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  • What Is a Well Designed Website?

    In today?s competitive market place it is essential for a successful company to have a website that stands apart from the crowd. The most important aspect of a well designed website is its ability to... [Author: Patrick Perkins - Web Design and Development - April 02, 2010]

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  • Best Practices of SEO Web Development

    Custom SEO Web Development is a bit of a misnomer. This is because all web development should be regarded as custom, as there are no two companies in existence that are identical. Here best practices... [Author: Patrick Perkins - Web Design and Development - April 28, 2010]

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  • How is WPF Data Binding using Object Data Source in Visual Studio 2010 done?

    - by Rob Perkins
    This is probably mostly a question about how to use the VS 2010 IDE tools in a way the Microsofties didn't specifically intend. But since this is something I immediately tried without success. I have defined a .NET 4.0 WPF Application project with a simple class that looks like this: Public Class Class1 Public Property One As String = "OneString" Public Property Two As String = "TwoString" End Class I then defined it as an "Object Data Source" in VS2010, using the IDE's "Add New Data Source..." feature. This exposes the class members in a GUI element in the IDE as given in this image: Dragging "Class1" from that tool to the surface of "Window1.xaml" in a default "WPF Application" results in the design view looking like this: And generated XAML like this: <Window x:Class="Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="133" Width="170" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" mc:Ignorable="d" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" > <Window.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="Class1ViewSource" d:DesignSource="{d:DesignInstance my:Class1, CreateList=True}" /> </Window.Resources> <Grid DataContext="{StaticResource Class1ViewSource}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="Grid1" VerticalAlignment="Top"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Label Content="One:" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" Name="OneTextBlock" Text="{Binding Path=One}" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <Label Content="Two:" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="3" Name="TwoTextBlock" Text="{Binding Path=Two}" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> </Grid> Note the data bindings Text="{Binding Path=One}" and Text="{Binding Path=Two}" in the TextBlock elements. Code-behind for Window1.xaml has this in Window_Loaded: Class Window1 Private m_c1 As New Class1 Private Sub Window1_Loaded(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) Handles Me.Loaded Dim Class1ViewSource As System.Windows.Data.CollectionViewSource = CType(Me.FindResource("Class1ViewSource"), System.Windows.Data.CollectionViewSource) 'Load data by setting the CollectionViewSource.Source property: 'Class1ViewSource.Source = [generic data source] Me.DataContext = m_c1 End Sub End Class Running the application produces this output: The expected result was that "OneString" would appear next to "One" and "TwoString" next to "Two" in the running window. The question is: Why didn't this work? What will work instead? If I put bindings in a DataTemplate, it works. Blend, with its sample data stuff, implied that this should work, but it doesn't. I know I'm missing something pretty fundamental here; what is it?

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  • CoffeeScript on Windows?

    - by Nick Perkins
    How can I try CoffeeScript on Windows? The installation instructions are only for *nix: http://jashkenas.github.com/coffee-script/#installation EDIT: I don't think I need node.js -- I am just writing javascript for web pages, (using some jQuery, etc)...So all I really want is simple way to write CoffeeScript and "compile" it down to JavaScript. Isn't there a Ruby program that would do it? Or even better, a windows exe? (i dont use ASP.NET either...i use Python/Django) FINAL EDIT: Thanks for the help -- In the end I installed VirtualBox and created a virtual Linux machine which I now use to program coffeescript with node.js. (It was surprisingly easy to start using VirtualBox -- easier than doing the Cygwin thing). I run jEdit (for which you can get a CoffeeScript syntax highlighter) and I put the corresponding js file side-by-side with the coffeescript file. When I compile the coffeescript to js, the editor automatically re-loads the new javascript, which allows me to check that it has compiled the way I expect (which is a good thing while learning the coffeescript syntax).

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  • Sqlite / SQLAlchemy: how to enforce Foreign Keys?

    - by Nick Perkins
    The new version of SQLite has the ability to enforce Foreign Key constraints, but for the sake of backwards-compatibility, you have to turn it on for each database connection separately! sqlite> PRAGMA foreign_keys = ON; I am using SQLAlchemy -- how can I make sure this always gets turned on? What I have tried is this: engine = sqlalchemy.create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=True) engine.execute('pragma foreign_keys=on') ...but it is not working!...What am I missing?

