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  • Route outbound connections from local network through VPN

    - by Sharkos
    I have a server A running OpenVPN, an OpenVPN client B (a rooted Android phone as it happens) and a third party C (a laptop, tablet etc.) tethered to B. B can use the VPN to access the internet via A; C can use the tethered connection WITHOUT the VPN to access the internet via B. However, with the VPN on B active, I cannot load information from the internet on C. A appears to log similar traffic inbound and outbound when B or C attempt to load a webpage, say, but the VPN on device B reports no inbound traffic when the connection originated from C. Where should I look for packets being dropped, and what ip rules should I use to make sure they are passed back through the VPN and into the local network B <- C? (I'll obviously post whatever further information is needed.) Further info Without VPN: root@android:/ # ip route default via [B's External Gateway] dev rmnet0 [B's External Subnet] dev rmnet0 proto kernel scope link src [B's External IP] [B's External Gateway] dev rmnet0 scope link 192.168.43.0/24 dev wlan0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.43.1 With VPN: root@android:/ # ip route 0.0.0.0/1 dev tun0 scope link default via [B's External Gateway] dev rmnet0 [B's External Subnet] dev rmnet0 proto kernel scope link src [B's External IP] [B's External Gateway] dev rmnet0 scope link [External address of A] dev tun0 scope link 128.0.0.0/1 dev tun0 scope link 172.16.0.0/24 dev tun0 scope link 172.16.0.8/30 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 172.16.0.10 192.168.43.0/24 dev wlan0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.43.1 192.168.168.0/24 dev tun0 scope link

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  • Tor provider point

    - by user41998
    Hello, I have a tor runned on my computer. In Vidalia (gui-frontend) there is a button: 'Use a new identity'. This will change last point of connecting in Tor-network. Are there any commands which I can send to the 9051 port (configure-port) to use randomly any another server?

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  • Tor provider point

    - by user41998
    Hello, I have a tor runned on my computer. In Vidalia (gui-frontend) there is a button: 'Use a new identity'. This will change last point of connecting in Tor-network. Are there any commands which I can send to the 9051 port (configure-port) to use randomly any another server?

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  • Why do I need to add my application pool identity to the IIS_IUSRS group?

    - by smcolligan
    I'm setting up a .NET v4.0 web application on a Windows 2008 R2/IIS 7.5 server that uses a domain account for the application pool identity. When I access the site, I get the following error: The current identity () does not have write access to 'C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Temporary ASP.NET Files' According to this: http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/140/understanding-built-in-user-and-group-accounts-in-iis/ the identity of the worker process is added to the IIS_IUSRS group when the process starts. This seems to work fine for the existing .NET v2.0 applications I have running on the same server (I have not had to add their domain account application pool identities to IIS_IUSRS group). This does not seem to be the case for the first .NET v4.0 web application I'm setting up. Once I add the identity to the group, everything works fine. I suspect something is not configured correctly that is forcing me to do this. I would like to understand this before rolling out more sites/servers. Thanks in advance for your help...

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  • What should be the minimal design/scope documentation before development begins?

    - by Oliver Hyde
    I am a junior developer working on my own in the programming aspect of projects. I am given a png file with 5-6 of the pages designed, most times in specific detail. From this I'm asked to develop the back end system needed to maintain the website, usually a cataloging system with products, tags and categories and match the front end to the design. I find myself in a pickle because when I make decisions based on assumptions about the flow of the website, due to a lack of outlining details, I get corrected and am required to rewrite the code to suit what was actually desired. This process happens multiple times throughout a project, often times on the same detail, until it's finally finished, with broken windows all through it. I understand that projects have scope creep, and can appreciate that I need to plan for this, but I feel that in this situation, I'm not receiving enough outlining details to effectively plan for the project, resulting in broken code and a stressed mind. What should be the minimal design/scope documentation I receive before I begin development?

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  • Instead of trigger in SQL Server - looses SCOPE_IDENTITY?

