Search Results

Search found 8975 results on 359 pages for 'element'.

Page 301/359 | < Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >

  • Is it possible to store pointers in shared memory without using offsets?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    When using shared memory, each process may mmap the shared region into a different area of their address space. This means that when storing pointers within the shared region, you need to store them as offsets of the start of the shared region. Unfortunately, this complicates use of atomic instructions (e.g. if you're trying to write a lock free algorithm). For example, say you have a bunch of reference counted nodes in shared memory, created by a single writer. The writer periodically atomically updates a pointer 'p' to point to a valid node with positive reference count. Readers want to atomically write to 'p' because it points to the beginning of a node (a struct) whose first element is a reference count. Since p always points to a valid node, incrementing the ref count is safe, and makes it safe to dereference 'p' and access other members. However, this all only works when everything is in the same address space. If the nodes and the 'p' pointer are stored in shared memory, then clients suffer a race condition: x = read p y = x + offset Increment refcount at y During step 2, p may change and x may no longer point to a valid node. The only workaround I can think of is somehow forcing all processes to agree on where to map the shared memory, so that real pointers rather than offsets can be stored in the mmap'd region. Is there any way to do that? I see MAP_FIXED in the mmap documentation, but I don't know how I could pick an address that would be safe.

    Read the article

  • Is it legal to have different SOAP namespaces/versions between the request and response?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    THIRD EDIT: I now believe that this problem is due to a SOAP version mismatch (1.1 request, 1.2 response) masquerading as a namespace problem. Is it illegal to mix versions, or just bad style? Am I completely out of luck if I can't change my SOAP version or the service's? SECOND EDIT: Clarified error message, and tried to reduce "tl;dr"-ness. EDIT: [Link deleted, not related] Using soapUI, I'm sending a request that starts with: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" ... and getting a response that starts with: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" ... I know the service is getting the info, because processes down the line are working. However, my soapUI teststep fails. It has two active assertions: "SOAP Response" and "Not SOAP Fault." The failure marker is next to "SOAP Response," with the following message: line -1: Element Envelope@http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope is not a valid Envelope@http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/ document or a valid substitution. I have tried mixing and matching the namespace prefixes and schema URLs. Changing prefixes seems to have no effect; changing URLs causes a VersionMismatch error. I have also tried to use a substitution group, but that doesn't seem to be legal.

    Read the article

  • twython search api rate limit: Header information will not be updated

    - by user2715478
    I want to handle the Search-API rate limit of 180 requests / 15 minutes. The first solution I came up with was to check the remaining requests in the header and wait 900 seconds. See the following snippet: results = search_interface.cursor(search_interface.search, q=k, lang=lang, result_type=result_mode) while True: try: tweet = next(results) if limit_reached(search_interface): sleep(900) self.writer(tweet) def limit_reached(search_interface): remaining_rate = int(search_interface.get_lastfunction_header('X-Rate-Limit-Remaining')) return remaining_rate <= 2 But it seems, that the header information are not reseted to 180 after it reached the two remaining requests. The second solution I came up with was to handle the twython exception for rate limitation and wait the remaining amount of time: results = search_interface.cursor(search_interface.search, q=k, lang=lang, result_type=result_mode) while True: try: tweet = next(results) self.writer(tweet) except TwythonError as inst: logger.error(inst.msg) wait_for_reset(search_interface) continue except StopIteration: break def wait_for_reset(search_interface): reset_timestamp = int(search_interface.get_lastfunction_header('X-Rate-Limit-Reset')) now_timestamp = datetime.now().timestamp() seconds_offset = 10 t = reset_timestamp - now_timestamp + seconds_offset logger.info('Waiting {0} seconds for Twitter rate limit reset.'.format(t)) sleep(t) But with this solution I receive this message INFO: Resetting dropped connection: api.twitter.com" and the loop will not continue with the last element of the generator. Have somebody faced the same problems? Regards.

