Search Results

Search found 8684 results on 348 pages for 'nunit console'.

Page 302/348 | < Previous Page | 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309  | Next Page >

  • Unit-testing a directive with isolated scope and bidirectional value

    - by unludo
    I want to unit test a directive which looks like this: angular.module('myApp', []) .directive('myTest', function () { return { restrict: 'E', scope: { message: '='}, replace: true, template: '<div ng-if="message"><p>{{message}}</p></div>', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { } }; }); Here is my failing test: describe('myTest directive:', function () { var scope, compile, validHTML; validHTML = '<my-test message="message"></my-test>'; beforeEach(module('myApp')); beforeEach(inject(function($compile, $rootScope){ scope = $rootScope.$new(); compile = $compile; })); function create() { var elem, compiledElem; elem = angular.element(validHTML); compiledElem = compile(elem)(scope); scope.$digest(); return compiledElem; } it('should have a scope on root element', function () { scope.message = 'not empty'; var el = create(); console.log(el.text()); expect(el.text()).toBeDefined(); expect(el.text()).not.toBe(''); }); }); Can you spot why it's failing? The corresponding jsFiddle Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Why is Log4Net not creating log file in production?

    - by uriDium
    I am using VS2005, a website project, a web deployment project and Log4Net. I can use logging when I am developing locally. I can see the log files and everything is fine. When I build my website, (using the web deployment project), I use the deploy as a single DLL option. When I then check the locations of where my log files should be I cannot see any files. Is there a way to troubleshoot this. I don't think adding the debug value to the App Settings will help because I don't have a console because it is a website. EDIT I don't want the 150 rep to go to waste so one last time. I compared the internal trace from my dev environment to the trace from the production. My dev environment trace shows the call the Xml Configurator where the production one does not. I have code in the global.asax on application_start() method. I put debug code in there and it is getting called in dev but not in production. I think this is where the web deployment project is causing some issues. Does the global.asax get compiled into the single DLL? When I do a build in the deployment directory I see a global.compiled file. Must this go into the bin folder in production? Or is the global.asax code in the single DLL? Having both in the bin folder or the just the DLL didn't change anything.

    Read the article

  • Passing an arbritrary JavaScript object in Xul

    - by Tom Brito
    I'm following this example to pass an object to a window, but when it as an argument it's with "undefined" value. This is my first window (obs. dump is the way to print to console when debug options are turned on): <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <!DOCTYPE window SYSTEM "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/locale/XulWindowArgTest.dtd"> <window id="windowID" width="400" height="300" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script> <![CDATA[ function onClickMe(event) { dump("begin\n"); try { var args = { param1: true, param2: 42 }; args.wrappedJSObject = args; var watcher = Components.classes["@mozilla.org/embedcomp/window-watcher;1"].getService(Components.interfaces.nsIWindowWatcher); watcher.openWindow(null, "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/content/about.xul", "windowName", "chrome", args); } catch (e) { dump("error: " + e + "\n"); } dump("end\n"); } ]]> </script> <button label="Click me !" oncommand="onClickMe();" /> </window> and my second window: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <!DOCTYPE window SYSTEM "chrome://XulWindowArgTest/locale/XulWindowArgTest.dtd"> <window xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul" onload="onload()"> <script> <![CDATA[ function onload() { dump('arg = ' + window.arguments[0].wrappedJSObject + "\n"); } ]]> </script> <label value="test" /> </window> when the second window loads, it calls the onload and prints: arg = undefined Any idea how to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Mixing has_one and has_and_belongs_to_many associations

    - by Thomas
    I'm trying to build a database of urls(links). I have a Category model that has and belongs to many Links. Here's the migration I ran: class CreateLinksCategories < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :links_categories, :id => false do |t| t.references :link t.references :category end end def self.down drop_table :links_categories end end Here's the Link model: class Link < ActiveRecord::Base validates :path, :presence => true, :format => { :with => /^(#{URI::regexp(%w(http https))})$|^$/ } validates :name, :presence => true has_one :category end Here's the category model: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :links end And here's the error the console kicked back when I tried to associate the first link with the first category: >>link = Link.first => #<Link id: 1, path: "http://www.yahoo.com", created_at: "2011-01-10... >>category = Category.first => #<category id : 1, name: "News Site", created_at: "2011-01-11... >>link.category << category => ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: SQLite3::Exception: no such column : categories.link_id: Are my associations wrong or am I missing something in the database? I expected it to find the links_categories table. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • DeleteOnSubmit doesnt exist?

