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  • What happens at control invoke function?

    - by user65909
    A question about form controls invoke function. Control1 is created on thread1. If you want to update something in Control1 from thread2 you must do something like: delegate void SetTextCallback(string txt); void setText(string txt) { if (this.textBox1.InvokeRequired) { SetTextCallback d = new SetTextCallback(setText); this.Invoke(d, new object[] { txt }); } else { // this will run on thread1 even when called from thread2 this.textBox1.AppendText(msg); } }` What happens behind the scenes here? This invoke behaves different from a normal object invoke. When you want to call a function in an object on a specific thread, then that thread must be waiting on some queue of delegates, and execute the incoming delegates. Is it correct that the windows forms control invoke function is completely different from the standard object invoke function?

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  • Anonymous function vs. separate named function for initialization in jquery

    - by Martin N.
    We just had some controversial discussion and I would like to see your opinions on the issue: Let's say we have some code that is used to initialize things when a page is loaded and it looks like this: function initStuff() { ...} ... $(document).ready(initStuff); The initStuff function is only called from the third line of the snippet. Never again. Now I would say: Usually people put this into an anonymous callback like that: $(document).ready(function() { //Body of initStuff }); because having the function in a dedicated location in the code is not really helping with readability, because with the call on ready() makes it obvious, that this code is initialization stuff. Would you agree or disagree with that decision? And why? Thank you very much for your opinion!

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  • JS closures - Passing a function to a child, how should the shared object be accessed

    - by slicedtoad
    I have a design and am wondering what the appropriate way to access variables is. I'll demonstrate with this example since I can't seem to describe it better than the title. Term is an object representing a bunch of time data (a repeating duration of time defined by a bunch of attributes) Term has some print functionality but does not implement the print functions itself, rather they are passed in as anonymous functions by the parent. This would be similar to how shaders can be passed to a renderer rather than defined by the renderer. A container (let's call it Box) has a Schedule object that can understand and use Term objects. Box creates Term objects and passes them to Schedule as required. Box also defines the print functions stored in Term. A print function usually takes an argument and uses it to return a string based on that argument and Term's internal data. Sometime the print function could also use data stored in Schedule, though. I'm calling this data shared. So, the question is, what is the best way to access this shared data. I have a lot of options since JS has closures and I'm not familiar enough to know if I should be using them or avoiding them in this case. Options: Create a local "reference" (term used lightly) to the shared data (data is not a primitive) when defining the print function by accessing the shared data through Schedule from Box. Example: var schedule = function(){ var sched = Schedule(); var t1 = Term( function(x){ // Term.print() return (x + sched.data).format(); }); }; Bind it to Term explicitly. (Pass it in Term's constructor or something). Or bind it in Sched after Box passes it. And then access it as an attribute of Term. Pass it in at the same time x is passed to the print function, (from sched). This is the most familiar way for my but it doesn't feel right given JS's closure ability. Do something weird like bind some context and arguments to print. I'm hoping the correct answer isn't purely subjective. If it is, then I guess the answer is just "do whatever works". But I feel like there are some significant differences between the approaches that could have a large impact when stretched beyond my small example.

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  • run .profile function as cron job

    - by Don
    In the .profile file of the root user I have defined a function, e.g. function printDate() { date } I want to run this function every minute and append the output to cron.log. I tried adding the following crontab entry: * * * * * printDate > $HOME/cron.log 2>&1 But it doesn't work. The cron.log file gets created, but it's empty. I guess this is because the .profile isn't read by cron, so any functions/aliases defined therein are unavailable to it. So I tried changing the crontab entry to: * * * * * source $HOME/.profile;printDate >> $HOME/cron.log 2>&1 But this doesn't work either. It seems cron still doesn't have access to the printDate function because I see the following in cron.log /bin/sh: printDate: not found

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  • Best Method of function parameter validation

    - by Aglystas
    I've been dabbling with the idea of creating my own CMS for the experience and because it would be fun to run my website off my own code base. One of the decisions I keep coming back to is how best to validate incoming parameters for functions. This is mostly in reference to simple data types since object validation would be quite a bit more complex. At first I debated creating a naming convention that would contain information about what the parameters should be, (int, string, bool, etc) then I also figured I could create options to validate against. But then in every function I still need to run some sort of parameter validation that parses the parameter name to determine what the value can be then validate against it, granted this would be handled by passing the list of parameters to function but that still needs to happen and one of my goals is to remove the parameter validation from the function itself so that you can only have the actual function code that accomplishes the intended task without the additional code for validation. Is there any good way of handling this, or is it so low level that typically parameter validation is just done at the start of the function call anyway, so I should stick with doing that.