    - by kastermester
    Hey StackOverflow, I am (once again) having some issues with some SQL. I have a table, on which I have created an INSTEAD OF trigger to enforce some buissness rules (rules not really important). This works as intended. My issue is, that now when inserting data into this table, SCOPE_IDENTITY() now returns a NULL value, rather than the actual inserted identity, my guess is that this is because it is now out of scope - but then how do I get this in scope? I am using SQL Server 2008. Per request, here's the SQL: Insert + Scope code INSERT INTO [dbo].[Payment]([DateFrom], [DateTo], [CustomerId], [AdminId]) VALUES ('2009-01-20', '2009-01-31', 6, 1) SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY() Trigger: CREATE TRIGGER [dbo].[TR_Payments_Insert] ON [dbo].[Payment] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT 1 FROM dbo.Payment p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo) ) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM Inserted p INNER JOIN Inserted i ON p.CustomerId = i.CustomerId WHERE (i.DateFrom <> p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <> p.DateTo) AND ((i.DateFrom >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateFrom <= p.DateTo) OR (i.DateTo >= p.DateFrom AND i.DateTo <= p.DateTo)) ) BEGIN INSERT INTO dbo.Payment (DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId) SELECT DateFrom, DateTo, CustomerId, AdminId FROM Inserted END ELSE BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END END The code did work before the creation of this trigger, also I am using LINQ to SQL in C# and as far as I can see, I have no way of changing SCOPE_IDENTITY to @@IDENITY - is there really no way out of this one?

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  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • How to solve concurrency problems in ASP.NET Windows-Workflow and ActiveRecord/NHibernate?

    - by Famous Nerd
    I have found that ActiveRecord uses the Session-Scope object within the ASP.NET application and that if the web-site is read-write we can have a tug-o-war between the Workflow's own Data-Access SessionScope and that of the ASP.NET site. I would really like to have the WindowsWorkflow Runtime use the same object session as the web-site however, they have different lifetimes. Sometimes, a web-request may save a very simple piece of data which would execute quickly however, if the web-site kicks off a workflow process.. how can that workflow make data-modifications while still allowing the Appliaction_EndRequest to dispose the ASP.NET SessionScope ... it's like ownership of the SessionScope should be shared between the workflow runtime and the ASP.NET website. Manual Workflow Scheduler may be the Savior... if a workflow is synchronous and merely uses CallExternalMethod to interact with the Host then we could constrain all the data-access to the host.. then the sessionScope can exist once. This however, won't solve the problem of a delay activity... if this delay fires, we could need to update data... in this case we'd need an isolated Session Scope and concurrency may arise. This however, differs from SharePoint workflows where it seems that the SharePoint workflow can save data from the web and the workflow and that concurrency is handled through other means. Can anyone offer any suggestions on how to allow the workflow to manage data and play nice with ASP.NET web sites?

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  • Rails named_scope across multiple tables

    - by wakiki
    I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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  • Is there a default way to get hold of an internal property in jQueryUi widget?

    - by prodigitalson
    Im using an existing widget from the jquery-ui labs call selectmenu. It has callback options for the events close and open. The problem is i need in these event to animate a node that is part of the widget but not what its connected to. In order to do this i need access to this node. for example if i were to actually modify the widget code itself: // ... other methods/properties "open" : function(event){ // ... the original logic // this is my animation $(this.list).slideUp('slow'); // this is the orginal call to _trigger this._trigger('open', event, $this._uiHash()); }, // ... other methods/properties However when in the scope of the event handler i attach this is the orginal element i called the widget on. I need the widget instance or specifically the widget instance's list property. $('select#custom').selectmenu({ 'open': function(){ // in this scope `this` is an HTMLSelectElement not the ui widget } }); Whats the best way to go about getting the list property from the widget?

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  • Declaring an enum within a class

    - by bporter
    In the following code snippet, the Color enum is declared within the Car class in order to limit the scope of the enum and to try not to "pollute" the global namespace. class Car { public: enum Color { RED, BLUE, WHITE }; void SetColor( Car::Color color ) { _color = color; } Car::Color GetColor() const { return _color; } private: Car::Color _color; }; (1) Is this a good way to limit the scope of the Color enum? Or, should I declare it outside of the Car class, but possibly within its own namespace or struct? I just came across this article today, which advocates the latter and discusses some nice points about enums: http://gamesfromwithin.com/stupid-c-tricks-2-better-enums. (2) In this example, when working within the class, is it best to code the enum as Car::Color, or would just Color suffice? (I assume the former is better, just in case there is another Color enum declared in the global namespace. That way, at least, we are explicit about the enum to we are referring.) Thanks in advance for any input on this.

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  • C++ Declaring an enum within a class

    - by bporter
    In the following code snippet, the Color enum is declared within the Car class in order to limit the scope of the enum and to try not to "pollute" the global namespace. class Car { public: enum Color { RED, BLUE, WHITE }; void SetColor( Car::Color color ) { _color = color; } Car::Color GetColor() const { return _color; } private: Car::Color _color; }; (1) Is this a good way to limit the scope of the Color enum? Or, should I declare it outside of the Car class, but possibly within its own namespace or struct? I just came across this article today, which advocates the latter and discusses some nice points about enums: http://gamesfromwithin.com/stupid-c-tricks-2-better-enums. (2) In this example, when working within the class, is it best to code the enum as Car::Color, or would just Color suffice? (I assume the former is better, just in case there is another Color enum declared in the global namespace. That way, at least, we are explicit about the enum to we are referring.) Thanks in advance for any input on this.