    - by Anders Metnik
    using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; Thats my namespaces.. i was looking for System.Data.Linq; but it doesnt seem to be anywhere, and i guess that is what have been moved to System.Linq, since i have access to most other things in Linq. EDIT: found System.Data:Linq, no difference Here is my method: public void deleteStudienummer(int studienummer) { dbcontent = new DBEntities(); var dQry = from members in dbcontent.Medlemmer where members.Studienummer == studienummer select members; foreach (var member in dQry) { dbcontent.*** } dbcontent.AcceptAllChanges(); Console.WriteLine("delete member should have occured"); } The * was supposed to be DeleteOnSubmit, but i only have DeleteDatabase and DeleteObject, i tried with object but it doesnt work.. Have also tried dbcontent.Medlemmer.* but still not present. And AcceptAllChanges() was supposed to be .submitChanges() but that wasnt present either.

    Read the article

  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

    Read the article

  • SQL developer here -- Nesting with select * finicky in Oracle 10g?

    - by John Sullivan
    I am writing a simple diagnostic query I will execute in my Oracle 10g scratchpad. I am trying to do this as part of a step to build the query. In the SQL Scratchpad for Oracle 10g Enterprise Manager Console, this statement runs fine. SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ' If I try to wrap that up in Select * from () tb2 I get an error, "ORA-00918: Column Ambiguously Defined". I didn't think that could ever happen with this kind of statement so I am a bit confused. select * from (SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ') tb2 You should always be able to select * from the result set of another select * statement using this structure as far as I'm aware... right? Is Oracle/10g/the scratchpad trying to force me to accept a certain syntactic structure to prevent excessive nesting? Is this a bug in scratchpad or something about how oracle works?

    Read the article

  • How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

    - by kazanaki
    Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

    Read the article

  • How to set default view in OpenLayers, WITHOUT restricting bounds?

    - by Jenny
    Based on samples, I can see that you can set a default view in OpenLayers by saying something along the lines of: var bounds = new OpenLayers.Bounds(-125, 25, -65, 50); var map = new OpenLayers.Map('map', {restrictedExtent: bounds }); However, this also (as the name implies), restricts me to be able to ONLY navigate within these bounds. I can zoom out and see things outside of these bounds, but I can't then zoom back onto them, or scroll to them. I've tried not having any restrictedExtent (or making it the entire map), but then I can't get it to focus on the area I want. I tried using: map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(0,0), 3); console.log(map.getCenter()); To set the zoom and the center...but it doesn't seem to do ANYTHING, other than set the variable "center" which I can then read from map.getCenter() (if I don't set it, it's null, if I do set it, I can see it...but the map itself stays fully extended and it's center doesn't seem to change at all...) The Map layer I am using is: OpenLayers.Layer.OSM.Mapnik with displayOutsideMaxExtent set to true... I'm really at a loss here. My goal is to have a default region of the world zoomed in to and in view (such as the United States), with the option of viewers being able to go outside the default to view things.

    Read the article

  • How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

    - by Greg
    Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

    Read the article

  • Searching the head of CVS

    - by bobtheowl2
    I'm looking for a 'relatively' easy way to search through cvs to look for a particular string in the HEAD revisions. I realize the way CVS stores versions makes this difficult. But I'm trying to come up with some script to allow this search (performance is not expected here). Currently this command will output the contents of the head files cvs co -r HEAD -p stdout = file contents (to be grepped for the search string) stderr = the file name/header info (to be grepped for the line that signifies file name). Ideally, I want to grep the contents and display the header + a few lines before and after the searched item (the output of this likely directed to some file). I found a way to grep the stdout and stderr using different values. And the resulting stdout/stderr displayed is in the right order. But any attempt to redirect it to a file messes up the order? { { cvs co -r HEAD -p myModule 4>&- | grep 'myString' 2>&4 4>&- } 4>&2 2>&1 >&3 3>&- | grep 'Check' >&2 3>&- } 3>&1 Question 1. Is there an easier way to do this all together? Question 2. If not, how do I get the output of the code above to append to a file in the same order as displayed on the console?

