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  • Trouble with client side validation using Struts 2. Xml based validation rules not recognized.

    - by Kartik
    Hi, This is my first post to ask a question on stack overflow and my issue is that when I don't see a client side validation error message when I don't enter any values for that field even when it is configured as required. The input page is reloaded but no error message is seen. I am not sure what I am doing wrong. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. My scenario is given below: I have a simple form where I have a pull down menu called selection criterion. A value must be selected. If a value is not selected, then the page should reload with configured error message. My input form action_item_search.jsp is given below: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" /> <title>Action Item Search</title> </head> <body> <s:actionerror/> <s:fielderror /> <s:form action="action_item_search" validate="true"> <s:select label="Search Criterion" name="searchCriterion" list="#{'': 'Select One', 'creatorName':'creator name', assignedTo':'assigned to'}" required="true" /> <s:submit name="search" value="Search"></s:submit> </s:form> </body> I have add validators.xml in my WEB-INF/classes directory of exploded war file as given below: <!DOCTYPE validators PUBLIC "-//OpenSymphony Group//XWork Validator Config 1.0//EN" "http://www.opensymphony.com/xwork/xwork-validator-config-1.0.dtd"> ActionItemTrackingAction-findByCriteria-validation.xml is given below: <!DOCTYPE validators PUBLIC "-//OpenSymphony Group//XWork Validator 1.0.2//EN" "http://www.opensymphony.com/xwork/xwork-validator-1.0.2.dtd"> You must enter a search criterion. My struts mapping xml: <struts> <constant name="struts.enable.DynamicMethodInvocation" value="false" /> <constant name="struts.devMode" value="true" /> <!-- <include file="example.xml"/> --> <package name="action-item" extends="struts-default"> <action name = "action_item_search_input"> <result name = "success">/action-item-search.jsp</result> </action> <action name="action_item_search" class="gov.nasa.spacebook.ActionItemTrackingAction" method="fetchByCriteria"> <result name = "success">/action-item-result.jsp</result> <result name = "input">/action-item-search.jsp</result> <result name = "error">/action-item-search.jsp</result> </action> </package> My action class public class ActionItemTrackingAction extends ActionSupport { private List<ActionItem> actionItems; public List<ActionItemTracking> getActionItems() { return actionItems; } public void setActionItems(List<ActionItemTracking> actionItems) { this.actionItems = actionItems; } private String searchCriterion; public String getSearchCriterion() { return searchCriterion; } public void setSearchCriterion(final String criterion) { this.searchCriterion = criterion; } public String fetchByCriteria() throws Exception { final ActionItemTrackingService service = new ActionItemTrackingService(); this.actionItems = service.getByField(this.actionItem); return super.execute(); } }

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  • FFmpeg creates emtpy (black) frames

    - by resamsel
    I have a set of images from a timelapse shot (172 JPG files) that I want to convert into a movie. I tried several parameters with FFmpeg, but all I get is a video with black frames (though it has the expected length). ffmpeg -f image2 -vcodec mjpeg -y -i img_%03d.jpg timelapse2.mpg The command above creates this video: http://sdm-net.org/data/timelapse2.mpg What I'm expecting is something like this (created with Time Lapse Assembler.app): https://vimeo.com/39038362 - This is my fallback option, but I'd really like to create timelapse movies from a script. I'm on OSX Lion (10.7.3) with FFmpeg version (0.10) installed via Homebrew. I also tried to find a proper version of mencoder for OSX, but this doesn't seem to be an easy task. Also, ImageMagick's convert doesn't seem to work nicely, it creates really bad output and it seems there's not much I can do about it... Edit: With libx264 and an mp4 container: ffmpeg -f image2 -y -i img_%03d.jpg -vcodec libx264 timelapse4.mp4 Output: ffmpeg version 0.10 Copyright (c) 2000-2012 the FFmpeg developers built on Mar 26 2012 13:47:02 with clang 3.0 (tags/Apple/clang-211.12) configuration: --prefix=/usr/local/Cellar/ffmpeg/0.10 --enable-shared --enable-gpl --enable-version3 --enable-nonfree --enable-hardcoded-tables --enable-libfreetype --cc=/usr/bin/clang --enable-libx264 --enable-libfaac --enable-libmp3lame --enable-librtmp --enable-libtheora --enable-libvorbis --enable-libvpx --enable-libxvid --enable-libopencore-amrnb --enable-libopencore-amrwb --enable-libass --disable-ffplay libavutil 51. 34.101 / 51. 34.101 libavcodec 53. 60.100 / 53. 60.100 libavformat 53. 31.100 / 53. 31.100 libavdevice 53. 4.100 / 53. 4.100 libavfilter 2. 60.100 / 2. 60.100 libswscale 2. 1.100 / 2. 1.100 libswresample 0. 6.100 / 0. 6.100 libpostproc 52. 0.100 / 52. 0.100 Input #0, image2, from 'img_%03d.jpg': Duration: 00:00:06.88, start: 0.000000, bitrate: N/A Stream #0:0: Video: mjpeg, yuvj420p, 3888x2592 [SAR 72:72 DAR 3:2], 25 fps, 25 tbr, 25 tbn, 25 tbc [buffer @ 0x7f8ec9415f20] w:3888 h:2592 pixfmt:yuvj420p tb:1/1000000 sar:72/72 sws_param: [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] using SAR=1/1 [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] frame MB size (243x162) > level limit (36864) [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] MB rate (984150) > level limit (983040) [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] using cpu capabilities: MMX2 SSE2Fast SSSE3 FastShuffle SSE4.2 AVX [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] profile High, level 5.1 [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] 264 - core 120 - H.264/MPEG-4 AVC codec - Copyleft 2003-2011 - http://www.videolan.org/x264.html - options: cabac=1 ref=3 deblock=1:0:0 analyse=0x3:0x113 me=hex subme=7 psy=1 psy_rd=1.00:0.00 mixed_ref=1 me_range=16 chroma_me=1 trellis=1 8x8dct=1 cqm=0 deadzone=21,11 fast_pskip=1 chroma_qp_offset=-2 threads=12 sliced_threads=0 nr=0 decimate=1 interlaced=0 bluray_compat=0 constrained_intra=0 bframes=3 b_pyramid=2 b_adapt=1 b_bias=0 direct=1 weightb=1 open_gop=0 weightp=2 keyint=250 keyint_min=25 scenecut=40 intra_refresh=0 rc_lookahead=40 rc=crf mbtree=1 crf=23.0 qcomp=0.60 qpmin=0 qpmax=69 qpstep=4 ip_ratio=1.40 aq=1:1.00 Output #0, mp4, to 'timelapse4.mp4': Metadata: encoder : Lavf53.31.100 Stream #0:0: Video: h264 (![0][0][0] / 0x0021), yuvj420p, 3888x2592 [SAR 72:72 DAR 3:2], q=-1--1, 25 tbn, 25 tbc Stream mapping: Stream #0:0 -> #0:0 (mjpeg -> libx264) Press [q] to stop, [?] for help frame= 172 fps= 18 q=-1.0 Lsize= 259kB time=00:00:06.80 bitrate= 312.3kbits/s video:256kB audio:0kB global headers:0kB muxing overhead 1.089647% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] frame I:1 Avg QP: 9.60 size:212820 [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] frame P:43 Avg QP:30.50 size: 291 [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] frame B:128 Avg QP:31.00 size: 285 [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] consecutive B-frames: 0.6% 0.0% 1.7% 97.7% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] mb I I16..4: 22.5% 77.2% 0.3% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] mb P I16..4: 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% P16..4: 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% skip:100.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] mb B I16..4: 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% B16..8: 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% direct: 0.0% skip:100.0% L0: 1.2% L1:98.8% BI: 0.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] 8x8 transform intra:77.2% inter:100.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] coded y,uvDC,uvAC intra: 41.2% 23.4% 0.6% inter: 0.0% 0.0% 0.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] i16 v,h,dc,p: 40% 25% 35% 1% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] i8 v,h,dc,ddl,ddr,vr,hd,vl,hu: 36% 32% 30% 1% 0% 0% 0% 0% 0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] i4 v,h,dc,ddl,ddr,vr,hd,vl,hu: 51% 40% 6% 1% 1% 0% 1% 0% 1% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] i8c dc,h,v,p: 60% 21% 19% 0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] Weighted P-Frames: Y:0.0% UV:0.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] ref P L0: 92.3% 0.0% 0.0% 7.7% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] ref B L0: 50.0% 0.0% 50.0% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] ref B L1: 99.4% 0.6% [libx264 @ 0x7f8ec981d800] kb/s:304.49 Output timelapse4.mp4 (beacause of spam protection I can only post two links with my reputation): http sdm-net.org/data/timelapse4.mp4

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  • Source code versioning with comments (organizational practice) - leave or remove?