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  • How to write comments to explain the "why" behind the callback function when the function and parameter names are insufficient for that?

    - by snowmantw
    How should I approach writing comments for callback functions? I want to explain the "why" behind the function when the function and parameter names are insufficient to explain what's going on. I have always wonder why comments like this can be so ordinary in documents of libraries in dynamic languages: /** * cb: callback // where's the arguments & effects? */ func foo( cb ) Maybe the common attitude is "you can look into source code on your own after all" which pushes people into leaving minimalist comments like this. But it seems like there should be a better way to comment callback functions. I've tried to comment callbacks in Haskell way: /** * cb: Int -> Char */ func foo(cb) And to be fair, it's usually neat enough. But it gets into trouble when I need to pass some complex structure. The problem being partly due to the lack of type system: /** * cb: Int -> { err: String -> (), success: () -> Char } // too long... */ func foo(cb) Or I have tried this too: /** * cb: Int -> { err: String -> (), * success: () -> Char } // better ? */ func bar(cb) The problem is that you may put the structure in somewhere else, but you must give it a name to reference it. But then when you name a structure you're about to use immediately looks so redundant: // Somewhere else... // ResultCallback: { err: String -> (), success: () -> Char } /** * cb: Int -> ResultCallback // better ?? */ func foo(cb) And it bothers me if I follow the Java-doc like commenting style since it still seems incomplete. The comments don't tell you anything that you couldn't immediately see from looking at the function. /** * @param cb {Function} yeah, it's a function, but you told me nothing about it... * @param err {Function} where should I put this callback's argument ?? * Not to mention the err's own arguments... */ func foo(cb) These examples are JavaScript like with generic functions and parameter names, but I've encountered similar problems in other dynamic languages which allow complex callbacks.

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  • Generating scala AST for recursive method.

    - by scout
    I am generating the scala AST using the following code: val setting = new Settings(error) val reporter = new ConsoleReporter(setting, in, out) { override def displayPrompt = () } val compiler = new Global(setting, reporter) with ASTExtractor{ override def onlyPresentation = true } //setting.PhasesSetting("parser", "parserPhase") val run = new compiler.Run val sourceFiles:List[String] = List("Test.scala") run.compile(sourceFiles.toList) I guess this is the standard code used to run the compiler in the code and generate the AST to work with. The above code worked fine for any valid scala code in Test.scala till now. When I use a recursive function in Test.scala, like def xMethod(x:Int):Int = if(x == 0) -1 else xMethod(x-1) It gives me a java.lang.NullPointerException. The top few lines of the stack trace look like this at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.checkNoDoubleDefsAndAddSynthetics$1(Typers.scala:2170) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typedStats(Typers.scala:2196) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typedBlock(Typers.scala:1951) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed1(Typers.scala:3815) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed(Typers.scala:4124) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed(Typers.scala:4177) at scala.tools.nsc.transform.TailCalls$TailCallElimination.transform(TailCalls.scala:199) The code works fine for a method like def aMethod(c:Int):Int = { bMethod(c) } def bMethod(x:Int):Int = aMethod(x) Please let me know if recursive functions need any other setting.