    Read the article

  • ThreadExceptionEventHandler and invoking delegates

    - by QmunkE
    If I assign a ThreadExceptionEventHandler to Application.ThreadException, why when I invoke a delegate method using a control on the main application thread are any exceptions thrown by that delegate not triggering the event handler? i.e. static void Main() { ... Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.Error.Write("A thread exception occurred!"); } ... private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread syncThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.ThrowException)); syncThread.Start(); } private void ThrowException() { button1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { // Not handled by ThreadExceptionEventHandler? throw new Exception(); })); } The context on this is that I have a background thread started from a form which is throwing an unhandled exception which terminates the application. I know this thread is going to be unreliable since it is network connectivity reliant and so subject to being terminated at any point, but I'm just interested as to why this scenario doesn't play out as I expect?

    Read the article

  • help me to choose between two designs

    - by alex
    // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

    Read the article

  • UIViewController maintains state after being nilled

    - by Eric
    In my app, I made a BookViewController class that displays and animates the pages of a book and a MainMenuViewController class that displays a set of books the user can read. In the latter class, when the user taps on one of the books, a function is called that should create a completely new instance of BookViewController, but for some reason the instance maintains its state (i.e. it resumes from the page the user left off). How can this be if I set it to nil? What am I missing here? (Note that I'm using ARC). MainMenuViewController.m @interface MainMenuViewController () @property (strong) BookViewController *bookViewController; @end @implementation MainMenuViewController @synthesize bookViewController; -(void)bookTapped:(UIButton *)sender{ NSString *bookTitle; if(sender == book1button) bookTitle = @"book1"; else if(sender == book2button) bookTitle = @"book2"; bookViewController = nil; bookViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithBookTitle:bookTitle]; [self presentViewController:bookViewController animated:YES completion:nil]; } BookViewController.h @interface BookViewController : UIViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)bookTitle; @end BookViewController.m @implementation BookViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)theBookTitle{ self = [super init]; if(self){ bookTitle = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", theBookTitle]; [self setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve]; NSLog(@"init a BookViewController with bookTitle: %@", bookTitle); } return self; } Every time a book is tapped, bookTapped: is called, and thee console always prints: 2012-08-31 16:29:51.750 AppName[25713:c07] init a BookViewController with bookTitle: book1 So if a new instance of BookViewController is being created, how come it seems to be returning the old one?

    Read the article

  • iphone: memory problems after refactor

    - by agilpwc
    I had a NIB with several view controllers in it. I modified the code and used Interface Builder decomose interface to get all the view controllers in their own Nib. But now with empty core data database, I'm getting "message sent to deallocated instance" errors. Here is the code flow: From the RootViewController this is called: if (self.dogController == nil) { DogViewController *controller = [[DogViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DogViewController" bundle:nil]; self.dogController = controller; [controller release]; } self.dogController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; [self.navigationController pushViewController:self.dogController animated:YES]; Then in a dogController a button is pressed to insert a new object and the following code is excuted and the error hits on the save, according to the trace NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self.fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [newManagedObject setValue:[NSDate date] forKey:@"birthDate"]; [newManagedObject setValue:@"-" forKey:@"callName"]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![context save:&error]) { Then the error produced in the console is * -[JudgeViewController numberOfSectionsInTableView:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x598e580 I'm racking my brain for hours and I can't figure out where my minor changes made something messed up. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • next previous button in div jquery mobile

    - by satine kianne
    i have a total of 11 div in my app. what i want to do is to display 3 divs in between 2 permanent div it should look like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |div 2| |div 3| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| when i click on next is should look like this |first permanent div| |div 2| |div 3| |div 4| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| and so on. and when im not div 1,2,3 the previous should be disabled and when im no 7,8,9 the next should be disabled. but i cant make it i'm using this fiddle as a sample http://jsfiddle.net/WGkPV/1/ its working but only one div is shown in the center of my two permanent div which is not in my plan.im getting like this |first permanent div| |div 1| |second permanent div| |previous| |next| any suggestion will be taken seriously. here is the code of the fiddle im working on as tutorial $(document).ready(function () { var divs = $('.mydivs>div'); var now = 0; // currently shown div divs.hide().first().show(); $("button[name=next]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now + 1 < divs.length) ? now + 1 : 0; divs.eq(now).show(); // show next }); $("button[name=prev]").click(function (e) { divs.eq(now).hide(); now = (now > 0) ? now - 1 : divs.length - 1; divs.eq(now).show(); // or .css('display','block'); //console.log(divs.length, now); }); }); <div class="mydivs"> <div>div 1</div> <div>div 2</div> <div>div 3</div> <div>div 4</div> </div>

    Read the article

  • How to get jQuery to find the first list-item, rather than all list-items?

