Search Results

Search found 879 results on 36 pages for 'programatically'.

Page 30/36 | < Previous Page | 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36  | Next Page >

• Customizing user privileges for an account in Windows (xp/vista/7)?

  - by claws

  Hello, I'm a .NET developer and recently learning WINDOWS API. When ever a program starts, my Kaspersky anti-virus says "application belonging to trusted group is trying to set debug previleges". I started wondering what are debug privileges? When ever application tries to open a file (using OpenFileDialog) it gives this message about debug privileges. It sometimes also says the so & so application is trying to read desktop.ini I'm not sure about what exactly it is either. Any way, my concern is about user previlages. When creating user account. We can only set the account to be either Administrative or Limited user. I read in MSDN that there are so many privileges for a user account. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb530716(VS.85).aspx SE_ASSIGNPRIMARYTOKEN_NAME SE_AUDIT_NAME SE_BACKUP_NAME SE_CHANGE_NOTIFY_NAME SE_CREATE_GLOBAL_NAME SE_CREATE_PAGEFILE_NAME SE_CREATE_PERMANENT_NAME SE_CREATE_SYMBOLIC_LINK_NAME SE_CREATE_TOKEN_NAME SE_DEBUG_NAME SE_ENABLE_DELEGATION_NAME SE_IMPERSONATE_NAME SE_INC_BASE_PRIORITY_NAME SE_INCREASE_QUOTA_NAME SE_INC_WORKING_SET_NAME SE_LOAD_DRIVER_NAME SE_LOCK_MEMORY_NAME SE_MACHINE_ACCOUNT_NAME SE_MANAGE_VOLUME_NAME SE_PROF_SINGLE_PROCESS_NAME SE_RELABEL_NAME SE_REMOTE_SHUTDOWN_NAME SE_RESTORE_NAME SE_SECURITY_NAME SE_SHUTDOWN_NAME SE_SYNC_AGENT_NAME SE_SYSTEM_ENVIRONMENT_NAME SE_SYSTEM_PROFILE_NAME SE_SYSTEMTIME_NAME SE_TAKE_OWNERSHIP_NAME SE_TCB_NAME SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME SE_TRUSTED_CREDMAN_ACCESS_NAME SE_UNDOCK_NAME SE_UNSOLICITED_INPUT_NAME Well, my question is How can I manually (not programatically) set/customize these privileges for a user account? Surprisingly I'm unable to find a PRIVILEGE CONST for registry access. On my lab computer admin has disabled the registry access to my account. Where can I know more information about these information? I use all 3 operating systems (XP, VISTA, 7) :)

  Read the article

• Dynamic subdomain routing

  - by Nader

  Hi everyone, I asked this question over at stackoverflow, but got very few views: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2284917/route-web-requests-to-different-servers-based-on-subdomain Perhaps it's more applicable to this crowd. Here it is again for convenience: I have a platform where a user can create a new website using a subdomain. There will be thousands of these, eg abc.mydomain.com, def.mydomain.com . Hopefully if we are successful hundreds of thousands. I need to be able to route these domains to a different IPs to point at a particular app server. I have this mapping in a database right now. What are the best practices and recommended technologies here? I see a couple options: Have DNS setup with a wildcard CNAME entry so that all requests go to a single IP where perhaps two machines using heartbeat (for failover) know how to look up the IP in the database and then do an http redirect to the appropriate app server. This seems clunky and slow to me. Run my own DNS server that can be programatically managed such that when a new site is created a DNS entry is added. We also move sites around to different app servers, so I would need to be able to update DNS entries in close to real time. Thoughts anyone? Thanks. Update2: I've setup external wildcard DNS pointing at an HAProxy web server whose job it is to route requests to backend servers. The mapping is stored in our internal PowerDNS server. Question now is how to get the HAProxy server (or another) to use the value of the internal DNS and not some config file or access list? – Update: Based on some suggestions below, it seems like reverse-proxy server(s) is the way to go. As I'll be rebalancing the domain-server mapping, these need to work instantly and the TTL on a DNS solution could be a problem. Any recommendations on software to use considering this domain-IP data is stored in a DB, and I'll need this to be performant?