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  • Can the behaviour of new HTML5 form types be overridden?

    - by Mark Perkins
    I was wondering if anyone knew if it were possible to override the default behaviour of browsers that support the new HTML input types such as type="email" and type="date"? I appreciate that I could test if a browser supports an input type and provide a fallback for those browsers that don't, but what I want to know is is there any way to prevent that default behaviour from happening in browsers that do support it? For instance, if in Opera I want to use the date input type, but I don't want Opera to display the native datepicker (i.e. I want to replace it with my own custom one) is that possible? Are there any DOM events triggered like onDatePickerShow that one can hook into? I don't believe that this is possible, but if anyone knows for sure one way or the other I would love to hear from you.

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  • Live Character Count For EditText Android

    - by Taylor Perkins
    Hello, I was wondering what the best way to do a live character count of an edit-text box is in Android. I was looking at this but I couldn't seem to make any sense of it. To describe the problem, I have an EditText and I'm trying to limit the characters to 150. I can do this with an input filter, however I want to show right below the text box the number of characters a user has entered(Almost like stack overflow is doing right now). If someone could write a small snippet of example code or point me in the right direction I'd appreciate it a lot. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I control the height of a ListView in WPF, using a complex DataTemplate with DataTriggers?

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a ListView element with a DataTemplate for each ListViewItem defined as follows. When run, the ListView's height is not collapsed onto the items in the view, which is undesirable behavior: <DataTemplate x:Key="LicenseItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding company}"></TextBlock> <Grid Grid.Row="1" Style="{StaticResource HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle}"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Button Grid.Row="0">ClickIt</Button> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> The second row of the outer grid has a style applied which looks like this. The purpose of the style is to : <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle" > <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Visible" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The ListView renders like this: The desired appearance is this, when none of the elements are selected: ...with, of course, the ListView's height adjusting to accommodate the additional content when the second grid is made visible by selection. What can I do to get the desired behavior?

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  • SQLAlchemy: who is in charge of the "session"? ( and how to unit-test with sessions )

    - by Nick Perkins
    I need some guidance on how to use session objects with SQLAlchemy, and how to organize Unit Tests of my mapped objects. What I would like to able to do is something like this: thing = BigThing() # mapped object child = thing.new_child() # create and return a related object thing.save() # will also save the child object In order to achieve this, I was thinking of having the BigThing actually add itself ( and it's children ) to the database -- but maybe this not a good idea? One reason to add objects as soon as possible is Automatic id values that are assigned by the database -- the sooner they are available, the fewer problems there are ( right? ) What is the best way to manage session objects? Who is in charge of the session? Should it be created only when required? or saved for a long time? What about Unit Tests for my mapped objects?...how should the session be handled? Is it ever OK to have mapped objects just automatically add themselves to a database? or is that going to lead to trouble?

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  • I have a WPF/Silverlight ListView whose height is unpredictable and too high. How do I control it be

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a ListView element with a DataTemplate for each ListViewItem defined as follows. When run, the ListView's height is not collapsed onto the items in the view, which is undesirable behavior: <DataTemplate x:Key="LicenseItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding company}"></TextBlock> <Grid Grid.Row="1" Style="{StaticResource HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle}"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Button Grid.Row="0">ClickIt</Button> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> The second row of the outer grid has a style applied which looks like this. The purpose of the style is to : <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle" > <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListViewItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListViewItem} } }" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Visible" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The ListView renders like this: The desired appearance is this, when none of the elements are selected: ...with, of course, the ListView's height adjusting to accommodate the additional content when the second grid is made visible by selection. What can I do to get the desired behavior?

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  • "Invalid Procedure Call or Argument", but only in a compiled or P-Code EXE

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a VB6 program which I've been maintaining for ten years. There is a subroutine in the program called "Prepare Copy", which looks like this: Public Sub PrepareCopy() Set CopiedShapes = New Collection End Sub Where CopiedShapes is dimmed out as a VB6 Collection. That code is now kicking out a Runtime Error 5 -- Invalid Procedure Call or Argument. It appears from the interstitial debugging code that the error arises between the Public Sub PrepareCopy() and the Set CopiedShapes = New Collection lines. That's right. The VB6 error is happening between two lines of my code. I can think of no other explanation for this. It's behaving this way on my development machine and two client computers. It is only happening in runtime code, and does not appear to make a difference whether I compile it or use P-Code What I'm asking for here is speculation as to what causes this sort of thing to happen.