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  • python interactive mode module import issue

    - by Jeff
    I believe I have what would be called a scope issue, perhaps name space. Not too sure I'm new to python. I'm trying to make a module that will search through a list using regular expressions. I'm sure there is a better way of doing it but this error that I'm getting is bugging me and I want to understand why. here's my code: class relist(list): def __init__(self, l): list.__init__(self, l) def __getitem__(self, rexp): r = re.compile(rexp) res = filter(r.match, self) return res if __name__ == '__main__': import re listl = [x+y for x in 'test string' for y in 'another string for testing'] print(listl) test = relist(listl) print('----------------------------------') print(test['[s.]']) When I run this code through the command line it works the way I expect it to; however when I run it through python interactive mode I get the error >>> test['[s.]'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "relist.py", line 8, in __getitem__ r = re.compile(rexp) NameError: global name 're' is not defined While in the interactive mode I do import re and I am able to use the re functions, but for some reason when I'm trying to execute the module it doesn't work. Do I need to import re into the scope of the class? I wouldn't think so because doesn't python search through other scopes if it's not found in the current one? I appreciate your help, and if there is a better way of doing this search I would be interested in knowing. Thanks

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  • Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

    - by Sotirios Delimanolis
    I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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  • Pro/con of using Angular directives for complex form validation/ GUI manipulation

    - by tengen
    I am building a new SPA front end to replace an existing enterprise's legacy hodgepodge of systems that are outdated and in need of updating. I am new to angular, and wanted to see if the community could give me some perspective. I'll state my problem, and then ask my question. I have to generate several series of check boxes based on data from a .js include, with data like this: $scope.fieldMappings.investmentObjectiveMap = [ {'id':"CAPITAL PRESERVATION", 'name':"Capital Preservation"}, {'id':"STABLE", 'name':"Moderate"}, {'id':"BALANCED", 'name':"Moderate Growth"}, // etc {'id':"NONE", 'name':"None"} ]; The checkboxes are created using an ng-repeat, like this: <div ng-repeat="investmentObjective in fieldMappings.investmentObjectiveMap"> ... </div> However, I needed the values represented by the checkboxes to map to a different model (not just 2-way-bound to the fieldmappings object). To accomplish this, I created a directive, which accepts a destination array destarray which is eventually mapped to the model. I also know I need to handle some very specific gui controls, such as unchecking "None" if anything else gets checked, or checking "None" if everything else gets unchecked. Also, "None" won't be an option in every group of checkboxes, so the directive needs to be generic enough to accept a validation function that can fiddle with the checked state of the checkbox group's inputs based on what's already clicked, but smart enough not to break if there is no option called "NONE". I started to do that by adding an ng-click which invoked a function in the controller, but in looking around Stack Overflow, I read people saying that its bad to put DOM manipulation code inside your controller - it should go in directives. So do I need another directive? So far: (html): <input my-checkbox-group type="checkbox" fieldobj="investmentObjective" ng-click="validationfunc()" validationfunc="clearOnNone()" destarray="investor.investmentObjective" /> Directive code: .directive("myCheckboxGroup", function () { return { restrict: "A", scope: { destarray: "=", // the source of all the checkbox values fieldobj: "=", // the array the values came from validationfunc: "&" // the function to be called for validation (optional) }, link: function (scope, elem, attrs) { if (scope.destarray.indexOf(scope.fieldobj.id) !== -1) { elem[0].checked = true; } elem.bind('click', function () { var index = scope.destarray.indexOf(scope.fieldobj.id); if (elem[0].checked) { if (index === -1) { scope.destarray.push(scope.fieldobj.id); } } else { if (index !== -1) { scope.destarray.splice(index, 1); } } }); } }; }) .js controller snippet: .controller( 'SuitabilityCtrl', ['$scope', function ( $scope ) { $scope.clearOnNone = function() { // naughty jQuery DOM manipulation code that // looks at checkboxes and checks/unchecks as needed }; The above code is done and works fine, except the naughty jquery code in clearOnNone(), which is why I wrote this question. And here is my question: after ALL this, I think to myself - I could be done already if I just manually handled all this GUI logic and validation junk with jQuery written in my controller. At what point does it become foolish to write these complicated directives that future developers will have to puzzle over more than if I had just written jQuery code that 99% of us would understand with a glance? How do other developers draw the line? I see this all over Stack Overflow. For example, this question seems like it could be answered with a dozen lines of straightforward jQuery, yet he has opted to do it the angular way, with a directive and a partial... it seems like a lot of work for a simple problem. Specifically, I suppose I would like to know: how SHOULD I be writing the code that checks whether "None" has been selected (if it exists as an option in this group of checkboxes), and then check/uncheck the other boxes accordingly? A more complex directive? I can't believe I'm the only developer that is having to implement code that is more complex than needed just to satisfy an opinionated framework.

