Search Results

Search found 9413 results on 377 pages for 'built in'.

Page 301/377 | < Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >

  • Having some fun - what is a good way to include a secret key functionality and fire the KeyDown event?

    - by Sisyphus
    To keep myself interested, I try to put little Easter Eggs in my projects (mostly to amuse myself). I've seen some websites where you can type a series of letters "aswzaswz" and you get a "secret function" - how would I achieve this in C#? I've assigned a "secret function" in the past by using modifier keys bool showFunThing = (Control.ModifierKeys & Keys.Control) == Keys.Control; but wanted to get a bit more secretive (without the modifier keys) I just wanted the form to detect a certain word typed without any input ... I've built a method that I think should do it: private StringBuilder _pressedKeys = new StringBuilder(); protected override void OnKeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { const string kWord = "fun"; char letter = (char)e.KeyValue; if (!char.IsLetterOrDigit(letter)) { return; } _pressedKeys.Append(letter); if (_pressedKeys.Length == kWord.Length) { if (_pressedKeys.ToString().ToLower() == kWord) { MessageBox.Show("Fun"); _pressedKeys.Clear(); } } base.OnKeyDown(e); } Now I need to wire it up but I can't figure out how I'm supposed to raise the event in the form designer ... I've tried this: this.KeyDown +=new System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventHandler(OnKeyDown); and a couple of variations on this but I'm missing something because it won't fire (or compile). It tells me that the OnKeyDown method is expecting a certain signature but I've got other methods like this where I haven't specified arguments. I fear that I may have got myself confused so I am turning to SO for help ... anyone?

    Read the article

  • How should I configure grub for booting linux kernel from a USB hard drive?

    - by skolima
    I have a laptop hard drive in an external enclosure which I use as a large pendrive. For an added twist, I have installed Linux on it, so I can boot any machine with my distribution of choice (e.g. for data recovery or repairing a b0rked system or just using a borrowed laptop without destroying the preinstalled Windows). The problem is that, depending on the hardware configuration, the USB hard drive may be visible under different paths. For grub configuration I just use (hda0,0) as it is relative to the device the grub was launched from. I have UUID entries in /etc/fstab. I also specify rootwait in the kernel parameters so that it waits for the USB subsystem to settle down before trying to mount the device. What should I pass to the kernel as root= ? Currently boot from the pendrive once, check the debug messages to see what /dev/sdX device has been assigned to the USB drive by the kernel, then reboot and edit the grub configuration. I can't change anything on the PC besides enabling Boot from USB hard drive in BIOS and setting it to higher priority than internal hard drives. There are various initrd generating scripts which include support for UUID in root device path, unfortunately the Gentoo native one (genkernel) does not support rootwait and I had no luck trying to use others. The boot process goes like this (it is quite similar in Windows): The BIOS chooses the boot device and loads whatever is its MBR (which happens to be grub stage-1). Grub loads it's configuration and stage-2 files from device it has set as root, using (hd0) for the device it was loaded from by BIOS. Grub loads and starts a kernel (still the same numbering, so I can use (hd0,0) again ). Kernel initializes all built-in devices (rootwait does it's magic now). Kernel mounts the partition it was passed as root (this is a kernel parameter, not grub parameter). init.d starts the userland booting process, including mounting things from /etc/fstab. Part 5 is the one giving me problems.

    Read the article

  • Self referencing update SQL statement for Informix

    - by CheeseConQueso
    Need some Informix SQL... Courses get a regular grade, but their associated labs get a grade of 'LAB'. I need to update the table so that the lab grade matches the course grade. Also, if there is no corresponding course for a lab, it means the course was canceled. In that case, I want to place a flag value of 'X' for its grade. Example data before update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 LAB 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN Example data after update: id yr sess crs_no hrs grd 725 2009 FA COLL101 3.000000000000 C 725 2009 FA ENGL021 3.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL021L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2009 FA ENGL031 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FNI 725 2009 FA MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 725 2010 SP AOTE101 3.000000000000 C 725 2010 SP ENGL021L 1.000000000000 X 725 2010 SP ENGL031 3.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP ENGL031L 1.000000000000 FI 725 2010 SP MATH010 3.000000000000 FNI 726 2010 SP SPAN101 3.000000000000 FN I worked out a solution for this, but it required a lot of on-the-fly composite foreign keys built from concatenating the id, yr, sess, and substring'd crs_no. My solution is not only overkill, but it has gaps in it and it takes too long to process. I know there is an easier way to do this, but I've gone so far down one road that I am having trouble thinking of a different approach.

