Search Results

Search found 11199 results on 448 pages for 'self modifying'.

Page 301/448 | < Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >

  • Saving Abstract and Sub classes to database

    - by bretddog
    Hi, I have an abstract class "StrategyBase", and a set of sub classes, StrategyA/B/C etc. The sub classes use some of the properties of the base class, and have some individual properties. My question is how to save this to a database. I'm currently using SqlCE, and Linq-To-Sql by creating entity classes automatically with SqlMetal.exe. I've seen there are three solutions shown in this question, but I'm not able to see how these solutions will work or not with SqlMetal/entity classes. Though it seems to me the "concrete table inheritance" would probably work without any manual modifying. What about the other two, would they be problematic? For "Single Table Inheritance" wouldn't all classes get all variables, even though they don't need them? And for the "Class table inheritance" solution I can't really see at all how that will map into the entity-classes for a useful purpose. I may note that I extend these partial entity classes for making the classes of my business objects. I may also consider moving to EntityFramework instead of SqlMetal/Linq2Sql, so would be nice also to know if that makes any difference to what schema is easy to implement. One likely important thing to note is that I will constantly be develop new strategies, which makes me have to modify the program code, and probably the database shcema; when adding a new strategy. Sorry the question is a bit "all over the place", but hopefully it's some clear advantages/disadvantages here that you may be able to advice. ? Cheers!

    Read the article

  • ASP.net site looks completely different on IE, Firefox, and Chrome; why?

    - by DavidR
    I'm doing css for a website. I send the html and css to a guy, he puts it into ASP.net. The problem is that the transfer didn't end well for my code and it needs some fixing. The problem is that when I look at it in Chrome, or Firefox, or IE8, I get three completely different renderings. I spent a good amount of time trying to fix a drop-down menu that is supposed to appear while hovering over a link. The one he had in place from ASP.net worked in IE, kinda worked in Firefox, and was completely broken in Chrome (I haven't tested Safari or Opera.) Just getting it to look basically the same in firefox and chrome was a struggle. The html source is showing me two completely different pages as well. Does anyone have experience with this? I know nothing of ASP.net, and it seems like the guy is modifying my layout with a wsyiwyg (I found tables used in random places, which I did not put there.) Faced with this, what is my best option? Is this fixable, or am I in over my head?

    Read the article

  • Correct Delphi compiler switches to stop in the user's code, not my component's

    - by Jeremy Mullin
    I'm modifying our VCL components so the end user's application links to our dcu files, instead of building our source code each time. We have everything working, but I want the debugger to stop on the user's code when an exception is raised. At first it would stop in our dcu and open the CPU window. I was able to prevent that by removing debug info from the dcu files. But now it still doesn't stop in the users code (like DevExpress libraries and others do). The following screencast is a short example. The first time I cause an exception in the DevExpress code, and the debugger correctly stops in my button event. The second time I cause an exception in my components, but the debugger doesn't have my button event on the call stack, and doesn't show me where the problem was. Any ideas why? http://screencast.com/t/NjhlOTRk Currently building the DCU's with these options: -$W+ -$D- -h -w -q Update: The TDataSet methods in between my component and the button event seem to cause this behavior. If I instead call a direct method of my table, I get the expected behavior. I'm guessing there isn't anything I can do about this, but I'm still curious why it happens.

    Read the article

  • Wordpress: How to override all default theme CSS so your custom one is loaded the last?

    - by mickael
    I have a problem where I've been able to include a custom css in the section of my wordpress theme with the following code: function load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts() { wp_register_style('my_styles_css', includes_url("/css/my_styles.css")); wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css'); } add_action('wp_enqueue_scripts','load_my_style_wp_enqueue_scripts'); But the order in the source code is as follows: <link rel='stylesheet' id='my_styles_css-css' href='http://...folderA.../my_styles.css?ver=3.1' type='text/css' media='all' /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="default-css" href="http://...folderB.../default.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> <link rel="stylesheet" id="user-css" href="http://...folderC.../user.css" type="text/css" media="screen,projection" /> I want my_styles_css to be the last file to load, overriding default and user files. I've tried to achieve this by modifying wp_enqueue_style in different ways, but without any success. I've tried: wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', array('default','user')); or wp_enqueue_style('my_styles_css', false, array('default','user'), '1.0', 'all'); I've seen some related questions without answer or with these last 2 methods that are still failing for me. The function above is part of a plugin that I've got enabled in my wordpress installation.

    Read the article

  • How to Send Headers Through PHP Proxy?

    - by blabus
    Okay, so I have an issue with an AJAX request. I currently have this URL: http://www.google.com/images?hl=en&safe=off&gbv=2&tbs=isch%3A1&sa=1&q=cars+imagesize%3A500x500&aq=f&aqi=&aql=&oq=&gs_rfai=&start=0 I then pass it to my proxy script by modifying the string to this: proxy.php?url=http://www.google.com/images?hl=en&safe=off&gbv=2&tbs=isch%3A1&sa=1&q=cars+imagesize%3A500x500&aq=f&aqi=&aql=&oq=&gs_rfai=&start=0 I need to use the PHP proxy script to grab that page's HTML so that I can then parse through it with javascript. However, the problem is that the headers in that URL are also being sent to the proxy script, and as a result, I get a 'malformed or illegal request' error. I'm pretty sure the two different sets of headers are the problem, because if I just replace the original URL string with 'http://wwww.google.com', the proxy returns the HTML of the page correctly. So basically, I don't know how to fix this. I'm a complete PHP noob, and I tried escaping the original URL before I appended it to the 'proxy.php?url=', but that doesn't fix anything. Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Converted PowerBuilder to ASP.Net browsing Errors

    - by user493325
    I had a powerbuilder application which i converted to web application in the format of ASP.Net (aspx) files. after deploying and publishing the converted web application (copy it and add ASP.Net and network Service AND IUser permissions to enable users to access it) in IIS V6.0 over Windows server 2003 and The ASP.Net version is 2.0 The error messages I get when I browse default.aspx web page are as the following:- Server Error in '/' Application. Runtime Error Description: An application error occurred on the server. The current custom error settings for this application prevent the details of the application error from being viewed remotely (for security reasons). It could, however, be viewed by browsers running on the local server machine. Details: To enable the details of this specific error message to be viewable on remote machines, please create a tag within a "web.config" configuration file located in the root directory of the current web application. This tag should then have its "mode" attribute set to "Off". <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="Off"/> </system.web> </configuration> Notes: The current error page you are seeing can be replaced by a custom error page by modifying the "defaultRedirect" attribute of the application's configuration tag to point to a custom error page URL. <!-- Web.Config Configuration File --> <configuration> <system.web> <customErrors mode="RemoteOnly" defaultRedirect="mycustompage.htm"/> </system.web> </configuration> Another error message appears on the server is:- Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error <roleManager enabled="true"> <membership> </roleManager> Thanks in Advance...

    Read the article

  • Google Maps API and "rightclick" events on Macs

    - by samc
    Using the Google Maps API (v3), I can create a map and handle normal click events just fine, but when I want to handle rightclick events, it doesn't work on Macs. I assume this is because a rightclick on a Mac is actually converted to a ctrl-click, but the Google Maps API MouseEvent doesn't provide information about modifier keys, so I can't check for the ctrl key. I tried adding an "capture" event listener to the document that converts the click event to a rightclick event. function convertClick(e) { if (e.ctrlKey) { e.button = 2; } } document.addEventListener("click", convertClick, true) I added an alert to verify that the condition is correct, but modifying the event in this way didn't work. So, I decided to have my event handler set a global flag that my click handler could check. If the flag is set, it means ctrl was pressed, so the click handler just invokes the rightclick handler. var ctrl; function captureCtrl(e) { ctrl = e.ctrlKey; } This approach worked great, except for one thing. The ctrl flag gets set for the click after the one that occured when ctrl was pressed. That means the event handler is be called during the bubble phase rather than the capture phase. Could explain why the event modification approach didn't work. So, my question is how can you detect "rightclick" events from Macs with the Google Maps API? I can't be the first person to want to do this. That said, when I right-click on the map on http://maps.google.com from a Windows or Linux machine, I get a popup box with options like "Directions from here...", etc. On a Mac, nothing happens. So, not even the main Google Maps page has solved this problem. ...maybe I am the first person to want to do this.

    Read the article

  • Colorizing as SAS Map

    - by user601828
    I'm trying to generate a map in SAS where I would like to to make gradual color changes which correspond to my results. So the higher the counts the more intense the color changes. Also I would like to add state labels to the map. Here is my code, so far it produces a white map with varying degress of blue blocks. I'd like the states colored in intense colors, like red, bright pink,brilliant, blues and greens. Can anyone please help me modify the code to add state labels and colorize the map, and below the map add a table summarizing the statistics, like counts and percentages. Thanks in advance. goptions gunit=pct cback=white htitle=4 htext=3 colors=(PAGY LIY STY DEGY dark_yellow very_dark_yellow ) ; title "My Map Results"; proc gmap map=maps.us data=My_data all; id state; block person_per_event/levels=6; choro person_per_event/levels=6; run; quit; I looked at his page before for example if I wanted to make a map like this one http://robslink.com/SAS/democd61/election_2012.htm with my data. I tried modifying the code that he gives on the link, but wasnt very successful. I would like to use that map along with the state labels and keep the colors and represent my data with blocks in the corresponding locations with city and state, and high level counts. The rest of the summary statistics I would like to summarize in a colorful table next to the map, like a dashboard of sorts. Appreciate any help in advance. Thanks, -rachel

    Read the article

  • How can I get the rank of rows relative to total number of rows based on a field?

    - by Arms
    I have a scores table that has two fields: user_id score I'm fetching specific rows that match a list of user_id's. How can I determine a rank for each row relative to the total number of rows, based on score? The rows in the result set are not necessarily sequential (the scores will vary widely from one row to the next). I'm not sure if this matters, but user_id is a unique field. Edit @Greelmo I'm already ordering the rows. If I fetch 15 rows, I don't want the rank to be 1-15. I need it to be the position of that row compared against the entire table by the score property. So if I have 200 rows, one row's rank may be 3 and another may be 179 (these are arbitrary #'s for example only). Edit 2 I'm having some luck with this query, but I actually want to avoid ties SELECT s.score , s.created_at , u.name , u.location , u.icon_id , u.photo , (SELECT COUNT(*) + 1 FROM scores WHERE score > s.score) AS rank FROM scores s LEFT JOIN users u ON u.uID = s.user_id ORDER BY s.score DESC , s.created_at DESC LIMIT 15 If two or more rows have the same score, I want the latest one (or earliest - I don't care) to be ranked higher. I tried modifying the subquery with AND id > s.id but that ended up giving me an unexpected result set and different ties.

    Read the article

  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

    Read the article

  • Servlet send image from server and save in client

    - by sangi
    Hi, I'm new and just developing on J2EE. I am modifying an existing application (an OpenSource project). I need to save an image on a client sent by the server, but I do not know how. This activity must be done in a transparent manner without affecting the existing operation of the application. From the tests done I get this error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: getWriter () has Already Been Called for this response. How should carry out this task, according to your own opinion? How do I save on the client, locally, the image? Update: Thanks for the answers. My problem is that: the image is generated on the server, but not for direct client request (there is no link to click on web page), the picture is composed using other services on the Internet. reconstruct the image on the server. This image must be sent to the client to be saved locally. so I'd like it to appear a window where you assign the destination image plus I'd like the rest of the application were not affected by this activity. The application is yet on production. Thank you very much for your response.

    Read the article

  • Inserting an element within jQuery Validation plugin's error template

    - by simshaun
    I'm utilizing the jQuery Validation plugin for my form. It lets you change the errorElement and wrap the errorElement using with the wrapper option. But, I want to insert an element within errorElement like this: <label class="error"><em></em>Error message goes here</label> Is there an easy way to accomplish inserting the em tag? I've tried prepending the em tag using the errorPlacement option (see below), but it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) { error.prepend('<em/>'); error.insertBefore(element); } }); I've also tried prepending the em tag using the showErrors option (see below). Again, it seems the plugin is replacing the contents of errorElement afterwards. $.validator.setDefaults({ showErrors: function(errorMap, errorList) { for (var i = 0; i < errorList.length; i++) { var error = errorList[i], $label = this.errorsFor(error.element), $element = $(error.element); if ($label.length && $label.find('em').length == 0) { $label.prepend('<em/>'); } } this.defaultShowErrors(); } }); I've also tried modifying the plugin so that when the error element is generated, the <em> tag is prepended. That works until I focus on a form element that has an error, after which the em tag is removed. (It's doing this because jQuery validation is constantly updating the contents of the error element as I focus and/or type in the field, therefore erasing my em tag added at error-element creation.)

    Read the article

  • Get Json and output to text file undecoded

    - by Gary
    Hi, I want to fetch json script and write it to a txt file undecoded, exactly how it was originally. I do have a script that I use that I am modifying but unsure what to commands to use. This script decodes, which is what I want to advoid. //Get Age list($bstat,$bage,$bdata) = explode("\t",check_file('./advise/roadsnow.txt',60*2+15)); //Test Age if ( $bage > $CacheMaxAge ) { //echo "The if statement evaluated to true so get new file and reset $bage"; $bage="0"; $file = file_get_contents('http://somesite.jsontxt'); $out = (json_decode($file)); $report = wordwrap($out->mainText, 100, "\n"); //$valid = $out->validTo; //write the data to a text file called roadsnow.txt $myFile = "./advise/roadsnow.txt"; $fh = fopen($myFile, 'w') or die("can't open file"); $stringData = $report; fwrite($fh, $stringData); } else { //echo the test evaluated to false; file is not stale so read local cache //print "we are at the read local cache"; $stringData = file_get_contents("./advise/roadsnow.txt"); } // if/else is done carry on with processing //Format file $data = $stringData

    Read the article

  • CIE XYZ colorspace: do I have RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore (I marked them to the picture myself). My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA. RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

    Read the article

  • Exception error in Erlang

    - by Jim
    So I've been using Erlang for the last eight hours, and I've spent two of those banging my head against the keyboard trying to figure out the exception error my console keeps returning. I'm writing a dice program to learn erlang. I want it to be able to call from the console through the erlang interpreter. The program accepts a number of dice, and is supposed to generate a list of values. Each value is supposed to be between one and six. I won't bore you with the dozens of individual micro-changes I made to try and fix the problem (random engineering) but I'll post my code and the error. The Source: -module(dice2). -export([d6/1]). d6(1) - random:uniform(6); d6(Numdice) - Result = [], d6(Numdice, [Result]). d6(0, [Finalresult]) - {ok, [Finalresult]}; d6(Numdice, [Result]) - d6(Numdice - 1, [random:uniform(6) | Result]). When I run the program from my console like so... dice2:d6(1). ...I get a random number between one and six like expected. However when I run the same function with any number higher than one as an argument I get the following exception... **exception error: no function clause matching dice2:d6(1, [4|3]) ... I know I I don't have a function with matching arguments but I don't know how to write a function with variable arguments, and a variable number of arguments. I tried modifying the function in question like so.... d6(Numdice, [Result]) - Newresult = [random:uniform(6) | Result], d6(Numdice - 1, Newresult). ... but I got essentially the same error. Anyone know what is going on here?

    Read the article

  • regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

    - by corroded
    I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

    Read the article

  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

    Read the article

  • Sudoku Recursion Issue (Java)

    - by SkylineAddict
    I'm having an issue with creating a random Sudoku grid. I tried modifying a recursive pattern that I used to solve the puzzle. The puzzle itself is a two dimensional integer array. This is what I have (By the way, the method doesn't only randomize the first row. I had an idea to randomize the first row, then just decided to do the whole grid): public boolean randomizeFirstRow(int row, int col){ Random rGen = new Random(); if(row == 9){ return true; } else{ boolean res; for(int ndx = rGen.nextInt() + 1; ndx <= 9;){ //Input values into the boxes sGrid[row][col] = ndx; //Then test to see if the value is valid if(this.isRowValid(row, sGrid) && this.isColumnValid(col, sGrid) && this.isQuadrantValid(row, col, sGrid)){ // grid valid, move to the next cell if(col + 1 < 9){ res = randomizeFirstRow(row, col+1); } else{ res = randomizeFirstRow( row+1, 0); } //If the value inputed is valid, restart loop if(res == true){ return true; } } } } //If no value can be put in, set value to 0 to prevent program counting to 9 setGridValue(row, col, 0); //Return to previous method in stack return false; } This results in an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException with a ridiculously high or low number (+- 100,000). I've tried to see how far it goes into the method, and it never goes beyond this line: if(this.isRowValid(row, sGrid) && this.isColumnValid(col, sGrid) && this.isQuadrantValid(row, col, sGrid)) I don't understand how the array index goes so high. Can anyone help me out?

    Read the article

  • Executing untrusted code

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

    Read the article

  • What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

    - by Sean U
    I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

    Read the article

  • Group panel of WPF ListBox

    - by rulestein
    I have a listbox that is grouping the items with a GroupStyle. I would like add a control at the bottom of the stackpanel that holds all of the groups. This additional control needs to be part of the scrolling content so that the user would scroll to the bottom of the list to see the control. If I were using a listbox without the groups, this task would be easy by modifying the ListBox template. However, with the items grouped, the ListBox template seems to only apply on a per group basis. I can modify the GroupStyle.Panel, but that doesn't allow me to add items to that panel. <ListBox> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel/> **<----- I would like to add a control to this stackpanel** </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Grid> <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </ListBox.GroupStyle> This should give an idea of what I need to do:

    Read the article

  • Style first 2 TextViews in Android ListView differently

    - by Kurtis Nusbaum
    I have a ListView and I want the first two entries in it to be displayed differently than the rest. Nothing fancy, I want them all to just be text views. But the first two entries need to have different sizes and weights than the rest. I tried modifying the ArrayAdapter class like so: private class BusStopAdapter<T> extends ArrayAdapter<T>{ public BusStopAdapter( Context context, int textViewResourceId, List<T> objects) { super(context, textViewResourceId, objects); } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { TextView toReturn = (TextView)super.getView(position, convertView, parent); if(position == 0){ toReturn.setTextSize(12); toReturn.setText("Previous Bus: " + toReturn.getText()); toReturn.setPadding(0,0,0,0); } else if(position == 1){ toReturn.setTextSize(20); toReturn.setPadding( toReturn.getPaddingLeft(), 0, toReturn.getPaddingRight(), 0 ); toReturn.setText("Next Bus: " + toReturn.getText()); toReturn.setGravity(Gravity.CENTER_HORIZONTAL|Gravity.TOP); } return toReturn; } } But this inadvertantly causes some of the other textviews to take on these special attributes. I think it's because cause textviews get "recycled" in the AbsListAdapter class.

    Read the article

  • Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

    - by Scott Smith
    I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

    Read the article

  • How to modify Keyboard interrupt (under Windows XP) from a C++ Program ?

    - by rockr90
    Hi everyone ! We have been given a little project (As part of my OS course) to make a Windows program that modifies keyboard input, so that it transforms any lowercase character entered into an uppercase one (without using caps-lock) ! so when you type on the keyboard you'll see what you're typing transformed into uppercase ! I have done this quite easily using Turbo C by calling geninterrupt() and using variables _AH, _AL, i had to read a character using: _AH = 0x07; // Reading a character without echo geninterrupt(0x21); // Dos interrupt Then to transform it into an Upercase letter i have to mask the 5th bit by using: _AL = _AL & 0xDF; // Masking the entered character with 11011111 and then i will display the character using any output routine. Now, this solution will only work under old C DOS compilers. But what we intend to do is to make a close or similar solution to this by using any modern C/C++ compiler under Windows XP ! What i have first thought of is modifying the Keyboard ISR so that it masks the fifth bit of any entered character to turn it uppercase ! But i do not know how exactly to do this. Second, I wanted to create a Win32 console program to either do the same solution (but to no avail) or make a windows-compatible solution, still i do not know which functions to use ! Third I thought to make a windows program that modifies the ISR directly to suit my needs ! and i'm still looking for how to do this ! So please, If you could help me out on this, I would greatly appreciate it ! Thank you in advance ! (I'm using Windows XP on intel X86 with mingw-GCC compiler.)

    Read the article

  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 297 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308  | Next Page >