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  • Java template classes using generator or similar?

    - by Hugh Perkins
    Is there some library or generator that I can use to generate multiple templated java classes from a single template? Obviously Java does have a generics implementation itself, but since it uses type-erasure, there are lots of situations where it is less than adequate. For example, if I want to make a self-growing array like this: class EasyArray { T[] backingarray; } (where T is a primitive type), then this isn't possible. This is true for anything which needs an array, for example high-performance templated matrix and vector classes. It should probably be possible to write a code generator which takes a templated class and generates multiple instantiations, for different types, eg for 'double' and 'float' and 'int' and 'String'. Is there something that already exists that does this? Edit: note that using an array of Object is not what I'm looking for, since it's no longer an array of primitives. An array of primitives is very fast, and uses only as much space a sizeof(primitive) * length-of-array. An array of object is an array of pointers/references, that points to Double objects, or similar, which could be scattered all over the place in memory, require garbage collection, allocation, and imply a double-indirection for access. Edit2: good god, voted down for asking for something that probably doesn't currently exist, but is technically possible and feasible? Does that mean that people looking for ways to improve things have already left the java community? Edit3: Here is code to show the difference in performance between primitive and boxed arrays: int N = 10*1000*1000; double[]primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } Object[] objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } tic(); primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); tic(); objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); Results: double[] array: 148 ms Double[] array: 4614 ms Not even close!

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  • Configure J2EE Agent with OpenAM behind Reverse Proxy

    - by Troy
    I have a reverse proxy with two SSL enabled NamedVirtualHosts on different ports. Both containers on each internal host is GF 2.1.1. Proxy configuration as follows: Proxy URL -> Internal URL https://apps.mydomain.com -> http://apps.internal.com https://secure.otherdomain.com:8080/ -> http://secure.internal.com I initially tried configuring the J2EE agent in OpenAM and the web app container to use the internal URLs (I appended /openam and /agentapp respectively). However, I received the following errors when trying to access a secured application such as https://apps.mydomain.com/webapp. java.lang.RuntimeException: Failed to load configuration: ApplicationSSOTokenProvider.getApplicationSSOToken(): Unable to get Application SSO Token A second attempt gives the following error: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: Could not initialize class com.sun.identity.agents.filter.AmFilterManager Along with these in the agent debug.out: ERROR: Failed to obtain auth service url from server: null://null:null ... SiteMonitor: Site URL http://secure.internal.com/openam/namingservice is not available. If I specify the server and agent urls using the proxy urls, then the agent appears to be working and I am redirected to the OpenAM login page. However, the goto in the URL is http://apps.mydomain.com/webapp instead of https://apps.mydomain.com/webapp (missing https). So after authentication, the redirect fails. Now I could possibly get by with mod_rewrite, but it feels hackish and I really want to know what's going on. Any ideas?

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  • Unable to connect to server after a certain amount of time

    - by Troy
    I am a business FIOS subscriber with 5 static IPs. I have the following network setup: Verizon provided ONT Dlink switch Dell server running Ubuntu 12.04 with iptables enabled and a static IP address. The makes/models of hardware are: FIOS ONT Alcatel-Lucent I-211M-H ONT D-Link D-Link Web Smart Switch DES-1228P Server Dell Optiplex 755 (Ubuntu 12.04 Server) I have iptables running on the server with http, https and ssh ports open. I can connect to a website on the server from an external computer, but after a certain amount of time (mins to hours), I can no longer connect. All I have to do to re-enable connectivity is connect to the server via SSH from a computer INSIDE the network. I don't have to actually login, I just have to establish a connection. I can then access the website externally again. I did some googling and it seems some of verizon's equipment had an ARP bug where the ARP entries would expire after a certain time period, but those issues all seem to be from back in 2009 - 2010. I know the switch has an 'auto learning Mac address' feature, but I'm not sure if that could be the problem or not. Does anyone have any ideas or advice on how I can troubleshoot this? Thanks!