  Read the article

• How can I batch convert SVG files containing text to PDF files (specifically on CentOS 5.3 x86_64)?

  - by molecules

  I would like to programatically convert SVG files to PDF files. However, the SVG files contain text that must be searchable in the generated PDF files. Also, it has to work on Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5.3 or CentOS 5.3 for the x86_64 architecture. It would be nice if it were Open Source or at least not very expensive. Here is what I've tried. All of these, except Batik, work fine on Debian Lenny. Inkscape I can get it installed using autopackages from http://inkscape.modevia.com/ap, but when I use it from the command line, the text is not searchable. Batik rasterizer [sic] When it converts SVG files to PDF files, the text is no longer searchable. svg2pdf The source for this and several of its dependencies are available to download. I have been trying to get it to compile on CentOS, but haven't had success yet. I found a precompiled version for Debian x86_64, but it doesn't work on CentOS. rsvg-convert Generated PDF isn't searchable on CentOS 5.3. Perhaps installing a newer version of cairo would help. Thanks to DaveParillo for mentioning rsvg-convert (on superuser). SOLUTION (but perhaps some of the above will still be useful to the reader) princeXML It works fine on CentOS when installed from source. For some reason it doesn't work when installed from the .rpm. Thanks Erik Dahlström! (provided solution that worked for my case on stackoverflow) Cross posted on stackoverflow

  Read the article

• Outlook 2010 not resolving SMTP address to Display Name

  - by Ben

  I have a weird problem where a user (director, naturally) has an odd problem with the way the to field shows in his Outlook. We are using Outlook 2010 (with RPC/HTTP) and Exch 2003 at the back end. Most of his mail shows in his mailbox with the To: field as normal. (e.g. Fred Bloggs in the to field.) However, some mails come in showing in the To: field as [email protected]. (Apparently this is an issue!) For example, most show as: but a few come in as: There doesn't appear to be a pattern to this. I have tried to replicate by: Sending from any specific senders to see if it recurs (it doesn't) Typing his full name in my Outlook and sending (it resolves as normal) Sending programatically (e.g. from script) - (it still resolves OK) Forcing a "[email protected]" entry in my Outlook. It resolves as soon as I hit enter Sending in cached mode Sending disconnected Anyone got any ideas how I can either replicate the problem or fix it! I can't tell at the moment whether it is a problem at his end or the sender's. EDIT This seems to be a global issue, following some more digging. Most people seem to have a few emails in their inbox addressed to their smtp address, rather than display name.

  Read the article

• Snapshotting single disk of running Hyper-V VM

  - by modelnine

  I'm currently somewhat at a loss of how to create a snapshot of a single virtual hard-disk of a running Hyper-V VM. Generally, creating a differential disk while a server is shut down is no problem (i.e., call the new-vhd cmdlet and pass a ParentPath, then update the VHD-binding of the respective VM-device), but while the host is running, all I can find is checkpointing the VM as a whole (which creates snapshots of all attached disks), and leaves the VM-state in a form which isn't easily processable by external tools (i.e., it requires reading additional meta-data from the VM). Generally, what'd I'd like to happen for a single-disk snapshot (in my understanding) is: Pause the VM Rename current disk to some other name which specifies it as a base-snapshot Create a new VHD which has the renamed VHD as parent path and is marked as "current" Swap the VHD for the VM for the snapshotted hard-disk to the newly created differential VHD Resume the VM Is there any means to do this programatically? Update: I've seen that this is actually possible with SCSI-disks, i.e. pause the VM, remove the SCSI disk, make the snapshot, reattach the SCSI disk at the same position, resume the VM. And, the VM resumes properly. But: is something similar also possible with G1 machines for the boot disk which is always IDE?

  Read the article

• Can SQL Server (2008) transaction logs handle the database being dropped and re-created?