    Read the article

  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

    - by JLevett
    I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

    Read the article

  • how to merge ecommerce transaction data between two databases

    - by yamspog
    We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • A feeling that I'm not that good developer

    - by Karim
    Hi, Im having a strange feeling, but let me first introduce myself as a software developer. I started to program when I was still a kid, I had about 10 or 11 years. I really enjoy my work and never get bored from it. It's amazing how somebody could be paid for what he really likes to do and would be doing it anyway even for free. WHen I first started to program, I was feeling proud of what I was doing, each application I built was for me a success and after 2-3 year I had a feeling that I'm a coding guru. It was a nice feeling ;-) But the more I was in the field, the more types of software I started to develop I was starting to have a feeling that I'm completely wrong in that I'm guru. I felt that I'm not even a mediocre developer. Each new field I start to work on is giving me this feeling. Like when I once developed a device driver for a client, I saw how much I need to learn about device drivers. When I developed a video filter for an application, I saw how much do I still need to learn about DirectShow, Color Spaces, and all the theory behind that. The worst thing was when I started to learn algorithms. It was several years ago. I knew then the basic structures and algorithms like the sorting, some types of trees, some hashtables, strings etc.. and when I really wanted to learn a group of structures I learned about 5-6 new types and saw that in fact even this small group has several hundred subtypes of structures. It's depressing how little time people have in their lives to learn all this stuff. I'm now a software developer with about 10 years of experience and I still feel that I'm not a proficient developer when I think about things that others do in the industry. Is this normal what I'm experiencing or is it a sign of a destructive excessive ambition? Thanks in advance for any comments.

    Read the article

  • Convert SWF file to FLV with FFMPEG & getting error "could not find codec parameters"

    - by Ritesh
    Hi I am trying to convert SWF file to FLV, but i am getting same eror C:\Users\Administrator>C:/ffmpeg/ffmpeg.exe -i C:/xampplite/htdocs/ffmpeg/1.swf \ C:/xampplite/htdocs/ffmpeg/file1.flv FFmpeg version SVN-r16573, Copyright (c) 2000-2009 Fabrice Bellard, et al. configuration: --extra-cflags=-fno-common --enable-memalign-hack --enable-pthreads --enable-libmp3lame --enable-libxvid --enable-libvorbis --enable-libtheora --enable-libspeex --enable-libfaac --enable-libgsm --enable-libx264 --enable-libschroedinger --enable-avisynth --enable-swscale --enable-gpl libavutil 49.12. 0 / 49.12. 0 libavcodec 52.10. 0 / 52.10. 0 libavformat 52.23. 1 / 52.23. 1 libavdevice 52. 1. 0 / 52. 1. 0 libswscale 0. 6. 1 / 0. 6. 1 built on Jan 13 2009 02:57:09, gcc: 4.2.4 C:/xampplite/htdocs/ffmpeg/1.swf: could not find codec parameters Please solve this problem, what i am doing wrong??

    Read the article

  • Storing Credit Card Numbers in SESSION - ways around it?

    - by JM4
    I am well aware of PCI Compliance so don't need an earful about storing CC numbers (and especially CVV nums) within our company database during checkout process. However, I want to be safe as possible when handling sensitive consumer information and am curious how to get around passing CC numbers from page to page WITHOUT using SESSION variables if at all possible. My site is built in this way: Step 1) collect Credit Card information from customer - when customer hits submit, the information is first run through JS validation, then run through PHP validation, if all passes he moves to step 2. Step 2) Information is displayed on a review page for customer to make sure the details of their upcoming transaction are shown. Only the first 6 and last 4 of the CC are shown on this page but card type, and exp date are shwon fully. If he clicks proceed, Step 3) The information is sent to another php page which runs one last validation, sends information through secure payment gateway, and string is returned with details. Step 4) If all is good and well, the consumer information (personal, not CC) is stored in DB and redirected to a completion page. If anything is bad, he is informed and told to revisit the CC processing page to try again (max of 3 times). Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • What are the differences between mapping,binding and parsing?

    - by sfrj
    I am starting to learn web-services in java EE6. I did web development before, but never nothing related to web services. All is new to me and the books and the tutorials i find in the web are to technical. I started learning about .xsd schemas and also .xml. In that topic i feel confident, i understand what are the schemas used for and what validation means. Now my next step is learning about JAX-B(Java Api for XML Binding). I rode some about it and i did also some practice in my IDE. But i have lots of basic doubts, that make me stuck and cannot feel confident to continue to the next topic. Ill appreciate a lot if someone could explain me well my doubts: What does it mean mapping and what is a mapping tool? What does it mean binding and what is a binding tool? What does it mean parsing and what is a parsing tool? How is JAX-B related to mapping,binding and parsing? I am seeking for a good answer built by you, not just a copy paste from google(Ive already been online a few hours and only got confused).