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  • Developer hardware autonomy in a managed desktop environment [closed]

    - by Troy Hunt
    I’m looking for some feedback on how developer PCs are managed within environments that have a strict managed desktop policy (normally large corporations). For example, many corporate environments control the installation of software and the deployment of patches and virus updates through a centralised channel. This usually means also dictating the OS version and architecture (32 bit versus 64 bit) which will likely also mean standardised hardware configurations. I’m particularly interested in feedback from developers who work in this sort of environment but have a high degree of autonomy over their machines. This might mean choosing your own hardware vendor, OS type and version and perhaps how the machines are built and maintained. I have several specific questions: How do you satisfy the needs of security, governance etc whilst maintaining your autonomy? For example, how do you address concerns about keeping virus definitions and OS patches up to date? Do you have a process for gaining exemption from standard desktop builds and if so, what do you need to demonstrate in order to get this? How have you justified this need to the decision makers? Essentially, what is the benefit to your role as a developer by having this degree of autonomy? Thanks very much everyone. Update: There's a great post from Jean-Paul Boodhoo which addresses the developer tool component of the quesiton here: http://blog.jpboodhoo.com/TheFallacyOfTheStandardizedDeveloperMachineimage.aspx

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  • What is the risk of introducing non standard image machines to a corporate environment

    - by Troy Hunt
    I’m after some feedback from those in the managed desktop or network security space on the risks of introducing machines that are not built on a standard desktop image into a large corporate environment. This particular context relates to the standard corporate image (32 bit Win XP) in a large multi-national not being suitable for a particular segment of users. In short, I’m looking at what hurdles we might come across by proposing the introduction of machines which are built and maintained by a handful of software developers and not based on the corporate desktop image (proposing 64 bit Win 7). I suspect the barriers are primarily around virus definition updates, the rollout of service packs and patches and the compatibility of existing applications with the newer OS. In terms of viruses and software updates, if machines were using common virus protection software with automated updates and using Windows Update for service packs and patches, is there still a viable risk to the corporate environment? For that matter, are large corporate environments normally vulnerable to the introduction of a machine not based on a standard image? I’m trying to get my head around how real the risk of infection and other adverse events are from machines being plugged into the network. There are multiple scenarios outside of just the example above where this might happen (i.e. a vendor plugging in a machine for internet access during a presentation). Would a large corporate network normally be sufficiently hardened against such innocuous activity? I appreciate the theory as to why policies such as standard desktop images exist, I’m just interested in the actual, practical risk and how much a network should be protected by means other than what is managed on individual PCs.

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  • How the SPARC T4 Processor Optimizes Throughput Capacity: A Case Study

    - by Ruud
    This white paper demonstrates the architected latency hiding features of Oracle’s UltraSPARC T2+ and SPARC T4 processors That is the first sentence from this technical white paper, but what does it exactly mean? Let's consider a very simple example, the computation of a = b + c. This boils down to the following (pseudo-assembler) instructions that need to be executed: load @b, r1 load @c, r2 add r1,r2,r3 store r3, @a The first two instructions load variables b and c from an address in memory (here symbolized by @b and @c respectively). These values go into registers r1 and r2. The third instruction adds the values in r1 and r2. The result goes into register r3. The fourth instruction stores the contents of r3 into the memory address symbolized by @a. If we're lucky, both b and c are in a nearby cache and the load instructions only take a few processor cycles to execute. That is the good case, but what if b or c, or both, have to come from very far away? Perhaps both of them are in the main memory and then it easily takes hundreds of cycles for the values to arrive in the registers. Meanwhile the processor is doing nothing and simply waits for the data to arrive. Actually, it does something. It burns cycles while waiting. That is a waste of time and energy. Why not use these cycles to execute instructions from another application or thread in case of a parallel program? That is exactly what latency hiding on the SPARC T-Series processors does. It is a hardware feature totally transparent to the user and application. As soon as there is a delay in the execution, the hardware uses these otherwise idle cycles to execute instructions from another process. As a result, the throughput capacity of the system improves because idle cycles are no longer wasted and therefore more jobs can be run per unit of time. This feature has been in the SPARC T-series from the beginning, so why this paper? The difference with previous publications on this topic is in the amount of detail given. How this all works under the hood is fully explained using two example programs. Starting from the assembly language instructions, it is demonstrated in what way these programs execute. To really see what is happening we go down to the processor pipeline level, where the gaps in the execution are, and show in what way these idle cycles are filled by other copies of the same program running simultaneously. Both the SPARC T4 as well as the older UltraSPARC T2+ processor are covered. You may wonder why the UltraSPARC T2+ is included. The focus of this work is on the SPARC T4 processor, but to explain the basic concept of latency hiding at this very low level, we start with the UltraSPARC T2+ processor because it is architecturally a much simpler design. From the single issue, in-order pipelines of this processor we then shift gears and cover how this all works on the much more advanced dual issue, out-of-order architecture of the T4. The analysis and performance experiments have been conducted on both processors. The results depend on the processor, but in all cases the theoretical estimates are confirmed by the experiments. If you're interested to read a lot more about this and find out how things really work under the hood, you can download a copy of the paper here. A paper like this could not have been produced without the help of several other people. I want to thank the co-author of this paper, Jared Smolens, for his very valuable contributions and our highly inspiring discussions. I'm also indebted to Thomas Nau (Ulm University, Germany), Shane Sigler and Mark Woodyard (both at Oracle) for their feedback on earlier versions of this paper. Karen Perkins (Perkins Technical Writing and Editing) and Rick Ramsey at Oracle were very helpful in providing editorial and publishing assistance.