  - by Ben

  We're trying to restore a database (created programatically by running a hand-crafted SQL script we have). Our backup routine is to create a full backup of every database on the SQL Server 2008 instance on a Saturday then automatic transaction logs (I assume these are created automatically anyway - we appear to have lots of log files, possibly one per transaction after the full backup was taken?). On Tuesday this week the database in question was dropped and another one with the exact same name and schema was created. SQL Server has continued to create transaction log files but it hasn't had chance to create a new full backup (that won't happen until next Saturday). Now as it turns out we need to restore the database to how it was on Thursday. This is after the "drop and re-create". My question is, is this possible? If it isn't, what exactly does SQL Server think that it's writing to those transaction logs created since the drop and re-create? (I understood they were kind of files containing a binary delta, which makes me think maybe we can restore from them?) I'm no DBA but then neither is our IT department, so I'm doing the best I can to resolve this. Any advice much appreciated!

  Read the article

• can't change wallpaper real time regedit commands

  - by itagomo

  i'm a first time 'SuperUser' poster .. what i want is to programatically change Desktop Wallpaper every few hours .. i'm using a batch file (.bat) and don't want to use other languages or programs, just the pre-installed stuffs with Windows XP .. i've already made my script that will modify values in the Registry reg add "HKCU\Control Panel\Desktop" /v Wallpaper /d "C:\Pictures\picture1.jpg" but it's not taking effect real time even with this command: RUNDLL32.EXE USER32.DLL,UpdatePerUserSystemParameters ,1 ,True need to reboot first to take effect. if i'm going to use Display Properties, it'll show at once. what i've noticed is that changes will take effect real time if it's a .bmp file and not for .jpg images. Second option is to convert JPG to 24-bit BMP files (to look exactly the same, but will triple the file size), but i'm hoping a better way .. i've already googled things but no avail.. i hope you (the helpful reader) can post any .bat or even vbs script to change Desktop Wallpaper instantly with JPG pictures .. hoping there's an answer without installing other apps or scripts ..

  Read the article

• how to tackle this combinatorial algorithm problem

  - by Andrew Bullock

  I have N people who must each take T exams. Each exam takes "some" time, e.g. 30 min (no such thing as finishing early). Exams must be performed in front of an examiner. I need to schedule each person to take each exam in front of an examiner within an overall time period, using the minimum number of examiners for the minimum amount of time (i.e. no examiners idle) There are the following restrictions: No person can be in 2 places at once each person must take each exam once noone should be examined by the same examiner twice I realise that an optimal solution is probably NP-Complete, and that I'm probably best off using a genetic algorithm to obtain a best estimate (similar to this? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/184195/seating-plan-software-recommendations-does-such-a-beast-even-exist). I'm comfortable with how genetic algorithms work, what i'm struggling with is how to model the problem programatically such that i CAN manipulate the parameters genetically.. If each exam took the same amount of time, then i'd divide the time period up into these lengths, and simply create a matrix of time slots vs examiners and drop the candidates in. However because the times of each test are not necessarily the same, i'm a bit lost on how to approach this. currently im doing this: make a list of all "tests" which need to take place, between every candidate and exam start with as many examiners as there are tests repeatedly loop over all examiners, for each one: find an unscheduled test which is eligible for the examiner (based on the restrictions) continue until all tests that can be scheduled, are if there are any unscheduled tests, increment the number of examiners and start again. i'm looking for better suggestions on how to approach this, as it feels rather crude currently.

  Read the article

• command binding for ribbon control

  - by kartik

  I'm trying to use the Microsoft ribbon control programatically using C#. Everything is fine but I'm unable to bind the command through the RibbonCommand. Can anyone give me an example of how to do this? My actual code is: Ribbon rbn = new Ribbon(); RibbonTab file = new RibbonTab(); file.Name = "file"; file.Label = "FILE"; RibbonTab edit = new RibbonTab(); edit.Name = "edit"; edit.Label = "Edit"; RibbonGroupPanel rbgp = new RibbonGroupPanel(); RibbonGroup rbg = new RibbonGroup(); RibbonButton rbtn = new RibbonButton(); rbtn.Content = "New"; RibbonCommand rcomnd = new RibbonCommand(); rcomnd.LabelTitle = "NEW"; rcomnd.ToolTipDescription = "THIS IS NEW"; rcomnd.LargeImageSource = imgSource; rcomnd.Execute(rbtn, rbtn); rbtn.IsEnabled = true; //rcomnd.SmallImageSource = imgSource; rcomnd.CanExecute +=new CanExecuteRoutedEventHandler(rcomnd_CanExecute); rcomnd.Executed +=new ExecutedRoutedEventHandler(rcomnd_Executed); CommandBinding cmdb = new CommandBinding(ApplicationCommands.New); cmdb.Command = ApplicationCommands.New; cmdb.Executed +=new ExecutedRoutedEventHandler(cmdb_Executed); CommandBind.Add(cmdb); //rcomnd.Executed += new ExecutedRoutedEventHandler(OnAddNewEntry);*/ rbtn.Click +=new System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler(rbtn_Click); rbtn.Command = rcomnd; But the bindings are not working and the button is not enabled.

