintaining a local reference to the ribbon so I can call methods against it. But it doesn't feel right. Is there another, better way to get that reference in the ThisWorkbook class? Or is this pretty acceptable? Thanks!

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  • Remote interface lookup-problem in Glassfish3

    - by andersmo
    I have deployed a war-file, with actionclasses and a facade, and a jar-file with ejb-components (a stateless bean, a couple of entities and a persistence.xml) on glassfish3. My problem is that i cant find my remote interface to the stateless bean from my facade. My bean and interface looks like: @Remote public interface RecordService {... @Stateless(name="RecordServiceBean", mappedName="ejb/RecordServiceJNDI") public class RecordServiceImpl implements RecordService { @PersistenceContext(unitName="record_persistence_ctx") private EntityManager em;... and if i look in the server.log the portable jndi looks like: Portable JNDI names for EJB RecordServiceBean : [java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceBean, java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceBean!domain.service.RecordService]|#] and my facade: ...InitialContext ctx= new InitialContext(); try{ recordService = (RecordService) ctx.lookup("java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceBean!domain.service.RecordService"); } catch(Throwable t){ System.out.println("ooops"); try{ recordService = (RecordService)ctx.lookup("java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceImpl"); } catch(Throwable t2){ System.out.println("noooo!"); }... } and when the facade makes the first call this exception occur: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceBean!domain.service.RecordService' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: ejb ref resolution error for remote business interfacedomain.service.RecordService [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: domain.service.RecordService]] and the second call: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:global/recordEjb/RecordServiceBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: ejb ref resolution error for remote business interfacedomain.service.RecordService [Root exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: domain.service.RecordService]] I have also tested to inject the bean with the @EJB-annotation: @EJB(name="RecordServiceBean") private RecordService recordService; But that doesnt work either. What have i missed? I tried with an ejb-jar.xml but that shouldnt be nessesary. Is there anyone who can tell me how to fix this problem?

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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • how to convert video from one format to another using php

    - by Meena
    hi i want to include the vedio download option in my webpage. I am using ffmpeg, but it seems to work very slow. Is there is any other way to do this or how to spead up the ffmpeg. i am using this code to get the frames from the vedio. to convert the vedio $call="ffmpeg -i ".$_SESSION['video_to_convert']." -vcodec libvpx -r 30 -b ".$quality." -acodec libvorbis -ab 128000 -ar ".$audio." -ac 2 -s ".$size." ".$converted_vids.$name.".".$type." -y 2> log/".$name.".txt"; $convert = (popen("start /b ".$call, "r")); pclose($convert); to get the frame from the vedio exec("ffmpeg -vframes 1 -ss ".$time_in_seconds." -i $converted_vids video_images.jpg -y 2>); but this code does not generate any error its loading continously.

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  • Why does Perl's strict not let me pass a parameter hash?

    - by Thariama
    I hava a perl subroutine where i would like to pass parameters as a hash (the aim is to include a css depending on the parameter 'iconsize'). I am using the call: get_function_bar_begin('iconsize' => '32'); for the subroutine get_function_bar_begin: use strict; ... sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my %template_params = %{ shift || {} }; return $self->render_template('global/bars /tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html',%template_params); } Why does this yield the error message: Error executing run mode 'start': undef error - Can't use string ("iconsize") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at CheckBar.pm at line 334 Am i doing something wrong here? Is there an other way to submit my data ('iconsize') as a hash? (i am still new to Perl) EDIT: Solution which worked for me. I didn't change the call, but my function: sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my $paramref = shift; my %params = (ref($paramref) eq 'HASH') ? %$paramref : (); my $iconsize = $params{'iconsize'} || ''; return $self->render_template('global/bars/tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html', { 'iconsize' => $iconsize, } ); }

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Darxval
    So i am trying to call this function in my javascript but it gives me the error of "Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method" and i cant figure out why. It is occuring when trying to call hmacObj.getHMAC. This is from the jsSHA website: http://jssha.sourceforge.net/ to use the hmac-sha1 algorithm encryption. Thank you! hmacObj = new jsSHA(signature_base_string,"HEX"); signature = hmacObj.getHMAC("hgkghk","HEX","SHA-1","HEX"); Above this i have copied the code from sha.js snippet: function jsSHA(srcString, inputFormat) { /* * Configurable variables. Defaults typically work */ jsSHA.charSize = 8; // Number of Bits Per character (8 for ASCII, 16 for Unicode) jsSHA.b64pad = ""; // base-64 pad character. "=" for strict RFC compliance jsSHA.hexCase = 0; // hex output format. 0 - lowercase; 1 - uppercase var sha1 = null; var sha224 = null; The function it is calling (inside of the jsSHA function) (snippet) this.getHMAC = function (key, inputFormat, variant, outputFormat) { var formatFunc = null; var keyToUse = null; var blockByteSize = null; var blockBitSize = null; var keyWithIPad = []; var keyWithOPad = []; var lastArrayIndex = null; var retVal = null; var keyBinLen = null; var hashBitSize = null; // Validate the output format selection switch (outputFormat) { case "HEX": formatFunc = binb2hex; break; case "B64": formatFunc = binb2b64; break; default: return "FORMAT NOT RECOGNIZED"; }

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  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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  • tk: how to invoke it just to display something, and return to the main program?