    - by ADTC
    Before you start admonishing me with "DON'T DO IT," "BAD PRACTICE!" and "Learn to use proper source code control", please hear me out first. I am fully aware that the practice of commenting out old code and leaving it there forever is very bad and I hate such practice myself. But here's the situation I'm in. A few months ago I joined a company as software developer. I had worked in the company for few months as an intern, about a year before joining recently. Our company uses source code version control (CVS) but not properly. Here's what happened both in my internship and my current permanent position. Each time I was assigned to work on a project (legacy, about 8-10 years old). Instead of creating a CVS account and letting me check out code and check in changes, a senior colleague exported the code from CVS, zipped it up and passed it to me. While this colleague checks in all changes in bulk every few weeks, our usual practice is to do fine-grained versioning in the actual source code itself (each file increments in versions independent from the rest). Whenever a change is made to a file, old code is commented out, new code entered below it, and this whole section is marked with a version number. Finally a note about the changes is placed at the top of the file in a section called Modification History. Finally the changed files are placed in a shared folder, ready and waiting for the bulk check-in. /* * Copyright notice blah blah * Some details about file (project name, file name etc) * Modification History: * Date Version Modified By Description * 2012-10-15 1.0 Joey Initial creation * 2012-10-22 1.1 Chandler Replaced old code with new code */ code .... //v1.1 start //old code new code //v1.1 end code .... Now the problem is this. In the project I'm working on, I needed to copy some new source code files from another project (new in the sense that they didn't exist in destination project before). These files have a lot of historical commented out code and comment-based versioning including usually long or very long Modification History section. Since the files are new to this project I decided to clean them up and remove unnecessary code including historical code, and start fresh at version 1.0. (I still have to continue the practice of comment-based versioning despite hating it. And don't ask why not start at version 0.1...) I have done similar something during my internship and no one said anything. My supervisor has seen the work a few times and didn't say I shouldn't do such clean-up (if at all it was noticed). But a same-level colleague saw this and said it's not recommended as it may cause downtime in the future and increase maintenance costs. An example is when changes are made in another project on the original files and these changes need to be propagated to this project. With code files drastically different, it could cause confusion to an employee doing the propagation. It makes sense to me, and is a valid point. I couldn't find any reason to do my clean-up other than the inconvenience of a ridiculously messy code. So, long story short: Given the practice in our company, should I not do such clean-up when copying new files from project to project? Is it better to make changes on the (copy of) original code with full history in comments? Or what justification can I give for doing the clean-up? PS to mods: Hope you allow this question some time even if for any reason you determine it to be unfit in SO. I apologize in advance if anything is inappropriate including tags.

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  • PHP, MySQL, jQuery, AJAX: json data returns correct response but frontend returns error

    - by Devner
    Hi all, I have a user registration form. I am doing server side validation on the fly via AJAX. The quick summary of my problem is that upon validating 2 fields, I get error for the second field validation. If I comment first field, then the 2nd field does not show any error. It has this weird behavior. More details below: The HTML, JS and Php code are below: HTML FORM: <form id="SignupForm" action=""> <fieldset> <legend>Free Signup</legend> <label for="username">Username</label> <input name="username" type="text" id="username" /><span id="status_username"></span><br /> <label for="email">Email</label> <input name="email" type="text" id="email" /><span id="status_email"></span><br /> <label for="confirm_email">Confirm Email</label> <input name="confirm_email" type="text" id="confirm_email" /><span id="status_confirm_email"></span><br /> </fieldset> <p> <input id="sbt" type="button" value="Submit form" /> </p> </form> JS: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#email").blur(function() { var email = $("#email").val(); var msgbox2 = $("#status_email"); if(email.length > 3) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'check_ajax2.php', data: "email="+ email, dataType: 'json', cache: false, success: function(data) { if(data.success == 'y') { alert('Available'); } else { alert('Not Available'); } } }); } return false; }); $("#confirm_email").blur(function() { var confirm_email = $("#confirm_email").val(); var email = $("#email").val(); var msgbox3 = $("#status_confirm_email"); if(confirm_email.length > 3) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'check_ajax2.php', data: 'confirm_email='+ confirm_email + '&email=' + email, dataType: 'json', cache: false, success: function(data) { if(data.success == 'y') { alert('Available'); } else { alert('Not Available'); } } , error: function (data) { alert('Some error'); } }); } return false; }); }); </script> PHP code: <?php //check_ajax2.php if(isset($_POST['email'])) { $email = $_POST['email']; $res = mysql_query("SELECT uid FROM members WHERE email = '$email' "); $i_exists = mysql_num_rows($res); if( 0 == $i_exists ) { $success = 'y'; $msg_email = 'Email available'; } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_email = 'Email is already in use.</font>'; } print json_encode(array('success' => $success, 'msg_email' => $msg_email)); } if(isset($_POST['confirm_email'])) { $confirm_email = $_POST['confirm_email']; $email = ( isset($_POST['email']) && trim($_POST['email']) != '' ? $_POST['email'] : '' ); $res = mysql_query("SELECT uid FROM members WHERE email = '$confirm_email' "); $i_exists = mysql_num_rows($res); if( 0 == $i_exists ) { if( isset($email) && isset($confirm_email) && $email == $confirm_email ) { $success = 'y'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email available and match'; } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email and Confirm Email do NOT match.'; } } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email already exists.'; } print json_encode(array('success' => $success, 'msg_confirm_email' => $msg_confirm_email)); } ?> THE PROBLEM: As long as I am validating the $_POST['email'] as well as $_POST['confirm_email'] in the check_ajax2.php file, the validation for confirm_email field always returns an error. With my limited knowledge of Firebug, however, I did find out that the following were the responses when I entered email and confirm_email in the fields: RESPONSE 1: {"success":"y","msg_email":"Email available"} RESPONSE 2: {"success":"y","msg_email":"Email available"}{"success":"n","msg_confirm_email":"Email and Confirm Email do NOT match."} Although the RESPONSE 2 shows that we are receiving the correct message via msg_confirm_email, in the front end, the alert 'Some error' is popping up (I have enabled the alert for debugging). I have spent 48 hours trying to change every part of the code wherever possible, but with only little success. What is weird about this is that if I comment the validation for $_POST['email'] field completely, then the validation for $_POST['confirm_email'] field is displaying correctly without any errors. If I enable it back, it is validating email field correctly, but when it reaches the point of validating confirm_email field, it is again showing me the error. I have also tried renaming success variable in check_ajax2.php page to other different names for both $_POST['email'] and $_POST['confirm_email'] but no success. I will be adding more fields in the form and validating within the check_ajax2.php page. So I am not planning on using different ajax pages for validating each of those fields (and I don't think it's smart to do it that way). I am not a jquery or AJAX guru, so all help in resolving this issue is highly appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • WCF Endpoints & Binding Configuration Issues

    - by CodeAbundance
    I am running into a very strange issue here folks. For simplicity I created a project for the sole purpose of testing the issue outside the framework of a larger application and still encountered what is either a bug in WCF within Visual Studio 2010 or something related to my WCF newbie skill set : ) Here is the issue: I have a WCF endpoint I created running inside of an MVC3 project called "SimpleMethod". The method runs inside of a .svc file on the root of the application and it returns a bool. Using the "WCF Service Configuration Editor" I have added the endpoint to my Web.Config along with a called "LargeImageBinding". Here is the service: [OperationContract] public bool SimpleMethod() { return true; } And the Web.Config generated by the Config Tool: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="LargeImageBinding" closeTimeout="00:10:00" /> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="WCFEndpoints.ServiceTestOne"> <endpoint address="/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="LargeImageBinding" contract="WCFEndpoints.IServiceTestOne" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name=""> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> The service renders fine and you can see the endpoint when you navigate to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc - Now the issue occurs when I create a separate project to consume the service. I add a service reference to a running instance of the above project, point it to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc Here is the weird part. The service automatically generates just fine but In the Web.Config the endpoint that is generated looks like this: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne" contract="ServiceTestOne.IServiceTestOne" name="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne"> As you can see it lists the "ServiceTestOne.svc" portion of the address twice! When I make a call to the the service I get the following error: The remote server returned an error: (404) Not Found. I tried removing the extra "/ServiceTestOne.svc" at the end of the endpoint address in the above config, and I get the same exact error. Now what DOES work is if I go back to the WCF application and remove the custom endpoint and binding references in the Web.Config (everything in the "services" and "bindings" tags) then go back to the consumer application, update the reference to the service and make the call to SimpleMethod()....BOOM works like a charm and I get back a bool set to true. The thing is, I need to make custom binding configurations in order to allow for access to the service outside of the defaults, and from what I can tell, any attempt to create custom bindings makes the endpoints seem to run fine, but fail when an actual method call is made. Can anyone see any flaw in how I am putting this together? Thank you for your time - I have been running in circles with this for about a week!