  Read the article

• C# web cam WM_CAP_CONNECT: Want to force a capture source when multiple capture sources present.

  - by Codejoy

  I am using WebCam_Capture code I found online to access through C# a web cam. On a computer with one video source it works like a charm! (Program starts up at start up, finds the webcam and it works). Though on a computer with many video sources (Say a web cam and then manycam running on top of that), the program starts and queries the user which source to use. I would love my program to start up autonomously at the restart of a machine so this waiting for user input throws a wrench in that, anyway I can force it to just select say the first found source and go with that? So i have some webcam code I yes indeed found online here: http://channel9.msdn.com/forums/TechOff/93476-Programatically-Using-A-Webcam-In-C/?CommentID=94149 and now in preparing this post I did do more research and found out that my issue lies in this line from the above code: SendMessage(mCapHwnd, WM_CAP_CONNECT, 0, 0); That is what connects the webcam up, the only issue is that the above brings up this annoying video source dialog if I have more than one source. I want it to just use the first source so that dialog doesn't come up. I tried passing in different values where the 0's are, sure enough the dialog doesn't come up but it doesn't work either. Anyone know if there is a value I can pass to the SendMessage to suspend the dialog and yet have it select the first video source it finds?

  Read the article

• EL syntax error: Expression cannot start with binary operator

  - by auser

  Anyone have any creative ideas for how I can solve this warning? EL syntax error: Expression cannot start with binary operator caused by the following code: String.format("#{myController.deleteItemById(%d)}", getId()) My code looked like this before: "#{myController.deleteItemById(" + getId() + ")}" but this caused eclipse to generate the following warning: EL syntax error: String is not closed UPDATE: @ManagedBean(name = "myController") @ViewScoped public class MyController implements Serializable { private long id; private HtmlPanelGroup panel; public long getId() {return this.id; } private void getPanel() { /// bunch of code for programatically creating a form HtmlCommandButton deleteButton = new HtmlCommandButton(); deleteButton.setId(id); deleteButton.setValue(value); deleteButton.setActionExpression(/* EL expression used here */); } } <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets"> <!-- some other elements removed for the sake of clarity --> <h:body> <h:panelGroup binding="#{myController.panel}" /> </h:body> </html>

  Read the article

• SSRS 2005 Set SimplePageHeaders on the report instead of the server?

  - by Adam

  I have one report that does not export to excel friendly from SSRS 2005. I know I can use <Render> <Extension Name="EXCEL" Type="Microsoft.ReportingServices.Rendering.ExcelRenderer.ExcelRenderer,Microsoft.ReportingServices.ExcelRendering"> <Configuration> <DeviceInfo> <SimplePageHeaders>True</SimplePageHeaders> </DeviceInfo> </Configuration> </Extension> </Render> in the rsreportserver.config, but I am not the only person with reports on this machine. I also found that you can pass &rc:SimplePageHeaders=True in the url to export the report programatically. I tried adding the &rc:SimplePageHeaders=True to the end of the url when navigating to the report manager, but when I select excel from the dropdown and click export the headers are still exported. I even tried setting the rc:Command=Render and rc:Format=EXCEL in the url too without any luck. Is there a way to do what I am trying to do? note: I am wanting to render the report on the built in report manager and use the build in export to excel dropdown, not in an app or website.