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  • Facebook Oauth Logout

    - by Derek Troy-West
    I have an application that integrates with Facebook using Oauth 2. I can authorize with FB and query their REST and Graph APIs perfectly well, but when I authorize an active browser session is created with FB. I can then log-out of my application just fine, but the session with FB persists, so if anyone else uses the browser they will see the previous users FB account (unless the previous user manually logs out of FB also). The steps I take to authorize are: Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id...] This step opens a Facebook login/connect window if the user's browser doesn't already have an active FB session. Once they log-in to facebook they redirect to my site with a code I can exchange for an oauth token. Call [LINK: graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id..] with the code from (1) Now I have an Oauth Token, and the user's browser is logged into my site, and into FB. I call a bunch of APIs to do stuff: i.e. [LINK: graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=..] Lets say my user wants to log out of my site. The FB terms and conditions demand that I perform Single Sign Off, so when the user logs out of my site, they also are logged out of Facebook. There are arguments that this is a bit daft, but I'm happy to comply if there is any way of actually achieving that. I have seen suggestions that: A. I use the Javascript API to logout: FB.Connect.logout(). Well I tried using that, but it didn't work, and I'm not sure exactly how it could, as I don't use the Javascript API in any way on my site. The session isn't maintained or created by the Javascript API so I'm not sure how it's supposed to expire it either. B. Use [LINK: facebook.com/logout.php]. This was suggested by an admin in the Facebook forums some time ago. The example given related to the old way of getting FB sessions (non-oauth) so I don't think I can apply it in my case. C. Use the old REST api expireSession or revokeAuthorization. I tried both of these and while they do expire the Oauth token they don't invalidate the session that the browser is currently using so it has no effect, the user is not logged out of Facebook. I'm really at a bit of a loose end, the Facebook documentation is patchy, ambiguous and pretty poor. The support on the forums is non-existant, at the moment I can't even log in to the facebook forum, and aside from that, their own FB Connect integration doesn't even work on the forum itself. Doesn't inspire much confidence. Ta for any help you can offer. Derek ps. Had to change HTTPS to LINK, not enough karma to post links which is probably fair enough.

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  • Config transformations and “TransformXml task failed” error message

    - by Troy Hunt
    I’ve just enabled config transformations on a .NET 3.5 project in VS2010 RC after watching Scott Hanselman’s video on web deployment. Unfortunately every time I go to publish I now get the following error: The "TransformXml" task failed unexpectedly. System.UriFormatException: Invalid URI: The URI is empty. at System.Uri.CreateThis(String uri, Boolean dontEscape, UriKind uriKind) at System.Uri..ctor(String uriString) at Microsoft.Web.Publishing.Tasks.TransformXml.Execute() at Microsoft.Build.BackEnd.TaskExecutionHost.Microsoft.Build.BackEnd.ITaskExecutionHost.Execute() at Microsoft.Build.BackEnd.TaskBuilder.ExecuteInstantiatedTask(ITaskExecutionHost taskExecutionHost, TaskLoggingContext taskLoggingContext, TaskHost taskHost, ItemBucket bucket, TaskExecutionMode howToExecuteTask, Boolean& taskResult) If I take a brand new VS2010 web application which already has the config transformations by default I don’t have a problem so I suspect my issue is project related. Has anyone come across this before or have any ideas on a fix?