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  • Reuse a facelet in multiple beans

    - by Seitaridis
    How do I invoke/access a property of a managed bean when the bean name is known, but is not yet constructed? For example: <p:selectOneMenu value="#{eval.evaluateAsBean(bean).text}" > <f:selectItems value="#{eval.evaluateAsBean(bean).values}" var="val" itemLabel="#{val}" itemValue="#{val}" /> </p:selectOneMenu> If there is a managed bean called testBean and in my view bean has the "testBean"value, I want the text or values property of testBean to be called. EDIT1 The context An object consists of a list of properties(values). One property is modified with a custom JSF editor, depending on its type. The list of editors is determined from the object's type, and displayed in a form using custom:include tags. This custom tag is used to dynamically include the editors <custom:include src="#{editor.component}">. The component property points to the location of the JSF editor. In my example some editors(rendered as select boxes) will use the same facelet(dynamicDropdown.xhtml). Every editor has a session scoped managed bean. I want to reuse the same facelet with multiple beans and to pass the name of the bean to dynamicDropdown.xhtml using the bean param. genericAccount.xhtml <p:dataTable value="#{group.editors}" var="editor"> <p:column headerText="Key"> <h:outputText value="#{editor.name}" /> </p:column> <p:column headerText="Value"> <h:panelGroup rendered="#{not editor.href}"> <h:outputText value="#{editor.component}" escape="false" /> </h:panelGroup> <h:panelGroup rendered="#{editor.href}"> <custom:include src="#{editor.component}"> <ui:param name="enabled" value="#{editor.enabled}"/> <ui:param name="bean" value="#{editor.bean}"/> <custom:include> </h:panelGroup> </p:column> </p:dataTable> #{editor.component} refers to a dynamicDropdown.xhtml file. dynamicDropdown.xhtml <ui:composition xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:p="http://primefaces.prime.com.tr/ui"> <p:selectOneMenu value="#{eval.evaluateAsBean(bean).text}" > <f:selectItems value="#{eval.evaluateAsBean(bean).values}" var="val" itemLabel="#{val}" itemValue="#{val}" /> </p:selectOneMenu> </ui:composition> eval is a managed bean: @ManagedBean(name = "eval") @ApplicationScoped public class ELEvaluator { ... public Object evaluateAsBean(String el) { FacesContext context = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); Object bean = context.getELContext() .getELResolver().getValue(context.getELContext(), null, el); return bean; } ... }

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  • How can I disable 'output escaping' in minidom

    - by William
    I'm trying to build an xml document from scratch using xml.dom.minidom. Everything was going well until I tried to make a text node with a ® (Registered Trademark) symbol in. My objective is for when I finally hit print mydoc.toxml() this particular node will actually contain a ® symbol. First I tried: import xml.dom.minidom as mdom data = '®' which gives the rather obvious error of: File "C:\src\python\HTMLGen\test2.py", line 3 SyntaxError: Non-ASCII character '\xae' in file C:\src\python\HTMLGen\test2.py on line 3, but no encoding declared; see http://www.python.or g/peps/pep-0263.html for details I have of course also tried changing the encoding of my python script to 'utf-8' using the opening line comment method, but this didn't help. So I thought import xml.dom.minidom as mdom data = '&#174;' #Both accepted xml encodings for registered trademark data = '&reg;' text = mdom.Text() text.data = data print data print text.toxml() But because when I print text.toxml(), the ampersands are being escaped, I get this output: &reg; &amp;reg; My question is, does anybody know of a way that I can force the ampersands not to be escaped in the output, so that I can have my special character reference carry through to the XML document? Basically, for this node, I want print text.toxml() to produce output of &reg; or &#174; in a happy and cooperative way! EDIT 1: By the way, if minidom actually doesn't have this capacity, I am perfectly happy using another module that you can recommend which does. EDIT 2: As Hugh suggested, I tried using data = u'®' (while also using data # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- Python source tags). This almost helped in the sense that it actually caused the ® symbol itself to be outputted to my xml. This is actually not the result I am looking for. As you may have guessed by now (and perhaps I should have specified earlier) this xml document happens to be an HTML page, which needs to work in a browser. So having ® in the document ends up causing rubbish in the browser (® to be precise!). I also tried: data = unichr(174) text.data = data.encode('ascii','xmlcharrefreplace') print text.toxml() But of course this lead to the same origional problem where all that happens is the ampersand gets escaped by .toxml(). My ideal scenario would be some way of escaping the ampersand so that the XML printing function won't "escape" it on my behalf for the document (in other words, achieving my original goal of having &reg; or &#174; appear in the document). Seems like soon I'm going to have to resort to regular expressions! EDIT 2a: Or perhaps not. Seems like getting my html meta information correct <META http-equiv="Content-Type" Content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> could help, but I'm not sure yet how this fits in with the xml structure...

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  • XSLT: Get node where one certain value is present

    - by Kim Andersen
    Hi there I have the following XML: <data> <page id="1118"> <itms> <values> <value>1104</value> </values> </itms> </page> <page id="1177"> <itms> <values> <value>1273</value> <value>1215</value> </values> </itms> </page> </data> I need to get the @id from the < page , where a certain value is present in one of the < value -tags. The id that need to be in the < value is kept in this: $itm/@id. This means that if my $itm/@id is equal to 1273, I need to get 1177 returned. I'm not quite sure how to achieve this. Actually I could have XML that looks like this as well: <data> <page id="1118"> <itms> <values> <value>1104</value> </values> </itms> </page> <page id="1177"> <itms> <values> <value>1273</value> <value>1215</value> </values> </itms> </page> <page id="1352"> <itms> <values> <value>1242</value> <value>1273</value> </values> </itms> </page> </data> If that's the case, I need the latest id, so this means that if the $itm/@id matches values in more < page 's, then I need to grab the value from the latest page. I the above case that would be 1352. Hope this makes sense to you guys. And by the way, I work with Umbraco CMS if that does any difference. Best Regards, Kim

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  • swap a div to an embed form when user tweets using the @anywhere function box

    - by Jeff
    I'm using the @anywhere twitter function on the front page of my site (vocabbomb.com) and right now it works great to allow users to tweet straight away. Problem is, when they click tweet, it just reloads the twitter box, empty. I want it to load something new, like a "thank you, now fill in this email form" and show a mailchimp form. Ok so this is the @anywhere code currently working fine: <div id="tbox"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> twttr.anywhere(function (T) { T("#tbox").tweetBox({ height: 100, width: 400, defaultContent: " #vocabbomb", label: "Use the word foo in a tweet:", }); }); </script> So this is fine, and when the user writes a tweet, it just re-displays the twitter box. I understand there is a function that lets you specify stuff after the tweet is made: (example from http://dev.twitter.com/pages/anywhere_tweetbox) <div id="example-ontweet"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> twttr.anywhere(function (T) { T("#example-ontweet").tweetBox({ onTweet : function(plaintext, html) { console.log(plaintext); alert(html); } }); }); </script> Is this the best way to attempt this? Or do I need a function or something that changes what's in the div to something else? I want the mailchimp email form to show up after the tweet. It includes a ton of script and tags and starts like this: <!-- Begin MailChimp Signup Form --> <!--[if IE]> <style type="text/css" media="screen"> #mc_embed_signup fieldset {position: relative;} #mc_embed_signup legend {position: absolute; top: -1em; left: .2em;} </style> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7]> <style type="text/css" media="screen"> .mc-field-group {overflow:visible;} </style> <![endif]--> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.2.6/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://downloads.mailchimp.com/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://downloads.mailchimp.com/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <div id="mc_embed_signup"> <form action="http://faresharenyc.us1.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=106b58b4751a007d826715754&amp;id=2fe6ba4e6a" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank" style="font: normal 100% Arial, sans-serif;font-size: 10px;"> ... So my attempt to just require it inside the function didn't work at all: <div id="tbox"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> twttr.anywhere(function (T) { T("#tbox").tweetBox({ height: 100, width: 400, defaultContent: " #vocabbomb", label: "Use the word foo in a tweet:", onTweet: function(plain, html){ <?php require_once('mailchimp.html'); ?> } }); }); </script> Nettuts had a brief discussion here: http://net.tutsplus.com/tutorials/javascript-ajax/using-twitters-anywhere-service-in-6-steps/ I am seeing now that the 'onTweet' function simply adds some text above the twitter box, but doesn't actually replace the entire twitter box. How do I do that? Is it possible? Thanks!