    - by ricebowl
    I'm trying to implement a basic jQuery infinite carousel. As much for the learning process as for anything else (as a rule I'm not a fan of re-inventing wheels, but...I have to learn somehow, might as well start with the basics). I've managed to get the list to animate left happily enough, but I'm stuck when it comes to selecting the first element of the list. I've tried to use: $('ul#services > li:first'); $('ul#services > li:first-child'); $('ul#services > li').eq([0]); (xhtml below), In each case a console.log(first) (the var name used) returns all of the list-items. Am I doing something blatantly, and obviously, wrong? The eventual plan is to clone the first li, append it to the parent ul, remove the li from the list and allow the list to scroll infinitely. It's just a list of services rather than links so I'm not -at the moment- planning to have scroll or left/right functionality. Current xhtml: <div class="wrapper"> <ul id="services"> <!-- closing the `</li>` tags on the following line is to remove whitespace in the horizontal list, doesn't seem to make a difference to the jQuery from my own testing. --> <li>one</li ><li>two</li ><li>three</li ><li>four</li ><li>five</li ><li>six</li ><li>seven</li ><li>eight</li ><li>nine</li ><li>ten</li> </ul> </div>

    Read the article

  • Jquery (non-gem) plugin won't work in my rails 3.2 app

    - by jfdimark
    I'm trying to equalize columns in my rails 3.2 app, and while there may be a better way to do it then my current attempt, after hours of trying to make it work I'd like to see if anyone can point out specifically why this jQuery plugin (which isn't a gem) is not working. I'm not getting any errors in the developer console, so it's hard to pin point. Here's the relevant code: The index view, where I've followed the plugin's instructions: div id="column-group"> <div class="equalize span5 offset1 UserProfile"> <% if user_signed_in? %> <h3>Hello <%= current_user.name %>!</h3> </div> <div class="equalize span5 MemberDisplay"> My application.js file, where I've also included the specific js code, so it would definitely be picked up by the application: //= require jquery //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap //= require equalize_column_heights //= require_tree . $(document).ready(function() { $("#column-group").equalize_column_heights("equalize"); }); The jQuery plugin code, which is saved in my vendor/assets/javascripts folder: (function ($) { $.fn.equalize_column_heights = function (equalize_class) { var tallest_column=0; parent_id = "column-group" + $(this).attr("id") + " ." + equalize_class; $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { if (tallest_column < $(this).height()){ tallest_column = $(this).height(); } }); $(parent_id).each(function(index, value) { $(this).css({'min-height': tallest_column}); }); } }(jQuery)); I've read all the rails guides documentation on the asset pipeline and all the relevant jQuery-rails3 questions on SO, but after several hours, I just can't seem to figure this one out. If anyone can point to other tutorials on how to get non-gem jQuery plugins to work in a Rails 3.2 app then I'd be glad to take a look!

    Read the article

  • jquery getscript <script> tags

    - by user1871612
    To ask about getscript html Code as follows: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "- / / W3C / / DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional / / EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>jQuery GetScript</title> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type = "text / javascript "> $(document). ready(function () { $getScript ('script.js', function (jd) { $.each (test, function (index, value) { console.log (value); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dest"> </div> </body> </html> js (1) code are as follows: - <script type='text/javascript'> var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; </ script> js (2) Code as follows: - var test = []; test [0] = ['111 ', '222']; The problem is as follows: - Run js (1) code will appear: - Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token < No problem running js (2) Would like to ask how we can run js (1) can not go wrong Thank! Badly written, please forgive me.