    - by max
    Sorry for the noob question but I really don't understand this. I'm using python / tkinter and I want to display something (say, a canvas with a few shapes on it), and keep it displayed until the program quits. I understand that no widgets would be displayed until I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(). However, if I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(), I won't be able to do anything else until the user closes the main window. I don't need to monitor any user input events, just display some stuff. What's a good way to do this without giving up control to mainloop? EDIT: Is this sample code reasonable: class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.loop() def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after(0, self.loop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen EDIT2 (added after_idle): class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.after_idle(self.preloop) def preloop(): self.after(0, self.loop) def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after_idle(self.preloop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen

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  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

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  • Turn image in google maps V3?

    - by Ilrodri
    Hi, I need help with JavaScript in google map v3 I have an image and I need to be able to turn it. That works, but the real problem it's that I cant afect an marker cause I don't know how to call it and modify this marker. I show you a part of the code: Marker: sURL = 'http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG'; iWidth = 97; iHeight = 100; mImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage(sURL, new google.maps.Size(iWidth,iHeight), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(Math.round(iWidth/2),Math.round(iHeight/2))); var oMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ 'position': new google.maps.LatLng(iStartLat,iStartLon), 'map': map, 'title': 'mon point', 'icon': mImage }); Then I have this : onload=function(){ rotate.call(document.getElementById('im'),50); } </script> <img id="im" src="http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG" width="97" height="100" /> So here is it. As you can see, I'm afecting this image and I in fact I need to afect the marker. How can I do it ? Please I need this I'been working in it since hours and hours. Thank you !!

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  • implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

    - by tommy
    How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • callback on a variable which is inside a .each() loop

    - by Stoic
    I have this function, which is doing an asynchronous call to FB.api method. Now, i am looping over some data and capturing result of the above method call successfully. However, I am using a .each loop and I really can not figure out how to place my callback in this method, so that the outer method is only executed once. Here are the functions I am using: ask_for_perms($(this).val(),function(result) { $('#some-div').html('<a onclick = "get_perms(result);" >get perms</a>'); }); function ask_for_perms(perms_requested,cb) { var request = []; $.each(perms_requested,function(i,permission) { FB.api({ method: 'users.hasAppPermission', ext_perm: permission }, function(response) { if (response == 0) request.push(permission); request.join(','); cb(request); // cb is called many times here. }); }); } I am trying to return the request string from ask_for_perms function. Can anyone suggest me on where to place a proper callback to ask_for_perms. Right now, however, it works for me, but the callback is being called many times since it is inside a for loop. referencing: returning a variable from the callback of a function

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  • Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

    - by Milo
    My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

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  • How to protect and hidden form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

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  • Why does this simple MySQL procedure take way too long to complete?

    - by Howard Guo
    This is a very simple MySQL stored procedure. Cursor "commission" has only 3000 records, but the procedure call takes more than 30 seconds to run. Why is that? DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS apply_credit// CREATE PROCEDURE apply_credit() BEGIN DECLARE done tinyint DEFAULT 0; DECLARE _pk_id INT; DECLARE _eid, _source VARCHAR(255); DECLARE _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count DECIMAL; DECLARE commission CURSOR FOR SELECT pk_id, eid, source, lh_revenue, acc_revenue, project_carrier_expense, carrier_lh, carrier_acc, gross_margin, fsc_revenue, revenue, load_count FROM ct_sales_commission; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; DELETE FROM debug; OPEN commission; REPEAT FETCH commission INTO _pk_id, _eid, _source, _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count; INSERT INTO debug VALUES(concat('row ', _pk_id)); UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE commission; END// DELIMITER ; CALL apply_credit(); SELECT * FROM debug;

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  • Run Reporting Service in local mode and generate columns automatically?

    - by grady
    Hi, I have a SQL query right now which I want to use with the MS reporting services in my ASP.NET application. So I created a report in local mode (rdlc) and attached this to a report viewer. Since my query uses parameters, I created a stored procedure, which had exactly those parameters. In addition to that I had some textboxes which are used for entering the params for the query and a button to call the stored proc and to fill the datatset which is bound to the report viewer. This works, I press the button and according to what I entred the correct data is shown. Now my question: In the future I plan to have multiple reports (which will be selected in a dropdown) and I wonder if I can somehow just call the correct stored procedure and according to the columns which are *SELECT*ed in the procedure, the columns are shown in the report. Example: I select report1 from the dropdown (procedure for report 1 is called), 5 columns are shown in the reportviewer. I select report2 from dropdown (procedure for report 2 is called), 8 columns are shown. Is that possible somehow? Thanks :-)

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  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

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  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

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