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  • Why doesn't JSF 2.0 RI (Mojarra) scan my class' annotations?

    - by DWoldrich
    I have a War and Jar project in my Eclipse-based JSF project. I have decided to use annotations to declare my FacesConverter, (among a myriad other things), rather than declare it using my faces-config.xml. @FacesConverter(value="passwordFieldStringConverter") public class PasswordFieldStringConverter implements Converter { public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { try { return arg2.getBytes("UTF-16BE"); } catch(UnsupportedEncodingException uee) { Assert.impossibleException(uee); } return(null); } public String getAsString(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, Object arg2) throws ConverterException { try { return new String((byte[]) arg2, "UTF-16BE"); } catch(UnsupportedEncodingException uee) { Assert.impossibleException(uee); } return(null); } } And then I use passwordFieldStringConverter directly in my .xhtml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets" xmlns:sec="http://www.springframework.org/security/facelets/tags"> <ui:composition> <f:view> <f:loadBundle basename="landingPage.bundle" var="bundle" /> <ui:decorate template="/WEB-INF/jsf_helpers/htmlShell.xhtml"> <ui:param name="PageTitleParam" value="#{bundle.pageTitle}" /> <h:form> <h:dataTable var="rowVar" value="#{userListContainer.users}"> <f:facet name="header"><h:outputText value="Users you are currently managing:" /></f:facet> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Screen Name" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{rowVar.screenName}" /> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Password" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{rowVar.password}"> <f:converter converterId="passwordFieldStringConverter" /> </h:outputText> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:form> </ui:decorate> </f:view> </ui:composition> </html> JSF is supposed to scan the jars in my War at deployment-time and detect which classes have annotations on them (and auto-configure the application accordingly). My problem is that JSF is apparently not detecting the classes I have which sport annotations. The War project has all of my .xhtml files as well as the project's faces-config.xml, my Jar project has all of my faces related Java code (action beans, managed beans, custom converters, etc.)

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  • How to cope with developing against a poor 3rd party API/application?

    - by wsanville
    I'm a web developer, and my organization has recently started to use a proprietary ASP.NET CMS for our web sites. I was excited to get started using the CMS, thinking it would bring a lot of value to our end users and be fun to work with, since my skills are a good match for the types of projects we're using it for. That was about a year ago. Since then, we've ran into all kinds of issues, from blatant bugs in the product, to nasty edge cases in the APIs, to extremely poor documentation for developers. On about a weekly basis, we are forced to pursue workarounds and rewrite some of the out of the box functionality, and even find some of the basic features unusable. In many cases, since this is a closed source application (and obfuscated of course), there's nothing we can do as developers to solve these issues. So my question is, how does one attempt to develop a good application in such a scenario? The application mostly works when using the the exact out of the box behavior, or using one of the company's starter sites. However, my attempts to use the underlying APIs to implement slightly different, yet reasonable behavior has proved to be extremely time consuming (not to mention just as buggy), given the lack of good information about the APIs. I've given this a lot of thought, and my conflicting viewpoints are the following: Strongly advise against any customization to the CMS, as development time will rise exponentially, or even have an extremely high chance of failing. While this is accurate, I do not want to give the impression that I am not willing to code my own solutions to problems and take the initiative to implement something difficult or complex. I don't want to be perceived as someone who is not motivated, lazy, or not knowledgeable to do anything complex, because this is simply not the case. I love coding my own solutions, trying new/difficult things, I just dislike the vendor app we're using. Continue on the path I'm on now, which is hacking my way past all issues I encounter and try my best to deliver an application that meets the needs and specs exactly. My goals are to make it as seamless and easy to use as possible to the end user, even when integrating the CMS with our other applications internally. The problem I'm finding with this approach is it is very time consuming. I open support cases with the vendor on a regular basis to solve issues and to gain knowledge of their APIs, but this is extremely time consuming, and in some cases it leads to dead ends. I post on the vendors forums on a regular basis but have become frustrated as most of my posts get 0 replies. So, what would you, a reasonable developer, do in this case? How can I make the best of the situation? And just for fun, here are some of the code smells and anti-patterns I've dealt with using the product (aside from their own code blatantly failing): Use of StringBuilder to concatenate a giant string that is hard coded and does not change. They use it to concatenate their Javascript and write it out into the body tags of their pages. Methods that accept object or Microsoft.VisualBasic.Collection as the parameters. In the case of the VB Collection, the data is not a list of any kind, it's used instead of making a class. Methods that return a Hashtable of VB Collections Method names of the form MethodName_v45, MethodName_v20, etc... Multiple classes with the same name in different namespaces with different functionality/behavior. Intellisense that reads "Note: this parameter is non functional" Complete lack of coding standards, API is filled with magic numbers and magic strings. Properties with a getter of type object that accepts totally different things, like enum or strings, and throw exceptions at runtime when you pass in something not supported. And much, much, more...

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  • Why is CDATA needed and not working everywhere the same way?

    - by baptx
    In Firefox's and Chrome's consoles, this works (alerts script content): var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( function test() { var a = 1; } ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); Using this code as a Greasemonkey script for Firefox works too. Now, if want to add a "private method" do() to test() It is not working anymore, in neither Firefox/Chrome console nor in a Greasemonkey script: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( function test() { var a = 1; var do = function () { var b = 2; }; } ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); To make this work in a Greasemonkey script, I have to put all the code in a CDATA tag block: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = (<![CDATA[ function test() { var a = 1; var do = function() { var b = 2; }; } ]]>); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); This is only works in a Greasemonkey script; it throws an error from the Firefox/Chrome console. I don't understand why I should use a CDATA tag, I have no XML rules to respect here because I'm not using XHTML. To make it work in Firefox console (or Firebug), I need to do put CDATA into tags like <> and </>: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = (<><![CDATA[ function test() { var a = 1; var do = function() { var b = 2; }; } ]]></>); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); alert(document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].lastChild.textContent); This doesn't working from the Chrome console. I've tried adding .toString() at the end like many people are doing (]]></>).toString();), but it's useless. I tried to replace <> and </> with a tag name <foo> </foo> but that didn't work either. Why doesn't my first code snippet work if I define var do = function(){} inside another function? Why should I use CDATA as a workaround even if I'm not using XHTML? And why should I add <> </> for Firefox console if it's working without in a Greasemonkey script? Finally, what is the solution for Chrome and other browsers? EDIT: My bad, I've never used do-while in JS and I've created this example in a simple text editor, so I didn't see "do" was a reserved keyword :p But problem is still here, I've not initialized the Javascript class in my examples. With this new example, CDATA is needed for Greasemonkey, Firefox need CDATA between E4X <> </> and Chrome fails: var script = document.createElement("script"); script.textContent = ( <><![CDATA[var aClass = new aClass(); function aClass() { var a = 1; var aPrivateMethod = function() { var b = 2; alert(b); }; this.aPublicMethod = function() { var c = 3; alert(c); }; } aClass.aPublicMethod();]]></> ); document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0].appendChild(script); Question: why?