    Read the article

  • correct format for function prototype

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I'm writing to a text file using the following declaration: void create_out_file(char file_name[],long double *z1){ FILE *out; int i; if((out = fopen(file_name, "w+")) == NULL){ fprintf(stderr, "***> Open error on output file %s", file_name); exit(-1); } for(i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) fprintf(out, "%.16Le\n", z1[i]); fclose(out); } Where z1 is an long double array of length ARRAY_SIZE. The calling function is: create_out_file("E:/first67/jz1.txt", z1); I defined the prototype as: void create_out_file(char file_name[], long double z1[]); which I'm putting before "int main" but after the preprocessor directives. My code works fine. I was thinking of putting the prototype as void create_out_file(char file_name[],long double *z1). Is this correct? *z1 will point to the first array element of z1. Is my declaration and prototype good programming practice? Thanks a lot...

    Read the article

  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to set focus to a web control in ASP.NET

    - by Dan7el
    Question: What is the best way to set focus to a web control in ASP .NET. I can do it, but it's ugly. I have a web control wrapped in a web control hosted on a web page. So, if you do a view | source on the page the id is something like WrapperControl_Control_TextBox. I've tried the "tried and true" Javascript methods of grabbing the element and setting it's focus: document.getElementByID( "WrapperControl_Control_TextBox" ).focus(); and it didn't work. I'm not sure why. I know I could possibly do: document.getElementById( "<%= TextBox.ClientID %" ).focus(); too, I think. This won't work because of another totally separate error based on the fact you can't dynamically add controls to a header if there is a "<% %" in the page. GAH. In the "bottom-most" control, I've tried setting the focus (TextBox.Focus() in Page_Load) and that doesn't work either. Anyway, the way that works is by simply taking the ControlsCollection of the Page, grabbing the control I need from that, getting it's collection, grabbing the next lower control and so forth. I only have to do this seven times. So I have eight foreach loops. Basically, my code is like this: /////////////////////////////// // On the page /////////////////////////////// ControlCollection controls = Controls; foreach( Control control in controls) { if ( string.Equals( control.ID, "FormID", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnore ) ) { ControlCollection nextControls = control.Controls; foreach( Control nextControl in nextControls ) { if ( string.Equals( nextControl.ID, "DivICareAboutInTheForm", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnor ) ) { ControlCollection nextNextControls = nextControl.Controls; //: //: //Yes, it's that bad and so forth. //: //: } } } }

    Read the article

  • Use of 'this keyword' javascript in IE ?

    - by Ron
    Is there a workaround for Internet Explorer to implement the functionality offered by 'this' javascript keyword to get the dom element that triggered the event? My problem scenario is : I have a variable number of text fields in the html form, like input type="text" id="11" input type="text" id="12" .. I need to handle the "onchange" event for each text field, and the handling is dependent on the 'id' of the field that triggered the event. So far I understand that my options are: 1) attach a dedicated event handler for each text field. so if I have n fields, i have n different functions, something like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="function11();" input type="text" id="12" onchange="function12();" but the text fields are added and removed dynamically, so a better way would be to have one generic function instead. 2) use the 'this' keyword like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" input type="text" id="12" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" But this option does not work with Internet Explorer. Can anyone suggest a work around for getting it work in IE or some other solution that can be applied here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Ruby hpricot does not like dash in symbol, is there a workaround?

    - by eakkas
    I am trying to parse an xml file with hpricot. The xml element that I am trying to get has a dash though and hence the issue that I am facing xml <xliff xmlns="urn:oasis:names:tc:xliff:document:1.1" version="1.1"> <trans-unit> <source>"%0" can not be found. Please try again.</source> <target>"%0" can not be found. Please try again.</target> </trans-unit> </xliff> rb def read_in_xliff(xlf_file_name) stream = open(xlf_file_name) {|f| Hpricot(f)} (stream/:xliff/:'trans-unit').each do |transunit| .......... This does not work because of the dash. If I rename the tag to transunit and edit the symbol reference accordingly everything seems to be fine. I thought using the symbol between quotes should work but hpricot does not seem to like this. Can anyone think of a workaround? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • DisplayObject snapshot in flex 3