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  • Linked list recursive reverse

    - by Phoenix
    I was looking at the code below from stanford library: void recursiveReverse(struct node** head_ref) { struct node* first; struct node* rest; /* empty list */ if (*head_ref == NULL) return; /* suppose first = {1, 2, 3}, rest = {2, 3} */ first = *head_ref; rest = first->next; /* List has only one node */ if (rest == NULL) return; /* put the first element on the end of the list */ recursiveReverse(&rest); first->next->next = first; /* tricky step -- see the diagram */ first->next = NULL; /* fix the head pointer */ *head_ref = rest; } What I don't understand is in the last recursive step for e.g if list is 1-2-3-4 Now for the last recursive step first will be 1 and rest will be 2. So if you set *head_ref = rest .. that makes the head of the list 2 ?? Can someone please explain how after reversing the head of the list becomes 4 ??

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  • How to recursive rake? -- or suitable alternatives

    - by TerryP
    I want my projects top level Rakefile to build things using rakefiles deeper in the tree; i.e. the top level rakefile says how to build the project (big picture) and the lower level ones build a specific module (local picture). There is of course a shared set of configuration for the minute details of doing that whenever it can be shared between tasks: so it is mostly about keeping the descriptions of what needs building, as close to the sources being built. E.g. /Source/Module/code.foo and cie should be built using the instructions in /Source/Module/Rakefile; and /Rakefile understands the dependencies between modules. I don't care if it uses multiple rake processes (ala recursive make), or just creates separate build environments. Either way it should be self-containable enough to be processed by a queue: so that non-dependent modules could be built simultaneously. The problem is, how the heck do you actually do something like that with Rake!? I haven't been able to find anything meaningful on the Internet, nor in the documentation. I tried creating a new Rake::Application object and setting it up, but whatever methods I try invoking, only exceptions or "Don't know how to build task ':default'" errors get thrown. (Yes, all rakefiles have a :default). Obviously one could just execute 'rake' in a sub directory for a :modulename task, but that would ditch the options given to the top level; e.g. think of $(MAKE) and $(MAKEFLAGS). Anyone have a clue on how to properly do something like a recursive rake?

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  • "Phased" execution of functions in javascript

    - by FK82
    Hey there! This is my first post on stackoverflow, so please don't flame me too hard if I come across like a total nitwit or if I'm unable ot make myself perfectly clear. :-) Here's my problem: I'm trying to write a javascript function that "ties" two functions to another by checking the first one's completion and then executing the second one. The easy solution to this obviously would be to write a meta function that calls both functions within it's scope. However, if the first function is asynchronous (specifically an AJAX call) and the second function requires the first one's result data, that simply won't work. My idea for a solution was to give the first function a "flag", i.e. making it create a public property "this.trigger" (initialized as "0", set to "1" upon completion) once it is called; doing that should make it possible for another function to check the flag for its value ([0,1]). If the condition is met ("trigger == 1") the second function should get called. The following is an abstract example code that I have used for testing: <script type="text/javascript" > /**/function cllFnc(tgt) { //!! first function this.trigger = 0 ; var trigger = this.trigger ; var _tgt = document.getElementById(tgt) ; //!! changes the color of the target div to signalize the function's execution _tgt.style.background = '#66f' ; alert('Calling! ...') ; setTimeout(function() { //!! in place of an AJAX call, duration 5000ms trigger = 1 ; },5000) ; } /**/function rcvFnc(tgt) { //!! second function that should get called upon the first function's completion var _tgt = document.getElementById(tgt) ; //!! changes color of the target div to signalize the function's execution _tgt.style.background = '#f63' ; alert('... Someone picked up!') ; } /**/function callCheck(obj) { //alert(obj.trigger ) ; //!! correctly returns initial "0" if(obj.trigger == 1) { //!! here's the problem: trigger never receives change from function on success and thus function two never fires alert('trigger is one') ; return true ; } else if(obj.trigger == 0) { return false ; } } /**/function tieExc(fncA,fncB,prms) { if(fncA == 'cllFnc') { var objA = new cllFnc(prms) ; alert(typeof objA + '\n' + objA.trigger) ; //!! returns expected values "object" and "0" } //room for more case definitions var myItv = window.setInterval(function() { document.getElementById(prms).innerHTML = new Date() ; //!! displays date in target div to signalize the interval increments var myCallCheck = new callCheck(objA) ; if( myCallCheck == true ) { if(fncB == 'rcvFnc') { var objB = new rcvFnc(prms) ; } //room for more case definitions window.clearInterval(myItv) ; } else if( myCallCheck == false ) { return ; } },500) ; } </script> The HTML part for testing: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd > <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- see above --> </script> <title> Test page </title> </head> <body> <!-- !! testing area --> <div id='target' style='float:left ; height:6em ; width:8em ; padding:0.1em 0 0 0; font-size:5em ; text-align:center ; font-weight:bold ; color:#eee ; background:#fff;border:0.1em solid #555 ; -webkit-border-radius:0.5em ;' > Test Div </div> <div style="float:left;" > <input type="button" value="tie calls" onmousedown="tieExc('cllFnc','rcvFnc','target') ;" /> </div> <body> </html> I'm pretty sure that this is some issue with javascript scope as I have checked whether the trigger gets set to "1" correctly and it does. Very likely the "checkCall()" function does not receive the updated object but instead only checks its old instance which obviously never flags completion by setting "this.trigger" to "1". If so I don't know how to address that issue. Anyway, hope someone has an idea or experience with this particular kind of problem. Thanks for reading! FK