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  • WPF - Query string parameters on page

    - by Troy
    I am very new to WPF and have what appears to be a simple question: I have a Frame and I set the Source to the Uri of one of my pages. I want to pass some query string parameters to the page, but I am not sure how to access them in the Loaded event of the Page.

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  • What’s the status of CAT.NET?

    - by Troy Hunt
    I’m trying to find Microsoft CAT.NET for VS2010 and it looks like there was a beta of their 2.0 version but every link to it in Microsoft Connect is now dead. This is the most recent reference I could find: http://blogs.msdn.com/securitytools/archive/2010/02/05/how-to-use-cat-net-2-0-beta.aspx Some references suggest it may have been rolled into FxCop. Does anyone know the status of the project?

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  • Can I use a class as an object in C# to create instances of that class?

    - by Troy
    I'm writing a fairly uncomplicated program which can "connect" to several different types of data sources including text files and various databases. I've decided to implement each of these connection types as a class inherited from an interface I called iConnection. So, for example, I have TextConnection, MySQLConnection, &c... as classes. In another static class I've got a dictionary with human-readable names for these connections as keys. For the value of each dictionary entry, I want the class itself. That way, I can do things like: newConnection = new dict[connectionTypeString](); Is there a way to do something like this? I'm fairly new to C# so I'd appreciate any help.

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  • SQLCMD Syntax error when running script that runs fine in management studio

    - by Troy
    When I run the this select '$(''test'')' in SQL Management Studio 2008 it returns $('test') When I run sqlcmd -S SERVER -E -d DATABASE -q "select "$(''test'')" on the command line it returns Sqlcmd: Error: Syntax error at line 1 near command '''. If I remove the dollar sign it works. Is the "$" a special character? Is this a sqlcmd bug? How can I change the script to get the desired result.

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  • OleDb database to DataSet and back in c#?

    - by Troy
    I'm writing a program that lets a user: Connect to an (arbitrary) View all of the tables in that database in separate DataGridViews Edit them in the program, generate random data, and see the results Choose to commit those changes or revert So I discovered the DataSet class, which looks like it's capable of holding everything that a database would, and I decided that the best thing to do here would be to load everything into one dataset, let the user edit it, and then save the dataset back to the database. The problem is that the only way I can find to load the database tables is this: set = new DataSet(); DataTable schema = connection.GetOleDbSchemaTable( OleDbSchemaGuid.Tables, new string[] { null, null, null, "TABLE" }); foreach (DataRow row in schema.Rows) { string tableName = row.Field<string>("TABLE_NAME"); DataTable dTable = new DataTable(); new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + tableName, connection).Fill(dTable); dTable.TableName = tableName; set.Tables.Add(dTable); } while it seems like there should be a simpler way given that datasets appear to be designed for exactly this purpose. The real problem though is when I try saving these things. In order to use the OleDbDataAdapter.Update() method, I'm told that I have to provide valid INSERT queries. Doesn't that kind of negate the whole point of having a class to handle this stuff for me? Anyway, I'm hoping somebody can either explain how to load and save a database into a dataset or maybe give me a better idea of how to do what I'm trying to do. I could always parse the commands together myself, but that doesn't seem like the best solution.

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  • How can I have an mx:Window automatically resize to its content?

    - by Troy Gilbert
    I'm creating windows in a Flex application (AIR) using the mx:Window component. I'd like the window to be automatically sized to its content (because it will be dynamic), in the same way that an mx:Panel or mx:Box would be. I've customized components before, so I'm somewhat familiar with the UIComponent lifecycle, but I'm not quite sure how best to do the logic for auto-sizing a container. If it makes it easier, I'm not expecting that the window auto-size to its content at any time, thought that would be a bonus!

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