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  • modalpopupextender.Show() wont fire

    - by Peter Lea
    I'm pretty new to developing for the web so bare with me. I have a company page with multiple locations and emails etc at each of these addresses. The idea is to have a single modalpopup to edit each type of data (one for email, one for urls, one for addresses etc). I link the modalpopupextender to a hiddenbutton and then call an edit function from various places where I can populate some hiddenfields and textboxes in the panel before showing it. The code executes but it just wont show the damn popup, I just see a flash and can't figure out if its my panel, my css or something I don't understand about ajax and postbacks etc. Things i've tried after reading various threads: Disable smart navigation in web.config Move ToolKitScriptManager up to master page and use proxy in content set hiddenbutton to use style="display:none" tried links etc instead of hidden button Heres my code CSS .modalBackground { position: absolute; z-index: 100; top: 0px; left: 0px; background-color: #000; filter: alpha(opacity=60); -moz-opacity: 0.6; opacity: 0.6; } .modalPopup { background-color: #FFD; border-width: 3px; border-style: solid; border-color: gray; padding: 3px;} Asp/html <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender runat="server" ID="mpe_email" BackgroundCssClass="modalBackground" PopupControlID="modal_email" CancelControlID="btn_cancel_email" TargetControlID="fake_btn_email" /> <asp:Button ID="fake_btn_email" runat="server" Text="email" style="display:none;" /> <asp:panel id="modal_email" runat="server" class="modalPopup" Width="500px" Height="500px"> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_modal_email_location_id" runat="server" Value="" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_modal_email_contact_id" runat="server" Value="" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_modal_email_comms_id" runat="server" Value="" /> <table width="100%"> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="lbl_mpe_email_title" runat="server" Text="Edit Email Address" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <table width="100%"> <tr> <td width="40px"><img src="../images/email.png" height="30px" width="30px"/></td> <td> <table width="100px"> <tr> <td><span>Quick Ref: <asp:TextBox ID="txb_mpe_email_qref" runat="server" Text="" /></span></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span>Email Address: <asp:TextBox ID="txb_mpe_email_address_full" runat="server" Text="" /></span></td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="40px" align="left"><asp:Button ID="btn_cancel_email" runat="server" Text="Cancel"/></td> <td align="right"><asp:Button ID="btn_save_email" runat="server" Text="Save" OnCommand="save_modal_email" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" align="right"><asp:Label ID="lbl_mpe_email_err" runat="server" Text="" /></td> </tr> </table> c# public void oloc_ocon_email_edit(object sender, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { switch (e.CommandName) { case "edit": hf_modal_email_location_id.Value = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_location_id")).Value; hf_modal_email_contact_id.Value = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_contact_id")).Value; hf_modal_email_comms_id.Value = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_comms_id")).Value; lbl_mpe_email_title.Text = "Edit Email Address"; txb_mpe_email_qref.Text = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_qref")).Value; txb_mpe_email_address_full.Text = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_email_full")).Value; lbl_mpe_email_err.Text = ""; mpe_email.Show(); break; case "new": hf_modal_email_location_id.Value = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_location_id_p")).Value; hf_modal_email_contact_id.Value = ((HiddenField)e.Item.FindControl("hf_oloc_ocon_emails_contact_id_p")).Value; hf_modal_email_comms_id.Value = "0"; lbl_mpe_email_title.Text = "New Email Address"; txb_mpe_email_qref.Text = ""; txb_mpe_email_address_full.Text = ""; lbl_mpe_email_err.Text = ""; mpe_email.Show(); break; } } Stuff makes so much more sense in a desktop environment, I hope someone can point me in the right direction. Thanks

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  • JSF2 - Problems with Composite Components and Validatiors

    - by Shadowman
    I've created some Facelets to make developing our pages easier. Particularly, I've created a series of Facelets for input components. I have 1 Facelet, <xxx:input /> that displays a label around the input field. Beyond that, I have Facelets like <xxx:inputText /> and <xxx:inputSecret /> that render the actual input field. Each of these makes use of <xxx:input /> to display the label. The Facelet looks something like this: <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <label><h:outputText value="#{cc.attrs.labelText}" /></label> <composite:insertChildren /> </composite:implementation> </html> The <xxx:inputText /> Facelet would then look like this... <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <xxx:input labelText=...> <h:inputText id="myinput" ... /> </xxx:input> </composite:implementation> </html> Everything renders just fine, but I am having troubles when trying to add <f:validator /> or other validation tags. From what I've read, I have to add a tag to my Facelet. So, I added <composite:editableValueHolder name="myinput" targets="myinput" /> line in the interface section. However, I still do not see my validator being fired. I have something like this in my .xhtml file... ... <xxx:inputText value="..."> <f:validateLength minimum="10" /> </xxx:inputText> ... Regardless of the input I enter, the validator never seems to fire and I never get an error message. A coworker suggested that it is due to the target ID I am using and the fact that it is wrapped by the <xxx:input /> Facelet. Do I need to incorporate the parent component ID in my target definition? Is there something else that I'm missing? It works just fine if I exclude the <xxx:input /> Facelet, so I'm assuming it's something related to that, but don't know how to solve it. Any help you can provide is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • jQuery $.ajax response empty, but only in Chrome

    - by roguepixel
    I've exhausted every avenue of research to solve this one so hopefully someone else will think of something I just didn't. Relatively straight forward setup, I have a html page with some javascript that makes an ajax request to a URL (in the same domain) the java web app in the background does its stuff and returns a partial html page (no html, head or body tags, just the content) which should be inserted at a particular point in the page. All sounds pretty easy and the code I have works in IE, Firefox and Safari, but not in Chrome. In Chrome the target element just ends up empty and if I look at the resource request in Chromes developer tools the response content is also empty. All very confusing, I've tried a myriad of things to solve it and I'm just out of ideas. Any help would be greatly appreciated. var container = $('#container'); $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/path/to/local/url', data: data('parameters=value&another=value2'), dataType: 'html', cache: false, beforeSend: requestBefore, complete: requestComplete, success: requestSuccess, error: requestError }); function data(parameters) { var dictionary = {}; var pairs = parameters.split('&'); for (var i = 0; i < pairs.length; i++) { var keyValuePair = pairs[i].split('='); dictionary[keyValuePair[0]] = keyValuePair[1]; } return dictionary; } function requestBefore() { container.find('.message.error').hide(); container.prepend('<div class="modal"><div class="indicator">Loading...</div></div>'); } function requestComplete() { container.find('.modal').remove(); } function requestSuccess(response) { container.empty(); container.html(response); } function requestError(response) { if (response.status == 200 && response.responseText == 'OK') { requestSuccess(response); } else { container.find('.message.error').fadeIn('slow'); } } All of this is executed in a $(document).ready(function() {}); Cheers, Jim @Oleg - Additional information requested, an example of the response that the ajax call might receive. <p class="message error hidden">An unknown error occured while trying to retrieve data, please try again shortly.</p> <div class="timeline"> <a class="icon shuttle-previous" rel="max_id=16470650733&page=1&q=something">Newer Data</a> <a class="icon shuttle-next" rel="max_id=16470650733&page=3&q=something">Older Data</a> </div> <ol class="social"> <li class="even"> <div class="avatar"> <img src="sphere_normal.gif"/> </div> <p> Some Content<br/> <span class="published">Jun 18, 2010 11:29:05 AM</span> - <a target="_blank" href="">Direct Link</a> </p> </li> <li class="odd"> <div class="avatar"> <img src="sphere_normal.gif"/> </div> <p> Some Content<br/> <span class="published">Jun 18, 2010 11:29:05 AM</span> - <a target="_blank" href="">Direct Link</a> </p> </li> </ol> <div class="timeline"> <a class="icon shuttle-previous" rel="max_id=16470650733&page=1&q=something">Newer Data</a> <a class="icon shuttle-next" rel="max_id=16470650733&page=3&q=something">Older Data</a> </div>

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  • How to find specific value of the node in xml file

