Search Results

Search found 43800 results on 1752 pages for 'drupal domain access'.

Page 31/1752 | < Previous Page | 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38  | Next Page >

  • nginx rewrite rule for using domain host to redirect to specific internal directory

    - by user85836
    I'm new to Nginx rewrites and looking for help in getting a working and minimal rewrite code. We would like to use urls like 'somecity.domain.com' on campaign materials and have the result go to city-specific content within the 'www' site. So, here are use cases, if the customer enters: www.domain.com (stays) www.domain.com domain.com (goes to) www.domain.com www.domain.com/someuri (stays the same) somecity.domain.com (no uri, goes to) www.domain.com/somecity/prelaunch somecity.domain.com/landing (goes to) www.domain.com/somecity/prelaunch somecity.domain.com/anyotheruri (goes to) www.domain.com/anyotheruri Here's what I've come up with so far, and it partially works. What I can't understand is how to check if there is no path/uri after the host, and I'm guessing there is probably a way better way to do this. if ($host ~* ^(.*?)\.domain\.com) { set $city $1;} if ($city ~* www) { break; } if ($city !~* www) { rewrite ^/landing http://www.domain.com/$city/prelaunch/$args permanent; rewrite (.*) http://www.domain.com$uri$args permanent; }

    Read the article

  • Domain without hosting - possible to redirect with DNS?

    - by Tomas
    Hi, I have a domain (A) without webhosting and I have different domain with hosting (B). I have no experience with that but I guess it should be possible to redirect DNS with A directly to B. In domain administration there is a possibility to change AAAA DNS or ctname and some other settings. Thank you for your help

    Read the article

  • EC2 server in VPC stops responding after joining domain

    - by Geoff
    We have a EC2 Windows Server set up and running in our VPC, connected to our network via a Juniper 5GT. This is working well, with the tunnel up and stable. If I then join the server to our local domain, it appears to work - I can then log on using domain credentials, and use domain accounts when applying security to folders etc. After I log out, if I give it around an hour, the box becomes unresponsive. I can't ping it, although a tracert goes all the way barring the last hop - so the tunnel is ok. I can't RDP into it. If I reboot it, then it works for a while before doing the same thing. Un-joining it from the domain fixes the problem, and it stays up and stable. The event logs don't show anything obvious, at least to me. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to get all IPs of a domain?

    - by DenMark
    How can I get all IPs of a domain name, say, www.google.com? Of course, nslookup and host command will give me IPs of a domain. But what shall I do if I want a list ALL (or, at least a lot more than just one or two..) IPs of that domain?

    Read the article

  • Single machine domain with Windows 7 OS

    - by Robert Koritnik
    Is it possible to setup one single machine with Windows 7 x64 OS and somehow make it work as if it's part of a certain domain? So domain controller would be simulated in some way? I would like to avoid VMs and make it actually work on one machine with non server OS. Is there even a simpler way of doing it? Why: I have to setup development environment for Sharepoint 2010 and it will make my life much easier if my machine would be part of a domain.

    Read the article

  • Can't ping IPs for devices not part of Windows Domain

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have a home network with a Trendnet wireless router and a Windows Domain. The DNS server is on a Windows 2000 Server and is configured to forward queries to DNS servers provided by the ISP. The router provides DHCP and is configured with the Windows 2000 Server as the DNS server. When I connect iPhones to the network over WiFi, the router can ping the iPhones through its browser based admin interface, but Windows machines that are part of the Windows Domain cannot. A laptop was connected to the network over WiFi that wasn't joined to the domain and it could see the iPhones. All machines either have a fixed or DHCP allocated IP on the 192.168.0.* subnet. How do I configure the DNS server or the Windows Domain so that Windows machines can see the iPhones?

    Read the article

  • Cross domain LDAP

    - by Adam
    For a system we are developing we have 2 domains an internal and an external domain with bi directional trust between them. However the servers are only able to connect to their own DC's. We have an application server on the internal domain which needs to use an LDAP query to gather a list of users from a group on the external domain. How do i go about writing an LDAP query that asks one DC to go ask another DC for a list of users. I tried querying the internal DC with the same LDAP query I would use if it could hit the external DC directly but this does not work. When i use Softerra LDAP Administraor I can view the full hierarchy of the interal domain but despite the trust relationship between domains i am unable to see any of the external doamin. Any suggestions or help would be greatly appreciated

    Read the article

  • When RDP as a Domain User, Smart Card Requested

    - by Paul
    My W8 machine is connected to domain zen. If I rdp to the W8 machine, I can log in as a local user without problems. If I try to log in as a domain user, I am prompted for a smart card instead of a password. Any ideas why? Note that Interactive login: require smart card is disabled in group policy: And here is the output from rsop.msc: Some additional information on this one. If my connecting machine is on the same domain/network as the W8 machine, then I am prompted for a password as usual. If the machine is remote, on a different domain, then I am prompted for a smart card. In addition, the machine I am connecting from that gets the smartcard prompt is an XP box. I haven't isolated exactly which of these factors triggers the different response.

    Read the article

  • caches domain user on local PC

    - by user630320
    We have a fully working domain in UK and around the world we have user who use VPN ( checkpoint) to connect to or domain. One of the user in USA has a laptop which he never logged on to before ( it does caches the user login details). Does anyone know how to cache user login information on this laptop. I have tried netdom trust to add this user to the laptop but i was not able to do this. At the moment user is logging in with a local administrator account and then using VPN to log on to our domain but when it comes to accessing files on domain user get access deieded. When user try to login it gets There are currently no log on servers available to service the logon request Does anyone know how to add user.

    Read the article

  • Tips for Domain Name Management?

    - by bofe
    Expired domain names = downtime for websites. Downtime = bad. How does your organization make sure domain names have been renewed? I believe ICANN requires registrars to give a notice at 60 days and 30 days, but these can easily get ignored -- especially with a large amount of domains. Does your solution work for a large amount of domain names? ( 100) Is it registrar specific?

    Read the article

  • Domain Hosting, DNS/NS Management [closed]

    - by ledy
    What criteria do you have for choosing the right provider for registering a domain? (not hosting, only the domain) So far, I can only see the different pricing and features of the DNS manager but have no idea what I have to pay attention in addition to this. How to know about the quality of the provider's nameserver and could there be differences in speed concerns. Background: The hosting itself incl. webspace, server etc. is separate from the domain and I am not going to book the domain with the same hoster as the webspace/server hoster.

    Read the article

  • one domain name, two servers

    - by MarcoKotrotsos
    Goodmorning. Because my client wants to keep an old server (running php-fusion) running under the same domain name as a new server (running Drupal) I have a question. Is this possible? And most importantly how would I do this?? The old server URL structure is like projectname.domain.com and the new server's URL structure is domain.com/projectname. Is this possible? To run these two servers side by side, on the same domain name- but with a different URL structure? Thank you Marco

    Read the article

  • A unique identifier for a Domain

    - by jchoover
    I asked a question over on StackOverflow and was directed to ask a related one here to see if I could get any additional input. Basically, I am looking to have my application aware of what domain it's running under, if any at all. (I want to expose certain debugging facilities only in house, and due to our deployment model it isn't possible to have a different build.) Since I am over paranoid, I didn't want to just rely on the domain name to ensure we are in house. As such I noted the DOMAIN_CONTROLLER_INFO (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms675912(v=vs.85).aspx ) returned from DsGetDcName (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms675983(v=vs.85).aspx) has a GUID associated with it, however I can find little if any information on it. I am assuming this GUID is generated at the time the first DC in a domain is created, and that it would live on for the life of the domain. Does anyone else have any inner knowledge and would be kind enough to confirm or deny my assumptions?

    Read the article

  • We are moving an Access based corporate front-end into a Web-based App

    - by Max Vernon
    We have an enterprise application with a front end written in Microsoft Access 2003 that has evolved over the past 6 years. The back end data, and a fair amount of back-end logic is contained within several Microsoft SQL Server databases. This front end app consists of around 180 forms, and over 120,000 lines of code, and interacts with VB.Net DLLs that support various critical functions used by our sales force. The current system makes use of 3 monitors to display various information; the Access app uses COM+ to control Microsoft Outlook and Internet Explorer for various purposes. The Access front end sometimes occupies 2 screens, automatically resizing itself based on Windows API-reported screen dimensions. The app also uses a Google map to present data to our agents, and allows two-way interactivity with the map through COM+ connectivity to JavaScript contained in the Google map. At the urging of senior management, we are looking to completely rewrite this application using some web-based technology, such as ASP.Net or perhaps a LAMP stack (the thinking with the LAMP stack thing is "free" is pretty cheap). We want to move to a web-based app so we can eliminate the dependency on our physical location for hiring new sales force members. Currently, our main office is full to capacity, and we need to continue growing the company. Does anyone have any thoughts on what would be the best technology to use for a web-based app of this magnitude? Keeping in mind the app is dependent on back-end services on our existing infrastructure. The app handles financial data and personal customer data, among other things. [I've looked at Best practices for moving large MS Access application towards .Net? and read the answers, and most of the comments. Interesting reading, and has some valid points, but our C.O.O. and contracted Software Architect are pushing for a full web-based app, not a .Net Windows App]

    Read the article

  • jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

    - by vr3690
    Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Drupal 6: Creating "ON/OFF News Links" functionality for a block created with View Module.

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie who needs some advice... I have a news list block at homepage, created with View Module. It is listing all added news' title and link. Everything is cool so far. Now I need to add an ON/OFF option at admin side for homepage news block. When the setting is ON, it will work as it is. When it is OFF, only the titles will be listed with no linking to news detail page. So, now where should I add this ON/OFF option? I have only add/edit/delete pages for each news, there is no common news page to add such option. Should I create an admin page with such ON/OFF option in? Also I think I need to create a db table to keep this ON/OFF status. and controlling this value at homepage block, if it is 1 or 0, and displaying links according to db value :/ it looks too long way Create db table Create an page with ON/OFF option in add php codes to update db for admin's choice get the db value in homepage block to display links, etc. is there any shorter, better way to do what I need? Appreciate helps so much!!! Thanks a lot!!

    Read the article

  • Drupal 7: How can I create a key/value field(or field group, if that's even possible)?

    - by Su'
    Let's say I'm creating some app documentation. In creating a content type for functions, I have a text field for name, a box for a general description, and a couple other basic things. Now I need something for storing arguments to the function. Ideally, I'd like to input these as key-value pairs, or just two related fields, which can then be repeated as many times as needed for the given function. But I can't find any way to accomplish this. The closest I've gotten is an abandonded field multigroup module that says to wait for CCK3, which hasn't even produced an alpha yet as far as I can tell and whose project page makes no obvious mention of this multi-group functionality. I also checked the CCK issue queue and don't think I saw it in there, either. Is there a current viable way of doing this I'm not seeing? Viable includes "you're thinking of this the wrong way and do X instead." I've considered using a "Long text and summary" field, but that smells hackish and I don't know if I'd be setting myself up for side-effects. I'm new to Drupal.

    Read the article

  • Domain Validation in a CQRS architecture

    - by Jupaol
    Basically I want to know if there is a better way to validate my domain entities. This is how I am planning to do it but I would like your opinion The first approach I considered was: class Customer : EntityBase<Customer> { public void ChangeEmail(string email) { if(string.IsNullOrWhitespace(email)) throw new DomainException(“...”); if(!email.IsEmail()) throw new DomainException(); if(email.Contains(“@mailinator.com”)) throw new DomainException(); } } I actually do not like this validation because even when I am encapsulating the validation logic in the correct entity, this is violating the Open/Close principle (Open for extension but Close for modification) and I have found that violating this principle, code maintenance becomes a real pain when the application grows up in complexity. Why? Because domain rules change more often than we would like to admit, and if the rules are hidden and embedded in an entity like this, they are hard to test, hard to read, hard to maintain but the real reason why I do not like this approach is: if the validation rules change, I have to come and edit my domain entity. This has been a really simple example but in RL the validation could be more complex So following the philosophy of Udi Dahan, making roles explicit, and the recommendation from Eric Evans in the blue book, the next try was to implement the specification pattern, something like this class EmailDomainIsAllowedSpecification : IDomainSpecification<Customer> { private INotAllowedEmailDomainsResolver invalidEmailDomainsResolver; public bool IsSatisfiedBy(Customer customer) { return !this.invalidEmailDomainsResolver.GetInvalidEmailDomains().Contains(customer.Email); } } But then I realize that in order to follow this approach I had to mutate my entities first in order to pass the value being valdiated, in this case the email, but mutating them would cause my domain events being fired which I wouldn’t like to happen until the new email is valid So after considering these approaches, I came out with this one, since I am going to implement a CQRS architecture: class EmailDomainIsAllowedValidator : IDomainInvariantValidator<Customer, ChangeEmailCommand> { public void IsValid(Customer entity, ChangeEmailCommand command) { if(!command.Email.HasValidDomain()) throw new DomainException(“...”); } } Well that’s the main idea, the entity is passed to the validator in case we need some value from the entity to perform the validation, the command contains the data coming from the user and since the validators are considered injectable objects they could have external dependencies injected if the validation requires it. Now the dilemma, I am happy with a design like this because my validation is encapsulated in individual objects which brings many advantages: easy unit test, easy to maintain, domain invariants are explicitly expressed using the Ubiquitous Language, easy to extend, validation logic is centralized and validators can be used together to enforce complex domain rules. And even when I know I am placing the validation of my entities outside of them (You could argue a code smell - Anemic Domain) but I think the trade-off is acceptable But there is one thing that I have not figured out how to implement it in a clean way. How should I use this components... Since they will be injected, they won’t fit naturally inside my domain entities, so basically I see two options: Pass the validators to each method of my entity Validate my objects externally (from the command handler) I am not happy with the option 1 so I would explain how I would do it with the option 2 class ChangeEmailCommandHandler : ICommandHandler<ChangeEmailCommand> { public void Execute(ChangeEmailCommand command) { private IEnumerable<IDomainInvariantValidator> validators; // here I would get the validators required for this command injected, and in here I would validate them, something like this using (var t = this.unitOfWork.BeginTransaction()) { var customer = this.unitOfWork.Get<Customer>(command.CustomerId); this.validators.ForEach(x =. x.IsValid(customer, command)); // here I know the command is valid // the call to ChangeEmail will fire domain events as needed customer.ChangeEmail(command.Email); t.Commit(); } } } Well this is it. Can you give me your thoughts about this or share your experiences with Domain entities validation EDIT I think it is not clear from my question, but the real problem is: Hiding the domain rules has serious implications in the future maintainability of the application, and also domain rules change often during the life-cycle of the app. Hence implementing them with this in mind would let us extend them easily. Now imagine in the future a rules engine is implemented, if the rules are encapsulated outside of the domain entities, this change would be easier to implement

    Read the article

  • Check if access table exists

    - by HasanGursoy
    I want to log web site visits' IP, datetime, client and refferer data to access database but I'm planning to log every days log data in separate tables in example logs for 06.06.2010 will be logged in 2010_06_06 named table. When date is changed I'll create a table named 2010_06_07. But the problem is if this table is already created. Any suggestions how to check if table exists in Access?

    Read the article

  • Retrieve list of indexes in an Access database

    - by waanders
    I know there's a way to get a list of all tables in an Access database by using the quering the MsysObjects: "SELECT MSysObjects.Name FROM MsysObjects WHERE (Left$([Name],1)<'~') AND (Left$([Name],4)<'Msys') AND (MSysObjects.Type)=1 ORDER BY MSysObjects.Name" Does anybody know a similar (or other) way to retrieve a list of all indexes in an MS-Access database?

    Read the article

  • Get Autonumber from newly inserted record in Access 2007 using Enterprise Library 4.1

    - by silverCORE
    It's been ages since I last used Access as a back end but I'm being forced to. I'm using Enterprise Library 4.1, the Data Access Application Block.. with .NET 3.5 and I wanted to know the best way (code sample if possible) to write an insert query that will automatically give me the newly inserted auto-number back..or if it's not possible to do it in one step, how do you recommend doing it? thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Create Directory for records in MS Access 2007

    - by glinch
    Hi there, Is it possible to create a directory folder for individual records in Access 2007. For example tblUser ID firstName surName When adding a record, would create a folder C:\userdatabase\Surname,firstName,ID Could see this being useful in situations for example where a large amount of images/files would need to be associated with a record. Access would create and link to a directory for each record. Thanks in advance for any advice Noel

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38  | Next Page >