  Read the article

• How to hide UIStatusBar and show UINavigationBar at the top when UIView changes to LandscapeOrientat

  - by KayKay

  I am using two views (portraitView and landscapeView) loaded from xib in a viewcontroller for different InterfaceOrientation each for Portrait and Landscape mode. The view in portrait mode has statusbar and navigationbar and other one has just the navigationbar. The problem is that even i made statusbar hidden programatically the view in Landscape mode has blank space left at the position of statusbar and below is navigationbar which is for sure looking embarrassing. Is it possible to put the navigationbar at the top - replacing the statusbar position. I tried many options like. if (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) { [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarHidden:YES animated:NO]; self.navigationController.navigationBarHidden = NO; [[self view] setFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 480, 320)]; self.navigationController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; self.view = self.landscapeView; } But despite all this efforts it only lefts the same 20x480 pixels blank space and below it navigationbar. But here there is no end to trouble when I switch back to portraitView, the navigation bar hides behind the statusbar mere showing remaining 320x(44-20)px on top. Please help and thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Getting Error System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException

  - by Savan Parmar

  Hey All, I am using Vb.Net to Create Labels in Microsoft. For that i am using below mantioend Code. Public Sub CreateLabel(ByVal StrFilter As String, ByVal Path As String) WordApp = CreateObject("Word.Application") ''Add a new document. WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add() Dim oConn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(connSTR) oConn.Open() Dim oCmd As SqlCommand Dim oDR As SqlDataReader oCmd = New SqlCommand(StrFilter, oConn) oDR = oCmd.ExecuteReader Dim intI As Integer Dim FilePath As String = "" With WordDoc.MailMerge With .Fields Do While oDR.Read For intI = 0 To oDR.FieldCount - 1 .Add(WordApp.Selection.Range, oDR.Item(intI)) Next Loop End With Dim objAutoText As Word.AutoTextEntry = WordApp.NormalTemplate.AutoTextEntries.Add("MyLabelLayout", WordDoc.Content) WordDoc.Content.Delete() .MainDocumentType = Word.WdMailMergeMainDocType.wdMailingLabels FilePath = CreateSource(StrFilter) .OpenDataSource(FilePath) Dim NewLabel As Word.CustomLabel = WordApp.MailingLabel.CustomLabels.Add("MyLabel", False) WordApp.MailingLabel.CreateNewDocument(Name:="MyLabel", Address:="", AutoText:="MyLabelLayout") objAutoText.Delete() .Destination = Word.WdMailMergeDestination.wdSendToNewDocument WordApp.Visible = True .Execute() End With oConn.Close() WordDoc.Close() End Sub Private Function CreateSource(ByVal StrFilter As String) As String Dim CnnUser As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(connSTR) Dim sw As StreamWriter = File.CreateText("C:\Mail.Txt") Dim Path As String = "C:\Mail.Txt" Dim StrHeader As String = "" Try Dim SelectCMD As SqlCommand = New SqlCommand(StrFilter, CnnUser) Dim oDR As SqlDataReader Dim IntI As Integer SelectCMD.CommandType = CommandType.Text CnnUser.Open() oDR = SelectCMD.ExecuteReader For IntI = 0 To oDR.FieldCount - 1 StrHeader &= oDR.GetName(IntI) & " ," Next StrHeader = Mid(StrHeader, 1, Len(StrHeader) - 2) sw.WriteLine(StrHeader) sw.Flush() sw.Close() StrHeader = "" Do While oDR.Read For IntJ As Integer = 0 To oDR.FieldCount - 1 StrHeader &= oDR.GetString(IntJ) & " ," Next Loop StrHeader = Mid(StrHeader, 1, Len(StrHeader) - 2) sw = File.AppendText(Path) sw.WriteLine(StrHeader) CnnUser.Close() sw.Flush() sw.Close() Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "TempID", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try Return Path End Function Now when i am running the programm i am getting this error.I tried hard but not able to locate what could be the problem the error is:- System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException --Horizontal and vertical pitch must be greater than or equal to the label width and height, respectively. Even though i tried to set the Horizontal and vertical pitch programatically but it gives same err. Plz if any one can help

  Read the article

• How to validate xml using a .dtd via a proxy and NOT using system.net.defaultproxy