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  • Append <ul> and <li> in recursive loop

    - by Batman
    I have a site collection. I was told I need a recursive loop to do this. This is what I've tried: When the site loads, call getSiteTree() which passes the top level website to my getSubSite() function. From there I check if there are any subsites. I have a boolean but I'm not really using it for anything yet, I've just seen it used before for this type of work. Anyways, from there I check if there are any sub sits, if not I log the end of the branch, if there are, I call the function again using the new url and repeat the process. Looking at my console, it seems to work as intended. function getSiteTree(){ var tree = $('#treeviewList'); var rootsite = window.location.protocol + "//" + window.location.hostname; var siteEnd = false; getSubSite(rootsite); } function getSubSite(url){ $().SPServices({ operation: "GetWebCollection", webURL: url, async: true, completefunc: function(xData, Status) { var siteUrl; var siteCount = $(xData.responseXML).find("Web").length; if(siteCount == 0){ console.log("end of branch"); siteEnd = true; }else{ $(xData.responseXML).find("Web").each(function() { siteUrl = $(this).attr("Url"); console.log(siteUrl); getSubSite(siteUrl); }); } } }); } My questions: now that I have my sites, I need to take those sites and create something like this but I'm not sure how to accomplish this. <li>Site 1 <ul> <li>sub 1.1</li> <li>sub 1.2</li> <li>sub 1.3</li> <ul> <li>1.3.1</li> </ul> <li>sub 1.4</li> <li>sub 1.5</li> </ul> </li> <li>Site 2 <ul> <li>sub 2.1</li> <li>sub 2.2</li> <li>sub 2.3</li> <ul> <li>2.3.1</li> <li>2.3.2</li> </ul> </ul> </li> </ul> I have this inital html: <div id="treeviewDiv" style="width:200px;height:150px;overflow:scroll"> <ui id="treeviewList"></ui> </div>

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  • Can a function return an object? Objective-C and NSMutableArray

    - by seaworthy
    I have an NSMutableArray. It's members eventually become members of an array instance in a class. I want to put the instantiantion of NSMutable into a function and to return an array object. If I can do this, I can make some of my code easier to read. Is this possible? Here is what I am trying to figure out. //Definition: > function Objects (float a, float b) { > NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:a]]; > [array addObject:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:b]]; > //[release array]; ???????? return array; > } //Declaration: Math *operator = [[Math alloc] init]; [operator findSum:Objects(20.0,30.0)]; My code compiles if I instantiate NSMutableArray right before I send the message to the receiver. I know I can have an array argument along with the method. What I have problem seeing is how to use a function and to replace the argument with a function call. Any help is appreciated. I am interested in the concept not in suggestions to replace the findSum method.

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  • PL/PGSQL function, having trouble accessing a returned result set from psycopg2...