    Read the article

  • Iphone: XML image problem

    - by avanadra
    Hi! I have a question about parsing XML and putting it into a table. I parsed the following elements from a RSS feed : title, dc:creator and enclosure url (= an image). The parsing is working, i can see everything showing up in the console. But when i try to load everything into the tablecell, everything shows up except for the image. So i figured that the problem must be in the CellForRowatIndexPath method in the RootViewController.m ( or in the TableCell.m) What am i doing wrong? Please help! Ive been struggling for days with this and just cant seem to figure it out! Heres the CellForRowatIndexPath: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; WerkTableCell *cell = (WerkTableCell *) [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"WerkCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell =self.werkCell; } // Configure the cell. NSMutableArray *cont= [xmlcont items];// is niet in tablevb v. PS ItemData *current =[cont objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; cell.titelLabel.text = [current titel]; cell.makerLabel.text = [current maker]; cell.thumbImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[current image]]; return cell; }

    Read the article

  • How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

    - by Angela
    How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Regex: Testing string for intelligent query

    - by Shyam
    Hi, I have a string that holds user input. This string can contain various types of data, like: a six digit id a zipcode that contains out of 4 digits and two alphanumeric characters a name (characters only) As I am using this string to search through a database, the query type is determined on the type of search, which i want to handle serverside using JavaScript (yes, I am using JavaScript serverside). Searching on StackOverflow, brought me some interesting information, like the .test-method, which seems perfect for my needs. The test-method returns either true or false based on the evaluation on the string using a regex object. I am using this page as a reference: http://www.javascriptkit.com/jsref/regexp.shtml So I am trying to determine the zipcode, by using the following very noobish regex. var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ As far I can understand, this should limit the amount of occurrences of alphanumeric characters to a maximum of two. See beneath the output of my JavaScript console. > var r = /[A-Za-z]{2,2}/ > var x = "2233AL" > r.test(x) true > var x = "2233A" > r.test(x) false > var x = "2233ALL" > r.test(x) true /* i want this to be false */ > A little help would be really appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Is there a Designer for MFC in Visual Studio like for windows forms in .NET?

    - by claws
    I'm a .NET programmer. I've never developed anything in MFC. Currently I had to write a C++ application (console) for some image processing task. I finished writing it. But the point is I need to design GUI also for this. Well, there won't be anything complex. Just a window with few Buttons, RadioButtons, Check Boxes, PicturesBox & few sliders. thats it. I'm using VS 2008 and was expecting a .NET style form designer. Just to test, I created a MFC project (with all default configuration) and these files were created by default: ChildFrm.cpp MainFrm.cpp mfc.cpp mfcDoc.cpp mfcView.cpp stdafx.cpp Now, I'm unable to find a Designer. There is no View Designer. I've opened all the above *.cpp and in the code editor right clicked to see "Designer View". ToolBox is just empty because I'm in code editor mode. When I built the project. This is the window I get. How to open a designer?

    Read the article

  • Rails 3: Link_to :remote => true with JQuery?

    - by Derek
    Question update: I have figured out that importing JQuery (even without using it at all) is causing :remote => true to not work properly. I get the following error in the Chrome console: Uncaught TypeError: Object [object Object] has no method 'dispatchEvent' (prototype.js:5653) And when the link is clicked, it throws the same error again before redirecting. Responder.erb.html <ul> <% @choices.each_with_index do |choice, index| %> <li><%= link_to choice, { :action => "submit_response", :id => @id, :response => index }, :remote => true %></li> <% end %> </ul> Example generated HTML: <ul> <li><a href="/poller/submit_response/yni?response=0" data-remote="true">True</a></li> <li><a href="/poller/submit_response/yni?response=1" data-remote="true">False</a></li> </ul>

    Read the article

  • Windows Service Start-Up Error 1069

    - by Gavin
    Hello, I am installing a new windows service coded in C# on a server. I installed the service fine on the server, but once i manually start up the service on a server, with the same login credentials that our other services use, i get the fatal error message notification: "Could not start the %service name% on Local Computer. Error 1069: The Service did not start due to a logon failure." I looked in the event log and i got a 7038 and 7000 event id error in that order. 7038 event id message: "The %service name% service was unable to log on as %login% with the currently configured password due to the following error: Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. To ensure that the service is configured properly, use the Services snap-in in Microsoft Management Console (MMC)." 7000 event id message: "The %service name% service failed to start due to the following error: The service did not start due to a logon failure. " I have other services that are using the same exact login account and they work fine. Is there something simple I could be missing? Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 298 299 300 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309  | Next Page >