  - by Lanceomagnifico

  Hi, Someone else has already asked a somewhat similar question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1888887/validate-an-xml-file-against-a-dtd-with-a-proxy-c-2-0/2766197#2766197 Here's my problem: We have a website application that needs to use both internal and external resources. We have a bunch of internal webservices. Requests to the CANNOT go through the proxy. If we try to, we get 404 errors since the proxy DNS doesn't know about our internal webservice domains. We generate a few xml files that have to be valid. I'd like to use the provided dtd documents to validate the xml. The dtd urls are outside our network and MUST go through the proxy. Is there any way to validate via dtd through a proxy without using system.net.defaultproxy? If we use defaultproxy, the internal webservices are busted, but the dtd validation works.# Here is what I'm doing to validate the xml right now: public static XDocument ValidateXmlUsingDtd(string xml) { var xrSettings = new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD, ProhibitDtd = false }; var sr = new StringReader(xml.Trim()); XmlReader xRead = XmlReader.Create(sr, xrSettings); return XDocument.Load(xRead); } Ideally, there would be some way to assign a proxy to the XmlReader much like you can assign a proxy to the HttpWebRequest object. Or perhaps there is a way to programatically turn defaultproxy on or off? So that I can just turn it on for the call to Load the Xdocument, then turn it off again? FYI - I'm open to ideas on how to tackle this - note that the proxy is located in another domain, and they don't want to have to set up a dns lookup to our dns server for our internal webservice addresses. Cheers, Lance

  Read the article

• UINavigationController with UIView and UITableView

  - by Tobster

  I'm creating a navigation-based app which displays a graph, rendered with openGL, and a tableview listing disclosure buttons of all of the elements that are displayed on the graph, and a settings disclosure button. The navigation controller is also a tableview delegate and datasource, and the tableview is added to the view programatically and has its' delegate and datasource set to 'self'. The OpenGL based graph view is added via IB. The problem I'm having is that I'm trying to push a view controller (either settings or graph element properties) within the didSelectRowAtIndexPath method. The method registers and the new view is pushed on, but the tableview stays and obscures part of the view that was pushed on, as if it has a different navigation controller. I can't seem to set the tableview's navigation controller to be the same as the rest of the UINavigationControllers' view. Does anyone know how I could fix this? My navigation controllers' initWithCoder method, where the tableview is added, appears as follows: elementList = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableFrame style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; elementList.dataSource = self; elementList.delegate = self; [self.view addSubview:elementList]; Further in the source file, the DidSelectRowAtIndexPath method where the navigation controller is pushed appears as follows: Settings* Controller = [[Settings alloc] init]; [self pushViewController:Controller animated:YES]; [Controller release];

  Read the article

• WCF Manual SOAP POST using HttpWebRequest over https with Usertoken

  - by VonBlender

  Hi, I'm writing a client that calls a number of WCF webservices (written externallyt to my company) that are very similar in structure. The design I was hoping to use is to manually build the SOAP message from XML chunks that are stored in a database and then processed through a generic web service handler class. I have access to the WSDL's for each webservice and example working XML. The design approach is such that we can easily add to the message dynamically, hence the reason for not using the auto generated proxy classes I am basically at the last part now with the entire SOAP message constructed but am getting a SOAP fault security error returned. I have used fiddler to compare the message I'm sending with one that is sent using the normal (far simpler...) WCF generated proxy classes and can't see any difference apart from the id attribute of the Usertoken element in the SOAP header. This is where my lack of experience in this area isn't helping. I think this is because the id is generated automatically (presumably because we're using https). My question is how do I generate this programatically? I have searched for hours online but the majority of solutions are either using the proxy classes or not over https. I have briefly looked at WCE but aware this is replaced by WCF now so don't want to waste time looking into this if it's not the solution. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. I can post some code examples when I'm back in work if it will help but the method I'm using is very straightforward and only using XElements and such like at the moment (as we're using linq to sql). thanks, Andy