    Read the article

  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

    Read the article

  • Weak hashmap with weak references to the values?

    - by Razor Storm
    I am building an android app where each entity has a bitmap that represents its sprite. However, each entity can be be duplicated (there might be 3 copies of entity asdf for example). One approach is to load all the sprites upfront, and then put the correct sprite in the constructors of the entities. However, I want to decode the bitmaps lazily, so that the constructors of the entities will decode the bitmaps. The only problem with this is that duplicated entities will load the same bitmap twice, using 2x the memory (Or n times if the entity is created n times). To fix this, I built a SingularBitmapFactory that will store a decoded Bitmap into a hash, and if the same bitmap is asked for again, will simply return the previously hashed one instead of building a new one. Problem with this, though, is that the factory holds a copy of all bitmaps, and so won't ever get garbage collected. What's the best way to switch the hashmap to one with weakly referenced values? In otherwords, I want a structure where the values won't be GC'd if any other object holds a reference to it, but as long as no other objects refers it, then it can be GC'd.

    Read the article

  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

    Read the article

  • If setUpBeforeClass() fails, test failures are hidden in PHPUnit's JUnit XML output

    - by Adam Monsen
    If setUpBeforeClass() throws an exception, no failures or errors are reported in the PHPUnit's JUnit XML output. Why? Example test class: <?php class Test extends PHPUnit_Framework_TestCase { public static function setUpBeforeClass() { throw new \Exception('masks all failures in xml output'); } public function testFoo() { $this->fail('failing'); } } Command line: phpunit --verbose --log-junit out.xml Test.php Console output: PHPUnit 3.6.10 by Sebastian Bergmann. E Time: 0 seconds, Memory: 3.25Mb There was 1 error: 1) Test Exception: masks all failures in xml output /tmp/pu/Test.php:6 FAILURES! Tests: 0, Assertions: 0, Errors: 1. JUnit XML output: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <testsuites> <testsuite name="Test" file="/tmp/phpunit-broken/Test.php"/> </testsuites> More info: $ php --version PHP 5.3.10-1ubuntu3.1 with Suhosin-Patch (cli) (built: May 4 2012 02:21:57) Copyright (c) 1997-2012 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.3.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2012 Zend Technologies with Xdebug v2.1.0, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by Derick Rethans

    Read the article

  • In SQL can I return a tables with a varying number of columns

    - by Matt
    I have a somewhat more complicated scenario, but I think it should be possible. I have a large SPROC whose result is a set of characteristics for a set of persons. So the Table would look something like this: Property | Client1 Client 2 Client3 ----------------------------------------------------------- Sex | M F M Age | 67 56 67 Income | Low Mid Low It's built using cursors, iterating over different datasets. The problem I am facing is that there is a varying number of Clients and Properties, so an equally valid result over different input sets might be: Property | Client1 Client 2 ------------------------------------------- Sex | M F Age | 67 56 Weight | 122 122 The different number of properties is easy, those are just extra rows. My problem is that I need to declare a temporary table with a varying number of columns. There could be 2 clients or 100. Every client in guaranteed to have every property ultimately listed. What SQL structure would statisfy this and how can I declare it and insert things into it? I can't just flip the columns and rows either because there is a variable number of each.

    Read the article

  • Design Philosophy Question - When to create new functions

    - by Eclyps19
    This is a general design question not relating to any language. I'm a bit torn between going for minimum code or optimum organization. I'll use my current project as an example. I have a bunch of tabs on a form that perform different functions. Lets say Tab 1 reads in a file with a specific layout, tab 2 exports a file to a specific location, etc. The problem I'm running into now is that I need these tabs to do something slightly different based on the contents of a variable. If it contains a 1 I may need to use Layout A and perform some extra concatenation, if it contains a 2 I may need to use Layout B and do no concatenation but add two integer fields, etc. There could be 10+ codes that I will be looking at. Is it more preferable to create an individual path for each code early on, or attempt to create a single path that branches out only when absolutely required. Creating an individual path for each code would allow my code to be extremely easy to follow at a glance, which in turn will help me out later on down the road when debugging or making changes. The downside to this is that I will increase the amount of code written by calling some of the same functions in multiple places (for example, steps 3, 5, and 9 for every single code may be exactly the same. Creating a single path that would branch out only when required will be a bit messier and more difficult to follow at a glance, but I would create less code by placing conditionals only at steps that are unique. I realize that this may be a case-by-case decision, but in general, if you were handed a previously built program to work on, which would you prefer?

    Read the article

  • Rails paginate existing array of ActiveRecord results

    - by SaoiseK
    Hello, I generally use will_paginate for the pagination in my app, but have hit a stumbler on my search feature. I'm using Thinking Sphinx for doing my full-text search, which returns results paginated. The problem I'm having is that after I've received the results from Thinking Sphinx, I need to merge them with some other results and re-order them. Once I've finished processing them I have an Array of results that is very different from the original from TS. As there could be 1000+ results in this Array Pagination is a necessity. The problem is that I can't figure out how to get will_paginate to play with an existing array. I've done some research and it seems the only solutions to this problem are from several years ago and are based around the old built-in Paginator class. The most recent one I could find that makes use of will_paginate was from devchix from mid-2007: http://www.devchix.com/2007/07/23/will_paginate-array/comment-page-1/ - I've given this a go but it doesn't seem to do anything for me. Are there any current methods for applying pagination (preferably via will_paginate) for existing arrays of AR results?

    Read the article

  • Exporting database from external server (without SSH access)

    - by Derek Carlisle
    Our current website is hosted by the design agency who originally built the website, however we are bringing the development of the website in house therefore need to export the database from their server and import it to ours. We have FTP and phpMyAdmin access but don't have SSH access to the server. I was hoping to run a PHP script that would mysql dump the database, compress it and then copy it across to our server using scp: $backupFile = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'].'/backup' . date("Y-m-d-H-i-s") . '.gz'; system("mysqldump -h DB_HOST -u DB_USER -pDB_PASS DB_NAME | gzip > $backupFile"); exec("sshpass -p PASSWORD scp -r -P PORT_NUMBER $backupFile [email protected]:/path/to/directory/"); I have ran this locally from the command line and it worked fine, although I had to install sshpass (the hosting server might not have this installed). Also, I was hoping to run it from the browser as I don't have command line access on the hosting server, however it didn't work, no errors produced though. Can you anyone recommend how I can export from the server that I don't have SSH access to and import to my server? Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Not able to connect to TFS Server from TFS Proxy

    - by GV India
    In our office we have setup TFS for project development. The TFS Server is WIN 2003 server SP2 with VSTFS 2008 and is running fine. Now we need to setup a TFS Proxy server on client site for client to access. Before going for the client setup, I wanted to build and test proxy in our office on a dummy server (will call it Proxy server hereon) by keeping it on a different domain. OS configuration of the Proxy server is the same as TFS server. I have installed and configured TFS proxy on Proxy server to connect to TFS Server. Also we have built trust between the two different domains to enable communication. Now problem is that I am not able to at all connect to TFS server. I am trying to connect from Internet Explorer of proxy server using proxy service account. It gives me error: The page cannot be displayed. HTTP 500 - Internal server error. The page I was browsing was http://tfs:8080/VersionControl/v1.0/ProxyStatistics.asmx. I think I have done all the required steps correctly to configure proxy as described in MSDN and also TFS installation guide. Here Proxy service account is a member of ‘Team Foundation Valid Users’ group. I am able to connect to TFS Server (specifying port) using Telnet from command prompt on proxy server as suggested by few sites. The TFS server web sites have been configured to use Integration Windows Authentication. Event Logs on both the servers are also not giving any error. Overall I’m not able to get it done. Any ideas on what might be the problem???

    Read the article

  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

    Read the article

  • Bash PATH: How long is too long?

    - by ajwood
    Hi, I'm currently designing a software quarantine pattern to use on Ubuntu. I'm not sure how standard "quarantine" is in this context, so here is what I hope to accomplish... Inside a particular quarantine is all of the stuff one needs to run an application (bin, share, lib, etc.). Ideally, the quarantine has no leaks, which means it's not relying on any code outside of itself on the system. A quarantine can be defined as a set of executables (and some environment settings needed to make them run). I think it will be beneficial to separate the built packages enough such that upgrading to a newer version of the quarantine won't require rebuilding the whole thing. I'll be able to update just a few packages, and then the new quarantine can use some of old parts and some of the new parts. One issue I'm wondering about is the environment variables I'll be setting up to use a particular quarantines. Is there a hard limit on how big PATH can be? (either in number of characters, or in the number of directories it contains) Might a path be so long that it affects performance? Thanks very much, Andrew p.s. Any other wisdom that might help my design would be greatly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • How to change this C++ code to make input work better

    - by Phenom
    cout << "Input street number: "; cin >> streetnum; cout << "Input street name: "; cin >> streetname; cout << "Input resource name: "; cin >> rName; cout << "Input architectural style: "; cin >> aStyle; cout << "Input year built: "; cin >> year; The problem with the above code happens if you enter in spaces between words. For example if I enter "Ampitheater Parkway" for streetname, then it puts "Ampitheater" in streetname, skips the prompt for resource name and enters "Parkway" into the next field. How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >