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  • PHP DELETE immediately after select

    - by teehoo
    I have a PHP server script that SELECTs some data from a MySQL database. As soon as I have the result from mysql_query and mysql_fetch_assoc stored in my own local variables, I want to delete the row I just selected. The problem with this approach is that it seems that PHP has done pass-by-reference to my local variables instead of pass-by-value, and my local variables become undefined after the delete command. Is there anyway to get around this? Here is my code: $query="SELECT id, peerID, name FROM names WHERE peer = $userID AND docID = '$docID' AND seqNo = $nid"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:1 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); if (mysql_num_rows($result) == 0) return array(); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $result = array(); $result["id"] = $row["id"]; $result["peerID"] = $row["peerID"]; $result["name"] = $row["name"]; $query="DELETE FROM names WHERE id = $result[id];"; $result = mysql_query($query); if (!$result) self::logError("FAIL:2 getUsersNamesUpdate() query: ".$query."\n"); return $result;

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  • Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS 2008 / SQL Server 2005 Express website application. I have tried some of the fixes for this problem but my call stack differs from others. And these fixes did not fix my problem. What steps can I take to troubleshoot this? Here is my error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException was caught Message="Conversion failed when converting datetime from character string." Source=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" ErrorCode=-2146232060 LineNumber=10 Number=241 Procedure="AppendDataCT" Server="\\\\.\\pipe\\772EF469-84F1-43\\tsql\\query" State=1 StackTrace: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.InternalExecuteNonQuery(DbAsyncResult result, String methodName, Boolean sendToPipe) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() at ADONET_namespace.ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary`2 dic) in c:\Documents and Settings\Admin\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\WebSites\Jerry\App_Code\ADONET methods.cs:line 102 And here is the related code. When I debugged this code, "dic" only looped through the 3 column names, but did not look into row values which are stored in "dt", the Data Table. public static string AppendDataCT(DataTable dt, Dictionary<string, string> dic) { if (dic.Count != 3) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("dic can only have 3 parameters"); string connString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["AW3_string"].ConnectionString; string errorMsg; try { using (SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = conn2.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandText = "dbo.AppendDataCT"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; foreach (string s in dic.Keys) { SqlParameter p = cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue(s, dic[s]); p.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; } conn2.Open(); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn2.Close(); errorMsg = "The Person.ContactType table was successfully updated!"; } } }

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  • Function returning a class containing a function returning a class

    - by Scott
    I'm working on an object-oriented Excel add-in to retrieve information from our ERP system's database. Here is an example of a function call: itemDescription = Macola.Item("12345").Description Macola is an instance of a class which takes care of database access. Item() is a function of the Macola class which returns an instance of an ItemMaster class. Description() is a function of the ItemMaster class. This is all working correctly. Items can be be stored in more than one location, so my next step is to do this: quantityOnHand = Macola.Item("12345").Location("A1").QuantityOnHand Location() is a function of the ItemMaster class which returns an instance of the ItemLocation class (well, in theory anyway). QuantityOnHand() is a function of the ItemLocation class. But for some reason, the ItemLocation class is not even being intialized. Public Function Location(inventoryLocation As String) As ItemLocation Set Location = New ItemLocation Location.Item = item_no Location.Code = inventoryLocation End Function In the above sample, the variable item_no is a member variable of the ItemMaster class. Oddly enough, I can successfully instantiate the ItemLocation class outside of the ItemMaster class in a non-class module. Dim test As New ItemLocation test.Item = "12345" test.Code = "A1" quantityOnHand = test.QuantityOnHand Is there some way to make this work the way I want? I'm trying to keep the API as simple as possible. So that it only takes one line of code to retrieve a value.

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  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

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  • How can I use a compound condition in a join in Linq?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have a Customer table which has a PrimaryContactId field and a SecondaryContactId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the Contact table. For any given customer, either one or two contacts may be stored. In other words, PrimaryContactId can never be NULL, but SecondaryContactId can be NULL. If I drop my Customer and Contact tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder will spot the two FK relationships from the Customer table to the Contact table, and so the generated Customer class will have a Contact field and a Contact1 field (which I can rename to PrimaryContact and SecondaryContact to avoid confusion). Now suppose that I want to get details of all the contacts for a given set of customers. If there was always exactly one contact then I could write something like: from customer in customers join contact in contacts on customer.PrimaryContactId equals contact.id select ... ...which would be translated into something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id But, because I want to join on both the contact fields, I want the SQL to look something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id OR Customer.SecondSalesPersonId = Contact.id How can I write a Linq expression to do that?

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  • Regex Replacing only whole matches

    - by Leen Balsters
    I am trying to replace a bunch of strings in files. The strings are stored in a datatable along with the new string value. string contents = File.ReadAllText(file); foreach (DataRow dr in FolderRenames.Rows) { contents = Regex.Replace(contents, dr["find"].ToString(), dr["replace"].ToString()); File.SetAttributes(file, FileAttributes.Normal); File.WriteAllText(file, contents); } The strings look like this _-uUa, -_uU, _-Ha etc. The problem that I am having is when for example this string "_uU" will also overwrite "_-uUa" so the replacement would look like "newvaluea" Is there a way to tell regex to look at the next character after the found string and make sure it is not an alphanumeric character? I hope it is clear what I am trying to do here. Here is some sample data: private function _-0iX(arg1:flash.events.Event):void { if (arg1.type == flash.events.Event.RESIZE) { if (this._-2GU) { this._-yu(this._-2GU); } } return; } The next characters could be ;, (, ), dot, comma, space, :, etc.

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  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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  • Javascript private member on prototype...

    - by Wilq32
    Well I tried to figure out is this possible in any way. Here is code: a=function(text) { var b=text; if (!arguments.callee.prototype.get) arguments.callee.prototype.get=function() { return b; } else alert('already created!'); } var c=new a("test"); // creates prototype instance of getter var d=new a("ojoj"); // alerts already created alert(c.get()) // alerts test alert(d.get()) // alerts test from context of creating prototype function :( As you see I tried to create prototype getter. For what? Well if you write something like this: a=function(text) { var b=text; this.getText=function(){ return b} } ... everything should be fine.. but in fact every time I create object - i create getText function that uses memory. I would like to have one prototypical function lying in memory that would do the same... Any ideas? EDIT: I tried solution given by Christoph, and it seems that its only known solution for now. It need to remember id information to retrieve value from context, but whole idea is nice for me :) Id is only one thing to remember, everything else can be stored once in memory. In fact you could store a lot of private members this way, and use anytime only one id. Actually this is satisfying me :) (unless someone got better idea). someFunc = function() { var store = new Array(); var guid=0; var someFunc = function(text) { this.__guid=guid; store[guid++]=text; } someFunc.prototype.getValue=function() { return store[this.__guid]; } return someFunc; }() a=new someFunc("test"); b=new someFunc("test2"); alert(a.getValue()); alert(b.getValue());

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  • [MFC] What is the reciprocal of CComboBox.GetItemData?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Instead of associating objects with Combo Box items, I associate long ids representing choices. They come from a database, so it seems natural to do so anyway. Now, I persist the id and not the index of the user's selection, so that the choice is remembered across sessions. If id no longer exists in database - no big deal. The choice will be messed up once. If db does not change, however, then it would be a great success ;) Here is how I get the id : chosenSomethingIndex = cmbSomething.GetCurSel(); lastSomethingId = cmbSomething.GetItemData(chosenSomethingIndex); How do I reverse this? When I load the stored value for user's last choice, I need to convert that id into an index. I can do: cmbSomething.SetCurSel(chosenSomethingIndex); However, how can I attempt (it might not exist) to get an index once I have an id? I am looking for a reciprocal function to GetItemData I am using VS2008, probably latest version of MFC, whatever that is. Thank you.

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  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

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  • create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

    - by eric.frederich
    Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

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  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

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  • avoiding code duplication in Rails 3 models

    - by Dustin Frazier
    I'm working on a Rails 3.1 application where there are a number of different enum-like models that are stored in the database. There is a lot of identical code in these models, as well as in the associated controllers and views. I've solved the code duplication for the controllers and views via a shared parent controller class and the new view/layout inheritance that's part of Rails 3. Now I'm trying to solve the code duplication in the models, and I'm stuck. An example of one of my enum models is as follows: class Format < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :videos attr_accessible :name validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 20 } before_destroy :verify_no_linked_videos def verify_no_linked_videos unless self.videos.empty? self.errors[:base] << "Couldn't delete format with associated videos." raise ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid.new self end end end I have four or five other classes with nearly identical code (the association declaration being the only difference). I've tried creating a module with the shared code that they all include (which seems like the Ruby Way), but much of the duplicate code relies on ActiveRecord, so the methods I'm trying to use in the module (validate, attr_accessible, etc.) aren't available. I know about ActiveModel, but that doesn't get me all the way there. I've also tried creating a common, non-persistent parent class that subclasses ActiveRecord::Base, but all of the code I've seen to accomplish this assumes that you won't have subclasses of your non-persistent class that do persist. Any suggestions for how best to avoid duplicating these identical lines of code across many different enum models?

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  • Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

    - by urpcor
    Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

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  • Toolbox/framework to construct lightweight public-facing web site

    - by aSteve
    I am aware of full-blown content management systems (CMS) such as SugarCRM and TikiWiki... where content is typically stored in a database... and edited through the same interface as it is published. While I like many of the features, the product is clearly aimed at enterprise-wide use rather than to be public-facing. What I'd like to establish are potential alternatives that fill the space between full-blown CMS and hand-coded bespoke site. I like the way that I can add modules to my CMS... allowing me to quickly introduce new functionality, and I'd like an analogous feature in a system for public web-content. Modules I know I'd like include moderated comments; web-form-to-email gateway; menus/tabs... in future, perhaps mapping or diaries or RSS integration - etc. Where my requirements differ from a CMS, I don't need (or want) most content to be editable through the main site... and, somehow, I do want to be able to preview how updates will be presented to the public rather than to make live changes. For these purposes, in contrast to those where a typical CMS would be ideal, presentation is of paramount importance - and trumps any desire to immediately disseminate information. I realise that this is a very high-level question... (suggestions of additional tags welcome) - I mentioned PHP only as - ideally - I'm looking for an open source solution and a PHP deployment is an easy option. What are my options?

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  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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  • Custom authentication module inheriting IHttpModule issue.

    - by Chandan Khatwani
    LoginPage.aspx:- protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Context.Items["Username"] = txtUserId.Text; Context.Items["Password"] = txtPassword.Text; // FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, Context.Items["Username"].ToString(), DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(10), true, "users", FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // Encrypt the cookie using the machine key for secure transport string hash = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, // Name of auth cookie hash); // Hashed ticket // Set the cookie's expiration time to the tickets expiration time if (ticket.IsPersistent) cookie.Expires = ticket.Expiration; Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } Global.asax file:- void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.User != null) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { FormsIdentity id = (FormsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = id.Ticket; // Get the stored user-data, in this case, our roles string userData = ticket.UserData; string[] roles = userData.Split(','); HttpContext.Current.User = new System.Security.Principal.GenericPrincipal(id, roles); Response.Write(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name); Response.Redirect("Default.aspx"); } } } } I get the following error after signing in This webpage has a redirect loop. The webpage at http://localhost:1067/Default.aspx has resulted in too many redirects. Clearing your cookies for this site or allowing third-party cookies may fix the problem. If not, it is possibly a server configuration issue and not a problem with your computer.

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  • Why does Python sometimes upgrade a string to unicode and sometimes not?

    - by samtregar
    I'm confused. Consider this code working the way I expect: >>> foo = u'Émilie and Juañ are turncoats.' >>> bar = "foo is %s" % foo >>> bar u'foo is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' And this code not at all working the way I expect: >>> try: ... raise Exception(foo) ... except Exception as e: ... foo2 = e ... >>> bar = "foo2 is %s" % foo2 ------------------------------------------------------------ Traceback (most recent call last): File "<ipython console>", line 1, in <module> UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode characters in position 0-1: ordinal not in range(128) Can someone explain what's going on here? Why does it matter whether the unicode data is in a plain unicode string or stored in an Exception object? And why does this fix it: >>> bar = u"foo2 is %s" % foo2 >>> bar u'foo2 is \xc3\x89milie and Jua\xc3\xb1 are turncoats.' I am quite confused! Thanks for the help! UPDATE: My coding buddy Randall has added to my confusion in an attempt to help me! Send in the reinforcements to explain how this is supposed to make sense: >>> class A: ... def __str__(self): return "string" ... def __unicode__(self): return "unicode" ... >>> "%s %s" % (u'niño', A()) u'ni\xc3\xb1o unicode' >>> "%s %s" % (A(), u'niño') u'string ni\xc3\xb1o' Note that the order of the arguments here determines which method is called!

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  • Setting up SVN (subvsersion) to manage our companies files, how to exclude large files from being ve

    - by Roeland
    Me and two other guys recently started our own web development company. We each work from our homes and have decided we want to keep one central location for all of our files. These files include word documents, spreadsheets, client files, designs.. etc. Anything pertaining to our company. I have a pretty solid internet connection and a windows 2008 server box sitting at home so I set up a subversion repository. Our file repository will look something like this. Clients Company A Design (photoshop files, wireframes, concepts) Documents ( logins, quotes, proposals etc) Site Backups Company B Design Documents Site Backups Prospects Company C Company D Our Company Our Website Documents (contract, operating procudres) My question is in regards to design files. The photoshop files that my designer works with range in sizes from 10mb to 100mb. I don't think we need to keep these files version-ed as this would eat up space incredibly fast. How do I go about controlling which files get version-ed, and which files are just stored. What I am thinking is that all documents need to be version-ed, and any files other then that should not be. Any help would be appreciated, thanks! Edit I am also curious whether this is the way to go. I just like this system since it keeps version of all my documents and at the same time. Also essentially I will have 3 backups in 3 different locations (3 local copies) so no need for backing it up. I am unsure of how svn would perform as purely a huge file repository.

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  • How does SVN store commit time

    - by Salman
    I am working on a project that involves extracting details from a SVN server using SVNKit. My project is already complete and has been working we for a while now. During the testing, I noticed something rather very strange. the Commit Times my extract data seems is alway different from whats there in SVN Logs. I couldnt find any code in my project that could be inducing this difference but now I am looking as to how SVN server stores the Commit time in itself. As we have developer working from different part of the world thus resulting in different timezones, I was thinking that SVN might be storing time after converting them to GMT or timezone of the system on which SVN server is running. But that does not seem to be happening. Instead the times are stored as per the time when the commit was done and in that local timezone itself. I have been unable to find any substantial document on internet to support my theory so far. Can anybody in brief explain as how SVN store the Commit Time for each change? Documentaion links referring to this will be of great help.

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  • HMAC URLs instead of login?

    - by Tres
    In implementing my site (a Rails site if it makes any difference), one of my design priorities is to relieve the user of the need to create yet another username and password while still providing useful per-user functionality. The way I am planning to do this is: User enters information on the site. Information is associated with the user via server-side session. User completes entering information, server sends an access URL via e-mail to the user roughly in the form of: http://siteurl/<user identifier>/<signature: HMAC(secret + salt + user identifier)> User clicks URL, site looks up user ID and salt and computes the HMAC with the server-stored secret and authenticates if the computed HMAC and signature match. My question is: is this a reasonably secure way to accomplish what I'm looking to do? Are there common attacks that would render it useless? Is there a compelling reason to abandon my desire to avoid a username/password? Is there a must-read book or article on the subject? Note that I'm not dealing with credit card numbers or anything exceedingly private, but I would still like to keep the information reasonably secure.

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  • Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

    - by Twelve47
    I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

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  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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  • CREATE VIEW called multiple times not creating all views

    - by theninepoundhammer
    Noticing strange behavior in SQL 2005, both Express and Enterprise Edition: In my code I need to loop through a series of values (about five in a row), and for each value, I need to insert the value into a table and dynamically create a new view using that value as part of the where clause and the name of the view. The code runs pretty quickly, but what I'm noticing is that all the values are inserted into the table correctly but only the LAST view is being created. Every time. For example, if the values I'm using are X1, X2, X3, X4, and X5, I'll run the process, open up Mgmt Studio, and see five rows in the table with the correct five values, but only one view named MyView_x5 that has the correct WHERE clause. At first, I had this loop in an SSIS package as part of a larger data flow. When I started noticing this behavior, I created a stored proc that would create the CREATE VIEW statement dynamically after the insert and called EXECUTE to create the view. Same result. Finally, I created some C# code using the Enterprise Library DAAB, and did the insert and CREATE VIEW statements from my DLL. Same result every time. Most recently, I turned on Profiler while running against the Enterprise Edition and was able to verify that the Batch Started and Batch Completed events were being fired off for each instance of the view. However, like I said, only the last view is actually being created. Does anyone have any idea why this might be happening? Or any suggestions about what else to check or profile? I've profiled for error messages, exceptions, etc. but don't see any in my trace file. My express edition is 9.00.1399.06. Not sure about the Enterprise edition but think it is SP2.

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