    - by user2735149
    I am making windows phone 8 app based the webservices. This is my xml code: - <response> <timestamp>2013-10-31T08:30:56Z</timestamp> <resultsOffset>0</resultsOffset> <status>success</status> <resultsLimit>8</resultsLimit> <resultsCount>38</resultsCount> - <headlines> - <headlinesItem> <headline>City edge past Toon</headline> <keywords /> <lastModified>2013-10-30T23:45:22Z</lastModified> <audio /> <premium>false</premium> + <links> - <api> - <news> <href>http://api.espn.com/v1/sports/news/1600444?region=GB</href> </news> </api> - <web> <href>http://espnfc.com/uk/en/report/381799/city-edge-toon?ex_cid=espnapi_public</href> </web> - <mobile> <href>http://m.espn.go.com/soccer/gamecast?gameId=381799&lang=EN&ex_cid=espnapi_public</href> </mobile> </links> <type>snReport</type> <related /> <id>1600444</id> <story>Alvardo Negredo and Edin Dzeko struck in extra-time to book Manchester City's place in the last eight of the Capital One Cup, while Costel Pantilimon kept a clean sheet in the 2-0 win to keep the pressure on Joe Hart. </story> <linkText>Newcastle 0-2 Man City</linkText> - <images> - <imagesItem> <height>360</height> <alt>Man City celebrate after Edin Dzeko scored their second extra-time goal at Newcastle.</alt> <width>640</width> <name>Man City celeb Edin Dzeko goal v nufc 20131030 [640x360]</name> <caption>Man City celebrate after Edin Dzeko scored their second extra-time goal at Newcastle.</caption> <type>inline</type> <url>http://espnfc.com/design05/images/2013/1030/mancitycelebedindzekogoalvnufc20131030_640x360.jpg</url> </imagesItem> </images> Code behind: myData = XDocument.Parse(e.Result, LoadOptions.None); var data = myData.Descendants("headlines").FirstOrDefault(); var data1 = from query in myData.Descendants("headlinesItem") select new UpdataNews { News = (string)query.Element("headline").Value, Desc = (string)query.Element("description"), Newsurl = (string)query.Element("links").Element("mobile").Element("href"), Imageurl=(string)query.Element("images").Element("imagesItem").Element("url").Value, }; lstShow.ItemsSource = data1; I am trying to get value from xml tags and assign them to News,Desc, etc. Everything works fine except Imageurl, it shows NullException. I tried same method for Imageurl, i dont know whats going wrong. Help..

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  • @OneToMany association joining on the wrong field

    - by april26
    I have 2 tables, devices which contains a list of devices and dev_tags, which contains a list of asset tags for these devices. The tables join on dev_serial_num, which is the primary key of neither table. The devices are unique on their ip_address field and they have a primary key identified by dev_id. The devices "age out" after 2 weeks. Therefore, the same piece of hardware can show up more than once in devices. I mention that to explain why there is a OneToMany relationship between dev_tags and devices where it seems that this should be a OneToOne relationship. So I have my 2 entities @Entity @Table(name = "dev_tags") public class DevTags implements Serializable { private Integer tagId; private String devTagId; private String devSerialNum; private List<Devices> devices; @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "tag_id") public Integer getTagId() { return tagId; } public void setTagId(Integer tagId) { this.tagId = tagId; } @Column(name="dev_tag_id") public String getDevTagId() { return devTagId; } public void setDevTagId(String devTagId) { this.devTagId = devTagId; } @Column(name="dev_serial_num") public String getDevSerialNum() { return devSerialNum; } public void setDevSerialNum(String devSerialNum) { this.devSerialNum = devSerialNum; } @OneToMany(mappedBy="devSerialNum") public List<Devices> getDevices() { return devices; } public void setDevices(List<Devices> devices) { this.devices = devices; } } and this one public class Devices implements java.io.Serializable { private Integer devId; private Integer officeId; private String devSerialNum; private String devPlatform; private String devName; private OfficeView officeView; private DevTags devTag; public Devices() { } @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = IDENTITY) @Column(name = "dev_id", unique = true, nullable = false) public Integer getDevId() { return this.devId; } public void setDevId(Integer devId) { this.devId = devId; } @Column(name = "office_id", nullable = false, insertable=false, updatable=false) public Integer getOfficeId() { return this.officeId; } public void setOfficeId(Integer officeId) { this.officeId = officeId; } @Column(name = "dev_serial_num", nullable = false, length = 64, insertable=false, updatable=false) @NotNull @Length(max = 64) public String getDevSerialNum() { return this.devSerialNum; } public void setDevSerialNum(String devSerialNum) { this.devSerialNum = devSerialNum; } @Column(name = "dev_platform", nullable = false, length = 64) @NotNull @Length(max = 64) public String getDevPlatform() { return this.devPlatform; } public void setDevPlatform(String devPlatform) { this.devPlatform = devPlatform; } @Column(name = "dev_name") public String getDevName() { return devName; } public void setDevName(String devName) { this.devName = devName; } @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "office_id") public OfficeView getOfficeView() { return officeView; } public void setOfficeView(OfficeView officeView) { this.officeView = officeView; } @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name="dev_serial_num") public DevTags getDevTag() { return devTag; } public void setDevTag(DevTags devTag) { this.devTag = devTag; } } I messed around a lot with @JoinColumn(name=) and the mappedBy attribute of @OneToMany and I just cannot get this right. I finally got the darn thing to compile, but the query is still trying to join devices.dev_serial_num to dev_tags.tag_id, the @Id for this entity. Here is the transcript from the console: 13:12:16,970 INFO [STDOUT] Hibernate: select devices0_.office_id as office5_2_, devices0_.dev_id as dev1_2_, devices0_.dev_id as dev1_156_1_, devices0_.dev_name as dev2_156_1_, devices0_.dev_platform as dev3_156_1_, devices0_.dev_serial_num as dev4_156_1_, devices0_.office_id as office5_156_1_, devtags1_.tag_id as tag1_157_0_, devtags1_.comment as comment157_0_, devtags1_.dev_serial_num as dev3_157_0_, devtags1_.dev_tag_id as dev4_157_0_ from ond.devices devices0_ left outer join ond.dev_tags devtags1_ on devices0_.dev_serial_num=devtags1_.tag_id where devices0_.office_id=? 13:12:16,970 INFO [IntegerType] could not read column value from result set: dev4_156_1_; Invalid value for getInt() - 'FDO1129Y2U4' 13:12:16,970 WARN [JDBCExceptionReporter] SQL Error: 0, SQLState: S1009 13:12:16,970 ERROR [JDBCExceptionReporter] Invalid value for getInt() - 'FDO1129Y2U4' That value for getInt() 'FD01129Y2U4' is a serial number, definitely not an Int! What am I missing/misunderstanding here? Can I join 2 tables on any fields I want or does at least one have to be a primary key?

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  • Agile: User Stories for Machine Learning Project?

    - by benjismith
    I've just finished up with a prototype implementation of a supervised learning algorithm, automatically assigning categorical tags to all the items in our company database (roughly 5 million items). The results look good, and I've been given the go-ahead to plan the production implementation project. I've done this kind of work before, so I know how the functional components of the software. I need a collection of web crawlers to fetch data. I need to extract features from the crawled documents. Those documents need to be segregated into a "training set" and a "classification set", and feature-vectors need to be extracted from each document. Those feature vectors are self-organized into clusters, and the clusters are passed through a series of rebalancing operations. Etc etc etc etc. So I put together a plan, with about 30 unique development/deployment tasks, each with time estimates. The first stage of development -- ignoring some advanced features that we'd like to have in the long-term, but aren't high enough priority to make it into the development schedule yet -- is slated for about two months worth of work. (Keep in mind that I already have a working prototype, so the final implementation is significantly simpler than if the project was starting from scratch.) My manager said the plan looked good to him, but he asked if I could reorganize the tasks into user stories, for a few reasons: (1) our project management software is totally organized around user stories; (2) all of our scheduling is based on fitting entire user stories into sprints, rather than individually scheduling tasks; (3) other teams -- like the web developers -- have made great use of agile methodologies, and they've benefited from modelling all the software features as user stories. So I created a user story at the top level of the project: As a user of the system, I want to search for items by category, so that I can easily find the most relevant items within a huge, complex database. Or maybe a better top-level story for this feature would be: As a content editor, I want to automatically create categorical designations for the items in our database, so that customers can easily find high-value data within our huge, complex database. But that's not the real problem. The tricky part, for me, is figuring out how to create subordinate user stories for the rest of the machine learning architecture. Case in point... I know that the algorithm requires two major architectural subdivisions: (A) training, and (B) classification. And I know that the training portion of the architecture requires construction of a cluster-space. All the Agile Development literature I've read seems to indicate that a user story should be the "smallest possible implementation that provides any business value". And that makes a lot of sense when designing a piece of end-user software. Start small, and then incrementally add value when users demand additional functionality. But a cluster-space, in and of itself, provides zero business value. Nor does a crawler, or a feature-extractor. There's no business value (not for the end-user, or for any of the roles internal to the company) in a partial system. A trained cluster-space is only possible with the crawler and feature extractor, and only relevant if we also develop an accompanying classifier. I suppose it would be possible to create user stories where the subordinate components of the system act as the users in the stories: As a supervised-learning cluster-space construction routine, I want to consume data from a feature extractor, so that I can exist. But that seems really weird. What benefit does it provide me as the developer (or our users, or any other stakeholders, for that matter) to model my user stories like that? Although the main story can be easily divided along architectural-component boundaries (crawler, trainer, classifier, etc), I can't think of any useful decomposition from a user's perspective. What do you guys think? How do you plan Agile user stories for sophisticated, indivisible, non-user-facing components?