    - by Paul
    I have this pl/pgsql function: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_result(id integer) RETURNS SETOF my_table AS $ DECLARE result_set my_table%ROWTYPE; BEGIN IF id=0 THEN SELECT INTO result_set my_table_id, my_table_value FROM my_table; ELSE SELECT INTO result_set my_table_id, my_table_value FROM my_table WHERE my_table_id=id; END IF; RETURN; END; $ LANGUAGE plpgsql; I am trying to use this with Python's psycopg2 library. Here is the python code: import psycopg2 as pg conn = pg.connect(host='myhost', database='mydatabase', user='user', password='passwd') cur = conn.cursor() return cur.execute("SELECT * FROM get_result(0);") # returns NoneType However, if i just do the regular query, I get the correct set of rows back: ... return cur.execute("SELECT my_table_id, my_table_value FROM mytable;") # returns iterable result set Theres obviously something wrong with my pl/pgsql function, but I can't seem to get it right. I also tried using RETURN result_set; instead of just RETURN in the 10th line of my plpgsql function, but got an error from postgres.

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  • How do I create a good evaluation function for a new board game?

    - by A. Rex
    I write programs to play board game variants sometimes. The basic strategy is standard alpha-beta pruning or similar searches, sometimes augmented by the usual approaches to endgames or openings. I've mostly played around with chess variants, so when it comes time to pick my evaluation function, I use a basic chess evaluation function. However, now I am writing a program to play a completely new board game. How do I choose a good or even decent evaluation function? The main challenges are that the same pieces are always on the board, so a usual material function won't change based on position, and the game has been played less than a thousand times or so, so humans don't necessarily play it enough well yet to give insight. (PS. I considered a MoGo approach, but random games aren't likely to terminate.) Any ideas? Game details: The game is played on a 10-by-10 board with a fixed six pieces per side. The pieces have certain movement rules, and interact in certain ways, but no piece is ever captured. The goal of the game is to have enough of your pieces in certain special squares on the board. The goal of the computer program is to provide a player which is competitive with or better than current human players.

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • How to access a variable outside a function in Javascript

    - by Luke101
    Here is the code I am working with: $(document).ready(function () { var TemplateEditor = function () { var GroupClassName = 'group'; var SelectedGroup = 0; var BindClicks = function () { $('.CriteriaSelections').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup($(this))) { TemplateEditor.GroupClicked(); } else { TemplateEditor.CriteriaClicked($(this), SelectedGroup); } }); $('.groupselected').unbind('click').click(function (event) { event.preventDefault(); SelectedGroup = $(this).attr('group-'.length); TemplateEditor.SelectGroup(SelectedGroup); }); } var fnGetGroupID = function (Obj) { if (fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup(Obj) == true) { return null; } else { //Get parent which is the group var ObjParent = Obj.parent(); var GID = ObjParent.attr('id').substr('group-'.length); return GID; } } var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } return { Init: function () { BindClicks(); }, CriteriaClicked: function (Obj, GroupID) { $('<div>').attr({ id: '' }).addClass('selection').text(Obj).appendTo('#group-' + GroupID); }, GroupClicked: function () { }, SelectGroupClicked: function () { }, UpdateTargetPanel: function () { } }; } (); TemplateEditor.Init(); }); I am trying to access this variable: GroupClassName This variable is inside this function var fnIsTheClickedBoxaGroup = function (Obj) { var GetClass = Obj.attr('class'); if (GetClass == GroupClassName) { return true; } else { return false; } } When I run the program it says GroupClassName is undefined. Am I missing something here?

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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • "Recursive" Wildcard DNS for Amazon Route 53

    - by Brian
    The title of the question might be misleading because I'm not an expert and I'm trying to learn the proper terminology. That being said, I'm wondering if it's possible to setup a wildcard DNS record for any number of dot separation in domain names and have them all point to the network root. This is for WordPress multisite, users will have the option of choosing a mapped domain name, I want to configure my DNS so that both mysite.co.uk.network.com and mysite.com.network.com are valid (I realize this is a but ugly, but WordPress multisite requires that each site have a unique site_url and I'd prefer to preserve the period-delimited appearance if it's possible).