    - by simplemagik
    i'm creating a visual editor in flex and need to let users export thier projects into Image format. But i have one problem: size of the canvas is fixed and when user add element which is out of these sizes some scroll bars added. And user continue working on the project. but when he want to take snapshot of the canvas he just get the visible part ot the canvas with scrollbars. how to get image of the fullsize canvas? The only solution i found is to check the positions and sizes of canvas child objects and rezise it to fit them. then take snap and resize back. But it hmmmm... too complicated i think. Is there some "easy methods"? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="vertical"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.graphics.ImageSnapshot; private function SnapshotButtonHandler():void { var snapshot:ImageSnapshot = ImageSnapshot.captureImage(AppCanvas); var file:FileReference = new FileReference(); file.save(snapshot.data, "canvas.png"); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Canvas id="AppCanvas" width="800" height="300" backgroundColor="0xFFFFFF"> <mx:Box x="750" y="100" width="100" height="100" backgroundColor="0xCCCCCC" /> </mx:Canvas> <mx:Button id="SnapshotButton" label="take snapshot" click="SnapshotButtonHandler()" /> </mx:Application>

    Read the article

  • Hiding a button on pushed view and showing it when back to list view

    - by torr
    When I load my list view it has several blog posts and a refresh button on the top left. If I tap on a list item a view is pushed with the contents of that specific post. When this view is pushed in, the refresh button is hidden. But when I tap 'Back' to the parent list view, I'd like the refresh button to show (un-hide) - but it remains hidden. Any idea how to make this work? This is my View: Ext.require(['Ext.data.Store', 'MyApp.model.StreamModel'], function() { Ext.define('MyApp.view.HomeView', { extend: 'Ext.navigation.View', xtype: 'homepanel', requires: [ 'Ext.dataview.List', ], config: { title: 'Home', iconCls: 'home', styleHtmlContent: true, navigationBar: { items: [ { xtype: 'button', iconMask: true, iconCls: 'refresh', align: 'left', action: 'refreshButton', id: 'refreshButtonId' } ] }, items: { title: 'My', xtype: 'list', itemTpl: [ '<div class="post">', ... '</div>' ].join(''), store: new Ext.data.Store({ model: 'MyApp.model.StreamModel', autoLoad: true, storeId: 'stream' }), } } }); }); and my Controller: Ext.define('MyApp.controller.SingleController', { extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', config: { refs: { stream: 'homepanel' }, control: { 'homepanel list': { itemtap: 'showPost' } } }, showPost: function(list, index, element, record) { this.getStream().push({ xtype: 'panel', html: [ '<div class="post">', '</div>' ].join(''), scrollable: 'vertical', styleHtmlContent: true, }); Ext.getCmp('refreshButtonId').hide(); } });

    Read the article

  • generating images with php based on css3 gradient settings?

    - by thrice801
    Hi, Does anyone know if there is a php library, or if there isnt, have any input on how one would go about generating an image via php, from basic HTML element input settings, and CSS 3 gradient parameters. To give an example on why this would be useful, I have found as of a couple days ago, that laying out the wireframe for a webpage using basic Css3 gradient styling speeds up my design and development time by, well, alot. I cant design from photoshop, Ill spend hours tweaking stupid little things that only lead to me tweaking more stupid little things to compensate for stupid little changes. -- So, I had an epiphany to stop using photoshop until the end, and just focus on the main styling of elements, text-shadow, and borders for highlights, and I feel I am able to make super clean, more focused layout by being more restricted to the basics of graphic design with just css. Anyways, so Im planning on after I have the layouts done, to then recreate the graphics in photoshop, so that every browser is able to render the images. This wont take long, but as far as repeating it goes, if I could just do it with PHP, that would be incredible. For instance, take this style for example, which renders a clean looking ipad/pod ish menu/button gradient. [code] background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, #808080, #454545 50%, #313131 51%, #333333); background: -webkit-gradient(linear, left top, left bottom, color-stop(0, #808080), color-stop(.5, #454545), color-stop(.5, #313131), to(#333333));[/code] Basically what Im looking to do is take one or more inputs that control rendering the image as you see there. Take a width and a height input, and then render the image gradient accordingly, so I can save it, upload it and then use it in my designs. So ya, I know PHP has some image generation capabilities but I dont know to what extent, any input on the most effective way to go about doing this or whether it already exists, would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • vertical-align="middle" for td is not working if we use <!doctype ...>

    - by Manohar
    Hi, I am trying to middle align an element, But I have bumped into this problem. I am using this tag: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <body> <table style="width:100%; height: 100%" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td vertical-align="middle"> <div id="progressContainer" style="text-align:center;"> Some string here </div> </td> </tr> </table> </body> </html> If I remove this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd">, its middle aligned properly. Question: Am I doing anything wrong here?