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  • Facelet components layouts and javascript

    - by Java Drinker
    Hi all, I have a question regarding the placement of javascript within facelet components. This is more regarding best practice/style than a programming issue, but I feel like all the solutions I have thought of have been hacks at best. Ok here is my scenario: I have a facelet template like so (my faces, and apache Trinidad)... <ui:composition> <f:view locale="#{myLocale}"> <ui:insert name="messageBundles" /><!--Here we add load bundle tags--> <tr:document mode="strict" styleClass="coolStyleDoc"> <f:facet name="metaContainer"> <!--This trinidad defined facet is added to HTML head--> <tr:group> <!-- blah bal my own styles and js common to all --> <ui:insert name="metaData" /> </tr:group> </f:facet> <tr:form usesUpload="#{empty usesUpload ? 'false' : usesUpload}"> <div id="formTemplateHeader"> <ui:insert name="contentHeader" /> </div> <div id="formTemplateContentContainer"> <div id="formTemplateContent"> <ui:insert name="contentBody" /> </div> </div> <div id="formTemplateFooter"> <ui:insert name="contentFooter"> </ui:insert> </div> </tr:form> <!-- etc...---> Now, a facelet that wants to use this template would look like the following: <ui:composition template="/path/to/my/template.jspx"> <ui:define name="bundles"> <custom:loadBundle basename="messagesStuff" var="bundle" /> </ui:define> <ui:define name="metaData"> <script> <!-- cool javascript stuff goes here--> </script> </ui:define> <ui:define name="contentHeader"> <!-- MY HEADING!--> </ui:define> <ui:define name="contentBody"> <!-- MY Body!--> </ui:define> <ui:define name="contentFooter"> <!-- Copyright/footer stuff!--> </ui:define> </ui:composition> All this works quite well, but the problem I have is when I want to use a facelet component inside this page. If the facelet component has its own javascript code (jQuery stuff etc), how can I make it so that that javascript code is included in the header section of the generated html? Any help would be appreciated. Please let me know if this is not clear or something... thanks in advance

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  • Multiset of shared_ptrs as a dynamic priority queue: Concept and practice

    - by Sarah
    I was using a vector-based priority queue typedef std::priority_queue< Event, vector< Event >, std::greater< Event > > EventPQ; to manage my Event objects. Now my simulation has to be able to find and delete certain Event objects not at the top of the queue. I'd like to know if my planned work-around can do what I need it to, and if I have the syntax right. I'd also like to know if dramatically better solutions exist. My plan is to make EventPQ a multiset of smart pointers to Event objects: typedef std::multi_set< boost::shared_ptr< Event > > EventPQ; I'm borrowing functions of the Event class from a related post on a multimap priority queue. // Event.h #include <cstdlib> using namespace std; #include <set> #include <boost/shared_ptr.hpp> class Event; typedef std::multi_set< boost::shared_ptr< Event > > EventPQ; class Event { public: Event( double t, int eid, int hid ); ~Event(); void add( EventPQ& q ); void remove(); bool operator < ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time < rhs.time ); } bool operator > ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time > rhs.time ); } double time; int eventID; int hostID; EventPQ* mq; EventPQ::iterator mIt; }; // Event.cpp Event::Event( double t, int eid, int hid ) { time = t; eventID = eid; hostID = hid; } Event::~Event() {} void Event::add( EventPQ& q ) { mq = &q; mIt = q.insert( boost::shared_ptr<Event>(this) ); } void Event::remove() { mq.erase( mIt ); mq = 0; mIt = EventPQ::iterator(); } I was hoping that by making EventPQ a container of pointers, I could avoid wasting time copying Events into the container and avoid accidentally editing the wrong copy. Would it be dramatically easier to store the Events themselves in EventPQ instead? Does it make more sense to remove the time keys from Event objects and use them instead as keys in a multimap? Assuming the current implementation seems okay, my questions are: Do I need to specify how to sort on the pointers, rather than the objects, or does the multiset automatically know to sort on the objects pointed to? If I have a shared_ptr ptr1 to an Event that also has a pointer in the EventPQ container, how do I find and delete the corresponding pointer in EventPQ? Is it enough to .find( ptr1 ), or do I instead have to find by the key (time)? Is the Event::remove() sufficient for removing the pointer in the EventPQ container? There's a small chance multiple events could be created with the same time (obviously implied in the use of multiset). If the find() works on event times, to avoid accidentally deleting the wrong event, I was planning to throw in a further check on eventID and hostID. Does this seem reasonable? (Dumb syntax question) In Event.h, is the declaration of dummy class Event;, then the EventPQ typedef, and then the real class Event declaration appropriate? I'm obviously an inexperienced programmer with very spotty background--this isn't for homework. Would love suggestions and explanations. Please let me know if any part of this is confusing. Thanks.

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  • WCF - Define multiple services in a single APP.Config file?

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have a windows forms application. I want to use two different WCF Services that are in no way connected. HOWEVER, I'm not sure how to go about defining the services in my APP.CONFIG file. From what I have read, it is possible to do what I have done below, but I cannot be sure that the syntax is correct or the tags are all present where necessary and I needed some clarification. Question. So is the below the correct way to setup two services in A SINGLE APP.CONFIG FILE? I.E: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service> <!--SERVICE ONE--> <endpoint> </endpoint> <binding> </binding> </service> <service> <!--SERVICE TWO--> <endpoint> </endpoint> <binding> </binding> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> CODE <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <!--SERVICE ONE--> <service> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="tcpServiceEndPoint" contract="ListenerService.IListenerService" name="tcpServiceEndPoint" /> <binding name="tcpServiceEndPoint" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:05:00" enabled="true" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </service> <!--SERVICE TWO--> <service> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="UploadObjects.IResponseService" bindingConfiguration="TransactedBinding" name="UploadObjects.ResponseService"/> <binding name="TransactedBinding"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> EDIT What do the BEHAVIOURS represent? How do they relate to the service definitions?

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  • I want to use blur function instead mouseup function