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  • How do I stop my IIS App Pool making a request to wpad.mydomain.com?

    - by Programming Hero
    As part of some performance troubleshooting, I've monitored the slow startup of a "cold" App Pool (one without an active worker process) in IIS. When using a built-in account, the App Pool starts in sub-second time. When using a custom local account the App Pool takes 30+ seconds to start processing requests. The service appears to be making requests to wpad.mydomain.com, an address it does not have access to, which causes it to wait 30 seconds for a response before eventually timing out. As a workaround, I've added the hostname to the server's hosts file, to direct the traffic to the local machine, which returns much faster (1-2 seconds). What do I need to do to stop IIS making this request when this identity is used for the App Pool?

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  • asp.net impersonation identity: Where does it come from?

    - by Rising Star
    Here's a simple question I've been stuck on for a while. When I set < identity impersonate=true > in my web.config so that asp.net impersonates the logged on user automatically (or the anonymous account if not using Windows Authentication), where does the identity that asp.net impersonates come from? This document: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649264.aspx shows three places you can retrieve information about the logged on user: Httpcontext.Current.user System.Threading.Thread.Current System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent It seems that none of these locations consistently match the identity that gets impersonated when I set < identity impersonate=true > in web.config. I would like to know where the impersonated identity comes from.

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  • Variable scoping and the jQuery.getJSON() method

    - by jerome
    The jQuery.getJSON() method seems to ignore the normal rules of scoping within JavaScript. Given code such as this... someObject = { someMethod: function(){ var foo; $.getJSON('http://www.somewhere.com/some_resource', function(data){ foo = data.bar; }); alert(foo); // undefined } } someObject.someMethod(); Is there a best practice for accessing the value of the variable outside of the getJSON scope?

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  • Can I access Spring session-scoped beans from application-scoped beans? How?

    - by Corvus
    I'm trying to make this 2-player web game application using Spring MVC. I have session-scoped beans Player and application-scoped bean GameList, which creates and stores Game instances and passes them to Players. On player creates a game and gets its ID from GameList and other player sends ID to GameList and gets Game instance. The Game instance has its players as attributes. Problem is that each player sees only himself instead of the other one. Example of what each player sees: First player (Alice) creates a game: Creator: Alice, Joiner: Empty Second player (Bob) joins the game: Creator: Bob, Joiner: Bob First player refreshes her browser Creator: Alice, Joiner: Alice What I want them to see is Creator: Alice, Joiner: Bob. Easy way to achieve this is saving information about players instead of references to players, but the game object needs to call methods on its player objects, so this is not a solution. I think it's because of aop:scoped-proxy of session-scoped Player bean. If I understand this, the Game object has reference to proxy, which refers to Player object of current session. Can Game instance save/access the other Player objects somehow? beans in dispatcher-servlet.xml: <bean id="userDao" class="authorization.UserDaoFakeImpl" /> <bean id="gameList" class="model.GameList" /> <bean name="/init/*" class="controller.InitController" > <property name="gameList" ref="gameList" /> <property name="game" ref="game" /> <property name="player" ref="player" /> </bean> <bean id="game" class="model.GameContainer" scope="session"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> <bean id="player" class="beans.Player" scope="session"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> methods in controller.InitController private GameList gameList; private GameContainer game; private Player player; public ModelAndView create(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { game.setGame(gameList.create(player)); return new ModelAndView("redirect:game"); } public ModelAndView join(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, GameId gameId) throws Exception { game.setGame(gameList.join(player, gameId.getId())); return new ModelAndView("redirect:game"); } called methods in model.gameList public Game create(Player creator) { Integer code = generateCode(); Game game = new Game(creator, code); games.put(code, game); return game; } public Game join(Player joiner, Integer code) { Game game = games.get(code); if (game!=null) { game.setJoiner(joiner); } return game; }

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  • Setting default_scope according to some criteria

    - by Tam
    I'm trying to set default scope according to some criteria determined by ana ActionController before_filter. In controller: before_filter :authorize ... def authorize if some_condition @default_scope_conditions = something elsif another_condition @default_scope_conditions = something_else end end Inside the ActiveRecord default_scope :conditions => @default_scope_conditions But it doesn't seem to work, the before filter gets called but the default_scope doesn't get set. Could you please advise me what I'm doing wrong and how to fix it or suggest me some other way of achieving that.

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