    Read the article

  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

    Read the article

  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Counting elements and reading attributes with .net2.0 ?

    - by Prix
    I have an application that is on .net 2.0 and I am having some difficult with it as I am more use to linq. The xml file look like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <updates> <files> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="06B9EEA618EEFF53D0E9B97C33C4D3DE3492E086" folder="bin" system="0" size="40448" /> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="CA8078D1FDCBD589D3769D293014154B8854D6A9" folder="" system="0" size="216" /> <file url="files/filename.ext" checksum="CA8078D1FDCBD589D3769D293014154B8854D6A9" folder="" system="0" size="216" /> </files> </updates> The file is downloaded and readed on the fly: XmlDocument readXML = new XmlDocument(); readXML.LoadXml(xmlData); Initially i was thinking it would go with something like this: XmlElement root = doc.DocumentElement; XmlNodeList nodes = root.SelectNodes("//files"); foreach (XmlNode node in nodes) { ... im reading it ... } But before reading them I need to know how many they are to use on my progress bar and I am also clueless on how to grab the attribute of the file element in this case. How could I count how many "file" ELEMENTS I have (count them before entering the foreach ofc) and read their attributes ? I need the count because it will be used to update the progress bar. Overall it is not reading my xml very well.

    Read the article

  • How to read XML using XPath in Java

    - by kaibuki
    Hi guys, I want to read XML data using XPath in Java, so for the information I have gathered I am not able to parse XML according to my requirement. here is what I want to do: Get XML file from online via its URL, then use XPath to parse it, I want to create two methods in it. One is in which I enter a specific node attribute id, and I get all the child nodes as result, and second is suppose I just want to get a specific child node value only <?xml version="1.0"?><howto> <topic name="Java"> <url>http://www.rgagnonjavahowto.htm</url> <car>taxi</car> </topic> <topic ame="PowerBuilder"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/pbhowto.htm</url> <url>http://www.rgagnon/pbhowtonew.htm</url> </topic> <topic name="Javascript"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/jshowto.htm</url> </topic> <topic name="VBScript"> <url>http://www.rgagnon/vbshowto.htm</url> </topic></howto> In above example I want to read all the elements if I search via @name and also one function in which I just want the url from @name 'Javascript' only return one node element. I hope I cleared my question :) Thanks. Kai

    Read the article

  • For each <item> in CheckedListBox. <item> returns as Object and not as Control

    - by Tivie
    Hello there. I have a CheckedListBox previously populated. I want to loop with a "for each / next" through all items in the CheckedListBox and do a lot of "stuff" with each iteration element of the checkedlistbox. example code: For Each item In CheckedListBox1.Items If item.Checked = True Then 'do stuff like item.BackColor = Color.Blue Else 'do other stuff item.BackColor = Color.Brown End If Next the problem is that is an 'Object' type and not a 'Control' type. If I force the iteration var As CheckBox, it throws an InvalidCastException saying that type 'System.String' can't be associated with type 'System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox' I know I can easily work around using for i=0 to CheckedListBox.Items.Count - 1 but I want to use a for each /next loop since I have a lot of code in that loop (and With can't be used) and always poiting directly to the object is something I wish to avoid and I really need the code to be as simple as possible. I actually spent one afternoon looking for this but couldn't find any answer. If someone could be kind enough to enlight me in this, it would be extremely appreciated. Best regards