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  • Recursive reset file permissions on Windows

    - by Peter Horvath
    There is a big, complex directory structure on a relative big NTFS partition. Somebody managed to put very bad security privileges onto it - there are directories with randomly given/denied permissions, etc. I already run into permission bugs multiple times, and I found insecure permission settings multiple times (for example, write permissions for "Everyone", or false owners). I don't have time to check everything by hand (it is big). But luckily, my wishes are very simple. The most common: read/write/execute on anything for me, and maybe read for Everyone. Is it possible to somehow remove all security data from a directory and giving my (simple) wishes to overwrite everything there? On Unix, I used a chown -R ..., chmod -R ... command sequence. What is its equivalent on Windows?

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  • PowerDNS 3+ - Recursive queries for subdomains

    - by PDNS Troubles
    We are trying to find functionality in the PDNS 3.x that existed in PDNS < 2.9.2.5. Whereby if we have a domain in the database backend with records, if a query is unable to resolve a subdomain it would then query the recursor setup in the pdns.conf file. We have found that on Centos 6.x the rpm packages are the latest verison of pdns where by 5.x available was pdns-2.9.22-4.el5. The pdns-2.9.22-4.el5 package works as expected but when upgrading servers to Centos 6.x we loose this required functionality. pdns-backend-mysql-2.9.22-4.el5.rpm fails to install on Centos 6.x due to mysql libs that aren't availble, this is caused by an upgrade in the mysql version whereby the pdns backend mysql requires older mysql libs then what is available on centos 6.x . Installing from source is also troublesome with the following errors - http://pastebin.com/B5cUuD08

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  • Recursive Batch File

    - by MCZ
    I have a file that looks this: head1,head2,head3,head4,head5,head6 a11,a12,keyA,a14,a15,a16 a21,a22,keyB,a24,a25 a31,a32,keyC,a34 a41,a42,keyB,a44,a44 a51,a52,keyA,a54,a55,a56 a61,a62,keyA,a64,a65,a66 a71,a72,keyC,a74 some message Objective: Write list of unique keys to a text file. For example, the result for the file described above should be: keyA, keyB, keyC Here's the pseudocode I would like to implement in batch file recur.bat Read second line of inputfile If no key exist on second line, return else continue Append keyX to list FINDSTR /v keyX inputfile Pipe results to recur.bat I don't know if this is the most efficient way to do this without using actual programming language. Any suggestions for actual batch file code?

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  • In Windows, a batch file with a recursive for loop and a file name including blanks

    - by uvts_cvs
    Hello, I have a folder tree, like this (it's only an example, it will be deeper in my real case): C:\test | +---folder1 | foo bar.txt | foobar.txt | +---folder2 | foo bar.txt | foobar.txt | \---folder3 foo bar.txt foobar.txt My files have one or more spaces in the name and I need to perform a command on them, so I am interested in foo bar.txt but not in foobar.txt. I tried (inside a batch file): for /r test %%f in (foo bar.txt) do if exist %%f echo %%f where the command is the simple echo. It does not work because the space is skipped and I get no output. This works but it is not what I need: for /r test %%f in (foobar.txt) do if exist %%f echo %%f It prints: C:\test\folder1\foobar.txt C:\test\folder2\foobar.txt C:\test\folder3\foobar.txt I tried using the quotation mark (") but it does not work: for /r test %%f in ("foo bar.txt") do if exist %%f echo %%f It does not work because the quotation mark is still included in the output: C:\test\folder1\"foo bar.txt" C:\test\folder2\"foo bar.txt" C:\test\folder3\"foo bar.txt"

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  • bind: blackhole for invalid recursive queries?

    - by Udo G
    I have a name server that's publicly accessible since it is the authoritative name server for a couple of domains. Currently the server is flooded with faked type ANY requests for isc.org, ripe.net and similar (that's a known distributed DoS attack). The server runs BIND and has allow-recursion set to my LAN so that these requests are rejected. In such cases the server responds just with authority and additional sections referring the root servers. Can I configure BIND so that it completely ignores these requests, without sending a response at all?

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