    - by yossi
    I have the Demo Table which I can click on the cell(td tag) and I can change the value on it.direct php DataBase. to do that I need to contain two tags.1 - span. 2 - input. like the below. <td class='Name'> <span id="spanName1" class="text" style="display: inline;"> Somevalue </span> <input type="text" value="Somevalue" class="edittd" id="inputName1" style="display: none; "> </td> to control on the data inside the cell I use in jquery .mouseup function. mouseup work but also make truble. I need to replace it with blur function but when I try to replace mouseup with blur the program thas not work becose, when I click on the cell I able to enter the input tag and I can change the value but I can't Successful to Leave the tag/field by clicking out side the table, which alow me to update the DataBase you can see that Demo with blur Here. what you advice me to do? $(".edittd").mouseup(function() { return false; }); //************* $(document).mouseup(function() { $('#span' + COLUME + ROW).show(); $('#input'+ COLUME + ROW ).hide(); VAL = $("#input" + COLUME + ROW).val(); $("#span" + COLUME + ROW).html(VAL); if(STATUS != VAL){ //******ajax code //dataString = $.trim(this.value); $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: 'html', url: "./public/php/ajax.php", data: 'COLUME='+COLUME+'&ROW='+ROW+'&VAL='+VAL, //{"dataString": dataString} cache: false, success: function(data) { $("#statuS").html(data); } }); //******end ajax $('#statuS').removeClass('statuSnoChange') .addClass('statuSChange'); $('#statuS').html('THERE IS CHANGE'); $('#tables').load('TableEdit2.php'); } else { //alert(DATASTRING+'status not true'); } });//End mouseup function I change it to: $(document).ready(function() { var COLUMES,COLUME,VALUE,VAL,ROWS,ROW,STATUS,DATASTRING; $('td').click(function() { COLUME = $(this).attr('class'); }); //**************** $('tr').click(function() { ROW = $(this).attr('id'); $('#display_Colume_Raw').html(COLUME+ROW); $('#span' + COLUME + ROW).hide(); $('#input'+ COLUME + ROW ).show(); STATUS = $("#input" + COLUME + ROW).val(); }); //******************** $(document).blur(function() { $('#span' + COLUME + ROW).show(); $('#input'+ COLUME + ROW ).hide(); VAL = $("#input" + COLUME + ROW).val(); $("#span" + COLUME + ROW).html(VAL); if(STATUS != VAL){ //******ajax code //dataString = $.trim(this.value); $.ajax({ type: "POST", dataType: 'html', url: "./public/php/ajax.php", data: 'COLUME='+COLUME+'&ROW='+ROW+'&VAL='+VAL, //{"dataString": dataString} cache: false, success: function(data) { $("#statuS").html(data); } }); //******end ajax $('#statuS').removeClass('statuSnoChange') .addClass('statuSChange'); $('#statuS').html('THERE IS CHANGE'); $('#tables').load('TableEdit2.php'); } else { //alert(DATASTRING+'status not true'); } });//End mouseup function $('#save').click (function(){ var input1,input2,input3,input4=""; input1 = $('#input1').attr('value'); input2 = $('#input2').attr('value'); input3 = $('#input3').attr('value'); input4 = $('#input4').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "./public/php/ajax.php", data: "input1="+ input1 +"&input2="+ input2 +"&input3="+ input3 +"&input4="+ input4, success: function(data){ $("#statuS").html(data); $('#tbl').hide(function(){$('div.success').fadeIn();}); $('#tables').load('TableEdit2.php'); } }); }); }); Thx

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  • php soapclient returns null but getPreviousResults has proper results

    - by Joseph.Chambers
    I've ran into trouble with SOAP, I've never had this issue before and can't find any information on line that helps me solve it. The following code $wsdl = "path/to/my/wsdl"; $client = new SoapClient($wsdl, array('trace' => true)); //$$textinput is passed in and is a very large string with rows in <item></item> tags $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); var_dump($res);//outputs null var_dump($response);//provides the proper response as I would expect. I've tried passing params into the SoapClient constructor to define soap version but that didnt' help. I've also tried it with the trace param set to false and not present which as expected made $response null but $res was still null. I've tried the code on both a linux and windows install running Apache. The function definition in the WSDL is (xxxx is for security reasons) <portType name="xxxxServiceSoap"> <operation name="dataprofilingservice"> <input message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapIn"/> <output message="tns:dataprofilingserviceSoapOut"/> </operation> </portType> I have it working using the __getLastResponse() but its annoying me it will not work properly. I've put together a small testing script, does anyone see any issues here. //very simplifed dataset that would normally be //read in from a CSV file of about 1mb $soapInput = getSoapInput("asdf,qwer\r\nzzxvc,ewrwe\r\n23424,2113"); $wsdl = "path to wsdl"; try { $client = new SoapClient($wsdl,array('trace' => true,'exceptions' => true)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } try { $res = $client->dataprofilingservice(array("contents" => $soapInput)); $response = $client->__getLastResponse(); echo htmlentities($client->__getLastRequest()); echo '<hr>'; var_dump($res); echo "<hr>"; echo(htmlentities($response)); } catch (SoapFault $fault) { $error = 1; var_dump($fault); } function getSoapInput($input){ $rows = array(); $userInputs = explode("\r\n", $input); $userInputs = array_filter($userInputs); // $inputTemplate = " <contents>%s</contents>"; $rowTemplate = "<Item>%s</Item>"; // $soapString = ""; foreach ($userInputs as $row) { // sanitize $row = htmlspecialchars(addslashes($row)); $xmlStr = sprintf($rowTemplate, $row); $rows[] = $xmlStr; } $textinput = sprintf($inputTemplate, implode(PHP_EOL, $rows)); $soapInput = new SoapVar($textinput, XSD_ANYXML); return $soapInput; }

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  • How to concatenate the contents of all children of a node in XPath?

    - by Brian
    Is it possible with XPath to get a concatenated view of all of the children of a node? I am looking for something like the JQuery .html() method. For example, if I have the following XML: <h3 class="title"> <span class="content">this</span> <span class="content"> is</span> <span class="content"> some</span> <span class="content"> text</span> </h3> I would like an XPath query on "h3[@class='title']" that would give me "this is some text". That is the real question, but if more context/background is helpful, here it is: I am using XPath and I used this post to help me write some complex XSL. My source XML looks like this. <h3 class="title">Title</h3> <p> <span class="content">Some</span> <span class="content"> text</span> <span class="content"> for</span> <span class="content"> this</span> <span class="content"> section</span> </p> <p> <span class="content">Another</span> <span class="content"> paragraph</span> </p> <h3 class="title"> <span class="content">Title</span> <span class="content"> 2</span> <span class="content"> is</span> <span class="content"> complex</span> </h3> <p> <span class="content">Here</span> <span class="content"> is</span> <span class="content"> some</span> <span class="content"> text</span> </p> My output XML considers each <h3> as well as all <p> tags until the next <h3>. I wrote the XSL as follows: <xsl:template match="h3[@class='title']"> ... <xsl:apply-templates select="following-sibling::p[ generate-id(preceding-sibling::h3[1][@class='title'][text()=current()/text()]) = generate-id(current()) ]"/> ... </xsl:template> The problem is that I use the text() method to identify h3s that are the same. In the example above, the "Title 2 is complex" title's text() method returns whitespace. My thought was to use a method like JQuery's .html that would return me "Title 2 is complex"

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  • iOS: Interpreted code - where do they draw the line?

    - by d7samurai
    Apple's iOS developer guidelines state: 3.3.2 — An Application may not itself install or launch other executable code by any means, including without limitation through the use of a plug-in architecture, calling other frameworks, other APIs or otherwise. No interpreted code may be downloaded or used in an Application except for code that is interpreted and run by Apple’s Documented APIs and built-in interpreter(s). Assuming that downloading data - like XML and images (or a game level description), for example - at run-time is allowed (as is my impression), I am wondering where they draw the line between "data" and "code". Picture the scenario of an app that delivers interactive "presentations" to users (like a survey, for instance). Presentations are added continuously to the server and different presentations are made available to different users, so they cannot be part of the initial app download (this is the whole point). They are described in XML format, but being interactive, they might contain conditional branching of this sort (shown in pseudo form to exemplify): <options id="Gender"> <option value="1">Male</option> <option value="2">Female</option> </options> <branches id="Gender"> <branch value="1"> <image src="Man" /> </branch> <branch value="2"> <image src="Woman" /> </branch> </branches> When the presentation is "played" within the app, the above would be presented in two steps. First a selection screen where the user can click on either of the two choices presented ("Male" or "Female"). Next, an image will be [downloaded dynamically] and displayed based on the choice made in the previous step. Now, it's easy to imagine additional tags describing further logic still. For example, a containing tag could be added: <loop count="3"> <options... /> <branches... /> </loop> The result here being that the selection screen / image screen pair would be sequentially presented three times over, of course. Or imagine some description of a level in a game. It's easy to view that as passive "data", but if it includes, say, several doorways that the user can go through and with various triggers, traps and points attached to them etc - isn't that the same as using a script - or, indeed, interpreted code - to describe options and their conditional responses? Assuming that the interpretation engine for this XML data is already present in the app and that such presentations can only be consumed (not created or edited) in the app, how would this fare against Apple's iOS guidelines? Doesn't XML basically constitute a scripting language (couldn't any interpreted programming language simply be described by XML) in this sense? Would it be OK if the proprietary scripting language (ref the XML used above) was strictly sandboxed (how can they tell?) and not given access to the operating system in any way (but able to download content dynamically - and upload results to the authoring server)? Where does the line go?

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