    Read the article

  • Lazy Sequences that "Look Ahead" for Project Euler Problem 14

    - by ivar
    I'm trying to solve Project Euler Problem 14 in a lazy way. Unfortunately, I may be trying to do the impossible: create a lazy sequence that is both lazy, yet also somehow 'looks ahead' for values it hasn't computed yet. The non-lazy version I wrote to test correctness was: (defn chain-length [num] (loop [len 1 n num] (cond (= n 1) len (odd? n) (recur (inc len) (+ 1 (* 3 n))) true (recur (inc len) (/ n 2))))) Which works, but is really slow. Of course I could memoize that: (def memoized-chain (memoize (fn [n] (cond (= n 1) 1 (odd? n) (+ 1 (memoized-chain (+ 1 (* 3 n)))) true (+ 1 (memoized-chain (/ n 2))))))) However, what I really wanted to do was scratch my itch for understanding the limits of lazy sequences, and write a function like this: (def lazy-chain (letfn [(chain [n] (lazy-seq (cons (if (odd? n) (+ 1 (nth lazy-chain (dec (+ 1 (* 3 n))))) (+ 1 (nth lazy-chain (dec (/ n 2))))) (chain (+ n 1)))))] (chain 1))) Pulling elements from this will cause a stack overflow for n2, which is understandable if you think about why it needs to look 'into the future' at n=3 to know the value of the tenth element in the lazy list because (+ 1 (* 3 n)) = 10. Since lazy lists have much less overhead than memoization, I would like to know if this kind of thing is possible somehow via even more delayed evaluation or queuing?

    Read the article

  • PHP, MySQL: mysql substitute for php in_array function

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Say if I have an array and I want to check if an element is a part of that array, I can go ahead and use in_array( needle, haystack ) to determine the results. I am trying to see the PHP equivalent of this for my purpose. Now you might have an instant answer for me and you might be tempted to say "Use IN". Yes, I can use IN, but that's not fetching the desired results. Let me explain with an example: I have a column called "pets" in DB table. For a record, it has a value: Cat, dog, Camel (Yes, the column data is a comma separated value). Consider that this row has an id of 1. Now I have a form where I can enter the value in the form input and use that value check against the value in the DB. So say I enter the following comma separated value in the form input: CAT, camel (yes, CAT is uppercase & intentional as some users tend to enter it that way). Now when I enter the above info in the form input and submit, I can collect the POST'ed info and use the following query: $search = $_POST['pets']; $sql = "SELECT id FROM table WHERE pets IN ('$search') "; The above query is not fetching me the row that already exists in the DB (remember the record which has Cat, dog, Camel as the value for the pets column?). I am trying to get the records to act as a superset and the values from the form input as subsets. So in this case I am expecting the id value to show up as the values exist in the column, but this is not happending. Now say if I enter just CAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. Now say if I enter just camel, cAT as the form input and perform the search, it should show me the ID 1 row. How can I achieve the above? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Accordion + OL + IE6 bug

    - by DA
    Sample page: http://jsbin.com/ohuze/2 This is a simple jQuery UI Accordion. Each accordion panel has an UL (an OL works the same) with this markup: <ol> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> <li><a href="">Lorep ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor lorem ipsum dolor</a>?</li> </ol> In IE6, you'll see that the <a> tag appears to be getting rendered as a block element, so the question mark ends up being pushed outside and not at the end of the line of text. In addition, the bullet and/or list item number is now bottom-aligned with the text rather than top-aligned. I've narrowed it down to the javascript that executes to make the accordion. It's not an issue with jQuery's CSS as disabling that, alone, doesn't resolve the issue. Anyone know what might be going on in IE6 to cause this rendering issue? UPDATE: Apparently, this is also an IE7 issue.

    Read the article

  • Toggling between instances of NiftyPlayer on a page - won't stop playing when hidden on IE

    - by Ashley
    Hi, i've got a page with links to MP3s, when the link is clicked I use javascript to show a small Flash player (NiftyPlayer) under the link. When a different link is clicked, the old player is hidden and the new player is revealed. The player auto-starts when the element is shown, and auto-stops when hidden - in Firefox. In IE it will only auto-start and NOT auto-stop. This is what I would like to solve. This is an example HTML with link and player <a href="Beat The Radar - Misunderstood What You Said.mp3" onclick="toggle_visibility('player662431');return false;" class="mp3caption">Misunderstood What You Said</a> <div id="player662431" class="playerhide"><embed src="http://www.xxx.com/shop/flash/player.swf?file=/mp3/Beat The Radar - Misunderstood What You Said.mp3&as=1" quality="high" bgcolor="#000000" width="161" height="13" name="niftyPlayer662431" align="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" swLiveConnect="true" pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/go/getflashplayer"></embed> Here is the javascript (i've got jquery installed to let me hide all the open players on this page apart from the new one) function toggle_visibility(id) { $('.playerhide').hide(); var e = document.getElementById(id); e.style.display = 'block'; } I think what I need to do is start the player manually with javascript (rather than using the autostart as=1 function in the URL string) There is some javascript that comes with NiftyPlayer to allow this EG niftyplayer('niftyPlayer1').play() there is also a stop method. I need some help with javascript - how do I add this call to play into my toggle_visibility function (it has the same unique ID number added to the name of the player as the ID of the div that's being shown, but I don't know how to pull this ID number out of one thing and put it in another) I also would like to be able to do niftyplayer('niftyPlayer1').stop() to stop the audio of the previously running player. Is it possible to store the current ID number somewhere and call it back when needed? Thanks for the help, i'm a PHP programmer who needs some support with Javascript - I know what I want to achieve, just don't know the commands to do it! Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery tooltip: Trouble with remove()