  Read the article

• Reset or clear the UIView from UILabels

  - by Nicsoft

  Hello, I have created an UIView on which I have a number of labels and I'm also drawing some lines in the same UIView. Sometimes I update the lines that I'm drawing. Now, the problem I am having is that when I update the lines, they get drawn according to my wish. But the labels are overwriting themselves. This shouldn't have been a problem if it wasn't for that the position is changed about 1 pixel and that makes the text go blurry. I don't know how to remove the labels before they are redrawn. I do remove the labels from the superview and add them back when drawRect is called, but the SetNeedDisplay doesn't clear the screen before the graphic is updated, I guess (I think I read that SetNeedsDisplay/drawRect doesn't clear the screen, just updating the content. Couldn't find the text now while searching)? What is the pattern to use here, should I create a retangle with the size of the screen (or the area where the labels are) and fill it with the background colour, or is there any other way to clear or reset the UIView (I don't want to release and create the UIView again). The view is created in IB and associated with a custom UIView. In IB I add some buttons and other static labels. The above labels and graphics is created programatically. Any comments would be helpful! Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• jQuery animating scroll top to 0 not working on Windows Phone

  - by cgoddard

  I have written a website which has a function that scrolls the users view to the top of the page. The call in question is: $('html,body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 150, 'swing'); This works fine on all desktop browsers, but on Windows Phone, it only scrolls the user up about 180 pixels, then stops. I have tried replacing the function with: $('html,body').scrollTop(0); It snaps to the top on desktops, but it scrolls to the top on the phone. I believe this need for Internet Explorer Mobile to try to smoothly animate the scrolling, and is causing the issue. If this is the case (or if not, could someone correct me), how can I override this function to get the animation to work? EDIT Although its not ideal, it does seem to work in a limited capacity, I have replaced the scroll code with this: $('html,body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 150, 'swing', function() { $('html,body').scrollTop(0); }); But it would be good to know if there is an option to disable the smooth scrolling in Mobile IE programatically.

  Read the article

• GridView doesn't remember state between postbacks

  - by Ryan

  Hi, I have a simple ASP page with databound grid (bound to an object source). The grid is within the page of a wizard and has a 'select' checkbox for each row. In one stage of the wizard, I bind the GridView: protected void Wizard1_NextButtonClick(object sender, WizardNavigationEventArgs e) { ... // Bind and display matches GridViewMatches.EnableViewState = true; GridViewMatches.DataSource = getEmailRecipients(); GridViewMatches.DataBind(); And when the finish button is clicked, I iterate through the rows and check what's selected: protected void Wizard1_FinishButtonClick(object sender, WizardNavigationEventArgs e) { // Set the selected values, depending on the checkboxes on the grid. foreach (GridViewRow gr in GridViewMatches.Rows) { Int32 personID = Convert.ToInt32(gr.Cells[0].Text); CheckBox selected = (CheckBox) gr.Cells[1].FindControl("CheckBoxSelectedToSend"); But at this stage GridViewMatches.Rows.Count = 0! I don't re-bind the grid, I shouldn't need to, right? I expect the view-state to maintain the state. (Also, if I do rebind the grid, my selection checkboxes will be cleared) NB: This page also dynamically adds user controls in OnInit method. I have heard that it might mess with the view state, but as far as I can tell, I am doing it correctly and the viewstate for those added controls seems to work (values are persisted between postbacks) Thanks a lot in advance for any help! Ryan UPDATE: Could this be to do with the fact I am setting the datasource programatically? I wondered if the asp engine was databinding the grid during the page lifecycle to a datasource that was not yet defined. (In a test page, the GridView is 'automatically' databound'. I don't want the grid to re-bound I just want the values from the viewstate from the previous post! Also, I have this in the asp header: ViewStateEncryptionMode="Never" - this was to resolve an occasional 'Invalid Viewstate Validation MAC' message Thanks again Ryan

  Read the article

• How to make a UITextField move up when keyboard is present

  - by philfreo

  EDIT: Over 1k views with 3 upvotes? If this question is helpful, vote it up :) With the iPhone SDK: I have a UIView with UITextFields that brings up a keyboard. I need it to be able to: Allow scrolling of the contents of the UIScrollView to see the other text fields once the keyboard is brought up Automatically "jump" (by scrolling up) or shortening I know that I need a UIScrollView. I've tried changing the class of my UIView to a UIScrollView but I'm still unable to scroll the textboxes up or down. Do I need both a UIView and a UIScrollView? Does one go inside the other? [EDIT: I now know that you want a UIView inside of a UIScrollView, and the trick is to programatically set the content size of the UIScrollView to the frame size of the UIView.] Then what needs to be implemented in order to automatically scroll to the active text field? Ideally as much of the setup of the components as possible will be done in Interface Builder. I'd like to only write code for what needs it. Note: the UIView (or UIScrollView) that I'm working with is brought up by a tabbar (UITabBar), which needs to function as normal. Edit: I am adding the scroll bar just for when the keyboard comes up. Even though it's not needed, I feel like it provides a better interface because then the user can scroll and change textboxes, for example. I've got it working where I change the frame size of the UIScrollView when the keyboard goes up and down. I'm simply using: -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { //Keyboard becomes visible scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(scrollView.frame.origin.x, scrollView.frame.origin.y, scrollView.frame.size.width, scrollView.frame.size.height - 215 + 50); //resize } -(void)textFieldDidEndEditing:(UITextField *)textField { //keyboard will hide scrollView.frame = CGRectMake(scrollView.frame.origin.x, scrollView.frame.origin.y, scrollView.frame.size.width, scrollView.frame.size.height + 215 - 50); //resize } However this doesn't automatically "move up" or center the lower text fields in the visible area, which is what I would really like.

  Read the article

• How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

  - by Terry Robinson

  Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

  Read the article

• Finding JNP port in JBoss from Servlet

  - by Steve Jackson

  I have a servlet running in JBoss (4.2.2.GA and 4.3-eap) that needs to connect to an EJB to do work. In general this code works fine to get the Context to connect and make RMI calls (all in the same server). public class ContextFactory { public static final int DEFAULT_JNDI_PORT = 1099; public static final String DEFAULT_CONTEXT_FACTORY_CLASS = "org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory"; public static final String DEFAULT_URL_PREFIXES = "org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces"; public Context createContext(String serverAddress) { //combine provider name and port String providerUrl = serverAddress + ":" + DEFAULT_JNDI_PORT; //Set properties needed for Context: factory, provider, and package prefixes. Hashtable<String, String> env = new Hashtable<String, String>(3); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, DEFAULT_CONTEXT_FACTORY_CLASS); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, providerUrl); env.put(Context.URL_PKG_PREFIXES, DEFAULT_URL_PREFIXES); return new InitialContext(env); } Now, when I change the JNDI bind port from 1099 in server/conf/jboss-service.xml I can't figure out how to programatically find the correct port for the providerUrl above. I've dumped System.getProperties() and System.getEnv() and it doesn't appear there. I'm pretty sure I can set it in server/conf/jndi.properties as well, but I was hoping to avoid another magic config file. I've tried the HttpNamingContextFactory but that fails "java.net.ProtocolException: Server redirected too many times (20)" env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "org.jboss.naming.HttpNamingContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "http://" + serverAddress + ":8080/invoker/JNDIFactory"); Any ideas?

  Read the article

• JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

  - by wobblycogs

  I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

  Read the article

• Android custom categories

  - by marian

  Hello, I have a view as a main screen of the application which contains the available application's actions as icon+text pairs ( desktop like). I want to find out programatically what are the activities defined ONLY in my AndroidManifest.xml Suppose I have : < activity android:name="example.mainActivity" android:label="mainActivity" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" / < category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity1" android:label="Activity1" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity < activity android:name="example.activity2" android:label="Activity2" < intent-filter < action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" / < category android:name="example.custom.ACTIVITY" / < /intent-filter < /activity I want that in the mainActivity to dinamically read Activity1 and Activity2 because when i add Activity3 for example it will be automatically read. I thought that this could be done by defining a custom category, example.custom.ACTIVITY, and in the mainActivity use the packageManager.queryIntentActivities(Intent intent, int flags) but it doesn't seem to be working. I really would like to code it to dinamically discover the installed activities in my application. Do you have any ideas on how to do this? Thank you

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36  | Next Page >