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using a jQuery tooltip plugin. I have HTML like this: <li class="term ui-droppable"> <strong>Fall 2011</strong> <li class="course ui-draggable">Biological Statistics I<a class="remove-course-button" href="">[X]</a></li> <div class="term-meta-data"> <p class="total-credits too-few-credits">Total credits: 3</p> <p class="median-GPA low-GPA">Median Historical GPA: 2.00</p> </div> </li> I want to remove the .course element. So, I attach a click handler to the <a>: function _addDeleteButton(course, term) { var delete_button = $('<a href="" class="remove-course-button" title="Remove this course">[X]</a>'); course.append(delete_button); $(delete_button).click(function() { course.remove(); return false; }).tooltip(); } This all works fine, in terms of attaching the click handler. However, when course.remove() is called, Firebug reports an error in tooltip.js: Line 282 tsettings is null if ((!IE || !$.fn.bgiframe) && tsettings.fade) { What am I doing wrong? If the link has a tooltip attached, do I need to remove it specially? UPDATE: Removing .tooltip() solve the problem. I'd like to keep it in, but that makes me suspect that my use of .tooltip() is incorrect here.

    Read the article

  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

    Read the article

  • problem writing xml to file with .net mvc - timeout?

    - by Mark
    Hey, so having an issue with writing out to an xml file. Works fine for single requests via the browser, but when I use something like Charles to perform 5-10 repeated requests concurrently several of them will fail. The trace simply shows a 500 error with no content inside, basically I think they start timing out waiting for write access or something... This method is inside my repository class, have also attempted to have repository instance as a singleton but doesn't appear to make any difference.. Any help would be much appreciated. Cheers public void Add(Request request) { try { XDocument requests; XmlReader xmlReader; using (xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(_requestsFilePath)) { requests = XDocument.Load(xmlReader); XElement xmlRequest = new XElement("request", new XElement("code", request.code), new XElement("date", request.date), new XElement("email", new XCData(request.email)), new XElement("name", new XCData(request.name)), new XElement("recieveOffers", request.recieveOffers) ); requests.Root.Element("requests").Add(xmlRequest); xmlReader.Close(); } requests.Save(_requestsFilePath); } catch (Exception ex) { HttpContext.Current.Trace.Warn("Error writing to file: "+ex); } }

    Read the article

  • Word-wrap grid cells in Ext JS

    - by richardtallent
    (This is not a question per se, I'm documenting a solution I found using Ext JS 3.1.0. But, feel free to answer if you know of a better solution!) The Column config for an Ext JS Grid object does not have a native way to allow word-wrapped text, but there is a css property to override the inline CSS of the TD elements created by the grid. Unfortunately, the TD elements contain a DIV element wrapping the content, and that DIV is set to white-space:nowrap by Ext JS's stylesheet, so overriding the TD CSS does no good. I added the following to my main CSS file, a simple fix that appears to not break any grid functionality, but allows any white-space setting I apply to the TD to pass through to the DIV. .x-grid3-cell { /* TD is defaulted to word-wrap. Turn it off so it can be turned on for specific columns. */ white-space:nowrap; } .x-grid3-cell-inner { /* Inherit DIV's white-space from TD parent, since DIV's inline style is not accessible in the column definition. */ white-space:inherit; } YMMV, but it works for me, wanted to get it out there as a solution since I couldn't find a working solution by searching the Interwebs.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >