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  • How can I copy a SQL record which has related records in other tables to the same database?

    - by DerekVS
    Hi. I created a function in C# which allows me to copy a record and its related children to a new record and new related children in the same database. (This is for an application that allows the use of previous work as a template for new work.) Anyway, it works great... Here's a description of how it accomplishes the copy: It populates a two-column memory-based look-up table with the current primary key of each record. Next, as it individually creates each new copy record, it updates the look-up table with the Identity PK of the new record [retrieved from SCOPE_IDENTITY()]. Now, when it copies over any related children, it can look up the new parent PK to set the FK on the new record. In testing, it only took a minute to copy a relational structure on a local instance of SQL Server 2005 Express Edition. Unfortunately it is proving to be horribly slow in production! My users are dealing with 60,000+ records per parent record over the LAN to our SQL Server! While my copy function still works, each of those records represents an individual SQL UPDATE command and it loads the SQL Server at about 17% CPU from its normal 2% idle. I just finished testing a 50,000 record copy and it took almost 20 minutes! Is there a way to duplicate this functionality in SQL queries or stored procecures to make the SQL server do all of the copy work instead of blasting it over the LAN from each client? (We're running Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition.) Thanks! -Derek

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  • Full JSON-RPC specifications

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I'm going to implement JSON-PRC web service. I need specifications for this. So far I had found only one resource that can be called as real specifications: JSON-RPC 1.0 http://json-rpc.org/wiki/specification Proposal of JSON-PRC 2.0: http://groups.google.com/group/json-rpc/web/json-rpc-2-0 (why is it on google groups?) However I've seen that JavaScript frameworks like Dojo actively use JSON-RPC SMD Service Mapping Description proposal But it requires JSON Schema specifications, but it redirects to incorrect URL as reference. So far I had found following: http://tools.ietf.org/html/draft-zyp-json-schema-02 And it is still draft... Can anybody point me to spome actual specifications... At least something official updated? Because it looks like that implementing JSON-RPC 1.0 and 2.0 would not be enought, at least for frameworks like Dojo. Or am I wrong? Questions: Is it enough to implement JSON-RPC 1.0 specifications and 2.0 draft to be on safe side, would this work for most JSON-RPC clients? If I should implement SMD, or it is recommended can somebody point to official specifications of Json Schema and Service Mapping Description or links I found are really "specifications?" Note: do not suggest existing JSON-RPC service implementations.

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  • EclEmma JAVA Code coverage - Unable to coverage service layer of RESTful Webservice

    - by Radhika
    I am using EMMA eclipse plugin to generate code coverage reports. My application is a RESTFul webservice. Junits are written such that a client is created for the webservice and invoked with various inputs. However EMMA shows 0% coverage for the source folder. The test folder alone is covered. The application server(jetty server) is started using a main method. Report: Element Coverage Covered Instructions Total Instructions MyRestFulService 13.6% 900 11846 src 0.5% 49 10412 test 98% 1021 1434 Junit Test method: @Test public final void testAddFlow() throws Exception { Client c = Client.create(); WebResource webResource = c.resource(BASE_URI); // Sample files for Add String xhtmlDocument = null; Iterator iter = mapOfAddFiles.entrySet().iterator(); while (iter.hasNext()) { Map.Entry pairs = (Map.Entry) iter.next(); try { document = helper.readFile(requestPath + pairs.getKey()); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* POST */ MultiPart multiPart = new MultiPart(); multiPart.bodyPart(.... ........... ClientResponse response = webResource.path("/add").type( MEDIATYPE_MULTIPART_MIXED).post(ClientResponse.class, multiPart); assertEquals("TESTING ADD FOR >>>>>>> " + pairs.getKey(), Status.OK, response.getClientResponseStatus()); } } } Invoked service method: @POST @Path("add") @Consumes("multipart/mixed") public Response add(MultiPart multiPart) throws Exception { Status status = null; List<BodyPart> bodyParts = null; bodyParts = multiPart.getBodyParts(); status = //call to business layer return Response.ok(status).build(); }

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  • Development Environment in a VM against an isolated development/test network

    - by bart
    I currently work in an organization that forces all software development to be done inside a VM. This is for a variety of risk/governance/security/compliance reasons. The standard setup is something like: VMWare image given to devs with tools installed VM is customized to suit project/stream needs VM sits in a network & domain that is isolated from the live/production network SCM connectivity is only possible through dev/test network Email and office tools need to be on live network so this means having two separate desktops going at once Heavyweight dev tools in use on VMs so they are very resource hungry Some problems that people complain about are: Development environment runs slower than normal (host OS is windows XP so memory is limited) Switching between DEV machine and Email/Office machine is a pain, simple things like cut and paste are made harder. This is less efficient from a usability perspective. Mouse in particular doesn't seem to work properly using VMWare player or RDP. Need a separate login to Dev/Test network/domain Has anyone seen or worked in other (hopefully better) setups to this that have similar constraints (as mentioned at the top)? In particular are there viable options that would remove the need for running stuff in a VM altogether?

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  • Spring Test / JUnit problem - unable to load application context

    - by HDave
    I am using Spring for the first time and must be doing something wrong. I have a project with several Bean implementations and now I am trying to create a test class with Spring Test and JUnit. I am trying to use Spring Test to inject a customized bean into the test class. Here is my test-applicationContext.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="............."> <bean id="MyUuidFactory" class="com.myapp.UuidFactory" scope="singleton" > <property name="typeIdentifier" value="CLS" /> </bean> <bean id="ThingyImplTest" class="com.myapp.ThingyImplTest" scope="singleton"> <property name="uuidFactory"> <idref local="MyUuidFactory" /> </property> </bean> </beans> The injection of MyUuidFactory instance goes along with the following code from within the test class: private UuidFactory uuidFactory; public void setUuidFactory(UuidFactory uuidFactory) { this.uuidFactory = uuidFactory; } However, when I go to run the test (in Eclipse or command line) I get the following error (stack trace omitted for brevity): Caused by: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'MyImplTest' defined in class path resource [test-applicationContext.xml]: Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.ConversionNotSupportedException: Failed to convert property value of type 'java.lang.String' to required type 'com.myapp.UuidFactory' for property 'uuidFactory'; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type [com.myapp.UuidFactory] for property 'uuidFactory': no matching editors or conversion strategy found Funny thing is, the Eclipse/Spring XML editor shows errors of I misspell any of the types or idrefs. If I leave the bean in, but comment out the dependency injection, everything work until I get a NullPointerException while running the test...which makes sense.

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  • how to rethrow same exception in sql server

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to rethrow same exception in sql server that has been occured in my try block. I am able to throw same message but i want to throw same error. BEGIN TRANSACTION BEGIN TRY INSERT INTO Tags.tblDomain (DomainName, SubDomainId, DomainCode, Description) VALUES(@DomainName, @SubDomainId, @DomainCode, @Description) COMMIT TRANSACTION END TRY BEGIN CATCH declare @severity int; declare @state int; select @severity=error_severity(), @state=error_state(); RAISERROR(@@Error,@ErrorSeverity,@state); ROLLBACK TRANSACTION END CATCH RAISERROR(@@Error, @ErrorSeverity, @state); This line will show error, but i want functionality something like that. This raises error with error number 50000, but i want erron number to be thrown that i am passing @@error, I want to capture this error no at frontend i.e. catch (SqlException ex) { if ex.number==2627 MessageBox.show("Duplicate value cannot be inserted"); } I want this functionality. which can't be achieved using raiseerror. I dont want to give custom error message at back end.

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  • Best ways to teach a beginner to program?

    - by Justin Standard
    Original Question I am currently engaged in teaching my brother to program. He is a total beginner, but very smart. (And he actually wants to learn). I've noticed that some of our sessions have gotten bogged down in minor details, and I don't feel I've been very organized. (But the answers to this post have helped a lot.) What can I do better to teach him effectively? Is there a logical order that I can use to run through concept by concept? Are there complexities I should avoid till later? The language we are working with is Python, but advice in any language is welcome. How to Help If you have good ones please add the following in your answer: Beginner Exercises and Project Ideas Resources for teaching beginners Screencasts / blog posts / free e-books Print books that are good for beginners Please describe the resource with a link to it so I can take a look. I want everyone to know that I have definitely been using some of these ideas. Your submissions will be aggregated in this post. Online Resources for teaching beginners: A Gentle Introduction to Programming Using Python How to Think Like a Computer Scientist Alice: a 3d program for beginners Scratch (A system to develop programming skills) How To Design Programs Structure and Interpretation of Computer Programs Learn To Program Robert Read's How To Be a Programmer Microsoft XNA Spawning the Next Generation of Hackers COMP1917 Higher Computing lectures by Richard Buckland (requires iTunes) Dive into Python Python Wikibook Project Euler - sample problems (mostly mathematical) pygame - an easy python library for creating games Create Your Own Games With Python ebook Foundations of Programming for a next step beyond basics. Squeak by Example Recommended Print Books for teaching beginners Accelerated C++ Python Programming for the Absolute Beginner Code by Charles Petzold

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  • mongodb: insert if not exists

    - by LeMiz
    Hello, Every day, I receive a stock of documents (an update). What I want to do is inserting each of them if it does not exists. I also want to keep track of the first time I inserted them, and the last time I saw them in an update. I don't want to have duplicate documents. I don't want to remove a document which has previously been saved, but is not in my update. 95% (estimated) of the records are unmodified from day to day. I am using the python driver (pymongo), for that matter. What I currently do is (pseudo-code): for each document in update: existing_document = collection.find_one(document) if not existing_document: document['insertion_date'] = now else: document = existing_document document['last_update_date'] = now my_collection.save(document) My problem is that it is very slow (40 mins for less than 100 000 records, and I have millions of them in the update). I am pretty sure there is something builtin for doing this, but the document for update() is mmmhhh.... a bit terse.... ( http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Updating ) Can someone give an advice on doing it faster ?

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  • How to correctly refactor this?

    - by kane77
    I have trouble finding way to correctly refactor this code so that there would be as little duplicate code as possible, I have a couple of methods like this (pseudocode): public List<Something> parseSomething(Node n){ List<Something> somethings = new ArrayList<Something>(); initialize(); sameCodeInBothClasses(); List<Node> nodes = getChildrenByName(n, "somename"); for(Node n:nodes){ method(); actionA(); somethings.add(new Something(actionB()); } return somethings; } methods sameCodeInBothClasses() are same in all classes but where it differs is what hapens in for loop actionA() and it also adds an element to the List of different type. Should I use Strategy pattern for the different parts inside loop? What about the return value (The type of list differs), should the method return just List<Object> that I would then cast to appropriate type? Should I pass the class I want to return as parameter?

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  • Scaling a CBitmap - what am I doing wrong?

    - by Smashery
    I've written the following code, which attempts to take a 32x32 bitmap (loaded through MFC's Resource system) and turn it into a 16x16 bitmap, so they can be used as the big and small CImageLists for a CListCtrl. However, when I open the CListCtrl, all the icons are black (in both small and large view). Before I started playing with resizing, everything worked perfectly in Large View. What am I doing wrong? // Create the CImageLists if (!m_imageListL.Create(32,32,ILC_COLOR24, 1, 1)) { throw std::exception("Failed to create CImageList"); } if (!m_imageListS.Create(16,16,ILC_COLOR24, 1, 1)) { throw std::exception("Failed to create CImageList"); } // Fill the CImageLists with items loaded from ResourceIDs int i = 0; for (std::vector<UINT>::iterator it = vec.begin(); it != vec.end(); it++, i++) { CBitmap* bmpBig = new CBitmap(); bmpBig->LoadBitmap(*it); CDC bigDC; bigDC.CreateCompatibleDC(m_itemList.GetDC()); bigDC.SelectObject(bmpBig); CBitmap* bmpSmall = new CBitmap(); bmpSmall->CreateBitmap(16, 16, 1, 24, 0); CDC smallDC; smallDC.CreateCompatibleDC(&bigDC); smallDC.SelectObject(bmpSmall); smallDC.StretchBlt(0, 0, 32, 32, &bigDC, 0, 0, 16, 16, SRCCOPY); m_imageListL.Add(bmpBig, RGB(0,0,0)); m_imageListS.Add(bmpSmall, RGB(0,0,0)); } m_itemList.SetImageList(&m_imageListS, LVSIL_SMALL); m_itemList.SetImageList(&m_imageListL, LVSIL_NORMAL);

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  • jboss 5.0 data source configuration in ear file. How can I run oracle 10g and 11g on the same serve

    - by Joe
    Currently my setup is: in my ear META-INF/jboss-app.xml <jboss-app> <service>datasource-ds.xml</service> </module> and datasource-ds.xml <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>jdbc/mydeployment</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:thin:@eir:myport:mydbname</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>myuser</user-name> <password>mypassword</password> <exception-sorter-class-name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and it works when ojdbc5.jar is in my servername/lib How can I config my oracle driver information in my .ear file so that I can have two different ear deployments, one using oracle 10g and one using oracle 11g?

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  • NHibernate DuplicateMappingException when mapping abstract class and subclass

    - by stiank81
    I have an abstract class, and subclasses of this, and I want to map this to my database using NHibernate. I'm using Fluent, and read on the wiki how to do the mapping. But when I add the mapping of the subclass an NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException is thrown when it is mapping. Why? Here are my (simplified) classes: public abstract class FieldValue { public int Id { get; set; } public abstract object Value { get; set; } } public class StringFieldValue : FieldValue { public string ValueAsString { get; set; } public override object Value { get { return ValueAsString; } set { ValueAsString = (string)value; } } } And the mappings: public class FieldValueMapping : ClassMap<FieldValue> { public FieldValueMapping() { Id(m => m.Id).GeneratedBy.HiLo("1"); // DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("type"); } } public class StringValueMapping : SubclassMap<StringFieldValue> { public StringValueMapping() { Map(m => m.ValueAsString).Length(100); } } And the exception: NHibernate.MappingException : Could not compile the mapping document: (XmlDocument) ---- NHibernate.DuplicateMappingException : Duplicate class/entity mapping NamespacePath.StringFieldValue Any ideas?

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  • MVC App Works in Visual Studio, but not IIS7

    - by kesh
    Working on a an ASP.NET MVC Project, and I'm having some difficulties deploying to a shared dev server. Locally, when debugging using the local Visual Studio 2008 server, everything works peachy. However, once deployed, I receive the following error: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately.## Heading ## Parser Error Message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Application Codebehind="Global.asax.cs" Inherits="APPLICATION_NAME.Web.MvcApplication" Language="C#" %> Source File: /APPLICATION_NAME/global.asax Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 In the error log: Event sequence: 1 Event occurrence: 1 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/APPLICATION_NAME-4-128995312096183595 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: /APPLICATION_NAME Application Path: E:\PROJECTS\APPLICATION\APPLICATION_NAME\APPLICATION_NAME\app\APPLICATION_NAME.Web\ Machine name: PC Process information: Process ID: 4608 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Exception information: Exception type: HttpException Exception message: Unable to find an entry point named 'BCryptGetFipsAlgorithmMode' in DLL 'bcrypt.dll'. Request information: Request URL: http://localhost/APPLICATION_NAME Request path: /APPLICATION_NAME User host address: ::1 User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Thread information: Thread ID: 6 Thread account name: IIS APPPOOL\DefaultAppPool Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.ReportTopLevelCompilationException() at System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.EnsureTopLevelFilesCompiled() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) Custom event details: After finding the deployment error, I tried adding an application locally, and that seems to result in the same application. On my local dev machine, I'm using Windows 7 RTM (x64), and on the shared server I'm running Windows Server 2008 Standard (x86). Poked around, and my FIPS encryption in Local Security Policy is disabled, so I'm at a bit of a loss.

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  • Passing binary blob through an Android content provider

    - by velocityb0y
    I have a content provider that is custom to my set of Android applications, and one of the things it needs to expose is a small (20-30k) byte array. The uri for these blobs looks like content://my.authority/blob/# where # is the row number; the resulting cursor has the standard _id column and a data column. I'm using a MatrixCursor in the provider's query method: byte[] byteData = getMyByteData(); MatrixCursor mc = new MatrixCursor(COLUMNS); mc.addRow(new Object[] { id, byteData }); Later, in the application consuming the data, I do Cursor c = managedQuery(uri, null, null, null, null); c.moveToFirst(); byte[] data = c.getBlob(c.getColumnIndexOrThrow("data")); However, data does not contain the contents of my original byte array; rather, it contains something like "[B@435cc518", which looks more like the address of the array than the contents. I tried wrapping the byte array in an implementation of java.sql.Blob, figuring that it might be looking for that since the content provider subsystem was written to be easy to use with SQLite, but it didn't help. Has anyone gotten this to work? If the data was in the file system, there are methods in ContentProvider that I could use to provide a marshalled InputStream to the client, but the data I'm trying to send back lives as a resource in the content provider's APK.

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  • jqModal dialog always under overlay.

    - by ProfK
    I have the following code, and am at my wit's end because the dialog always appears under the overlay. Any advice will be most appreciated: <head runat="server"> <title></title> <link href="../Styles/jqModal.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <style type="text/css"> #shift-edit-popup { display: none; } </style> <script src="../Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../Scripts/jqModal.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#shift-edit-popup").jqm({ toTop: true }).jqmAddTrigger("#show-button"); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form" runat="server"> <input id="show-button" type="button" value="Show" /> <div id="shift-edit-popup"> <div> <asp:Label ID="resourceLabel" runat="server" AssociatedControlID="resourceList">Resource:</asp:Label> <asp:DropDownList ID="resourceList" runat="server" DataTextField="Name" DataValueField="ResourceId" Width="120px"> </asp:DropDownList> </div> </div> </body>

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  • 'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found. on XmlSerialise

    - by Redeemed1
    In my ASP.Net MVC app I have a Model layer which uses localised validation annotations on business objects. The code looks like this: [XmlRoot("Item")] public class ItemBo : BusinessObjectBase { [Required(ErrorMessageResourceName = "RequiredField", ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(StringResource))] [HelpPrompt("ItemNumber")] public long ItemNumber { get; set; } This works well. When I want to serialise the object to xml I get the error: "'ErrorMessageResourceType' property specified was not found" (although it is lost beneath other errors, it is the innerexception I am trying to work on. The problem therefore is the use of the DataAnnotations attributes. The relevant resource files are in another assembly and are marked as 'public' and as I said everything works well until I get to serialisation. I have references to the relevant DataAnnotations class etc in my nunit tests and target class. By the way, the HelpPrompt is another data annotation I have defined elsewhere and is not causing the problem. Furthermore if I change the Required attribute to the standard format as follows, the serialisation works ok. [Required(ErrorMessage="Error")] Can anyone help me?

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  • php getting unique values of a multidimensional array

    - by Mark
    I have an array like this: $a = array ( 0 => array ( 'value' => 'America', ), 1 => array ( 'value' => 'England', ), 2 => array ( 'value' => 'Australia', ), 3 => array ( 'value' => 'America', ), 4 => array ( 'value' => 'England', ), 5 => array ( 'value' => 'Canada', ), ) How can I remove the duplicate values so that I get this: $a = array ( 0 => array ( 'value' => 'America', ), 1 => array ( 'value' => 'England', ), 2 => array ( 'value' => 'Australia', ), 4 => array ( 'value' => 'Canada', ), ) I tried using array_unique, but that doesn't work due to this array being multidimensional, I think. Thanks!

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  • Laravel - Paginate and get()

    - by Bajongskie
    With the code below, what I wanted was paginate the query I created. But, when I try to add paginate after get, it throws an error. I wanted to remain get since I want to limit to columns that was set on $fields. What would should be the better idea to paginate this thing? or what's a good substitute for get and limit the columns? What I tried: ->get($this->fields)->paginate($this->limit) Part of my controller: class PhonesController extends BaseController { protected $limit = 5; protected $fields = array('Phones.*','manufacturers.name as manufacturer'); /** * Display a listing of the resource. * * @return Response */ public function index() { if (Request::query("str")) { $phones = Phone::where("model", 'LIKE', '%'. Request::query('str') . '%') ->join('manufacturers', 'manufacturers_id', '=', 'manufacturers.id') ->get($this->fields); } else { $phones = Phone::join('manufacturers', 'manufacturers_id', '=', 'manufacturers.id') ->get($this->fields); } return View::make('phones.index')->with('phones', $phones); } }

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  • Using named_scopes on the join model of a has_many :through

    - by uberllama
    Hi folks. I've been beating my head against the wall on something that on the surface should be very simple. Lets say I have the following simplified models: user.rb has_many :memberships has_many :groups, :through => :memberships membership.rb belongs_to :group belongs_to :user STATUS_CODES = {:admin => 1, :member => 2, :invited => 3} named_scope :active, :conditions => {:status => [[STATUS_CODES[:admin], STATUS_CODES[:member]]} group.rb has_many :memberships has_many :users, :through => :memberships Simple, right? So what I want to do is get a collection of all the groups a user is active in, using the existing named scope on the join model. Something along the lines of User.find(1).groups.active. Obviously this doesn't work. But as it stands, I need to do something like User.find(1).membrships.active.all(:include => :group) which returns a collection of memberships plus groups. I don't want that. I know I can add another has_many on the User model with conditions that duplicate the :active named_scope on the Membership model, but that's gross. has_many :active_groups, :through => :memberships, :source => :group, :conditions => ... So my question: is there a way of using intermediary named scopes when traversing directly between models? Many thanks.

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  • MVVM Binding in Silverlight3 ItemsControl to get the parent controls DataContext

    - by BigTundra
    I have the following ItemsControl in Silverlight 3. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding ValueCollectionList}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="MyBtn" Height="40" Content="{Binding Name}" Tag="{Binding Value}" cmd:ButtonBaseExtensions.Command="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=ButtonCommand}" cmd:ButtonBaseExtensions.CommandParameter="{Binding ElementName=MyBtn, Path=Tag}"/> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> The Problem is that I have the ItemsControl bound to the Collection in my ViewModel, but I need the button to trigger a command on the ViewModel which is of course not Available in the DataContext of the button since it only contains the collection. I can make the command fire by setting my ViewModel as a Resource and then binding to it as a StaticResource, but I want to know why the element to element binding won't work in this scenario. I would prefer not to use the StaticResource binding because that requires the default constructor on the ViewModel and so I can't inject my data easily.

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  • Keyboard Animation Issues When Calling becomeFirstResponder within a Modal View Controller

    - by LucasTizma
    I've been having some issues with calling -becomeFirstResponder on a UITextField contained with a view controller that is presented modally. I call this method in the modal view controller's -viewDidLoad method so that the keyboard is immediately displayed. What I expected is for both the keyboard and the modal view controller to animate from up the bottom of the screen at the same time. However, what I'm observing is the following: There is a ~0.2 second UI lag between clicking the button that calls the -presentModalViewController:animated: method on the parent view controller and when the child view controller begins to animate modally. The keyboard is immediately presented with absolutely no animation about half-way through the modal view controller's animation. Once the modal view controller's animation is complete, everything else seems to operate smoothly. Dismissing the modal view controller results in it being smoothly animated off screen (along with the keyboard, coincidentally). It's as if the keyboard's animation and the modal view controller's animation are both competing for some lower-level Core Animation resource at the same time, but I don't see why this should be happening. What further seems to corroborate this hunch is if I don't ask the UITextField to become the first responder (i.e., if I don't ask the keyboard to present itself), then there is absolutely no UI lag, and the modal view controller animates instantly. Interestingly, if I do something like [self.textField performSelector:@selector(becomeFirstResponder) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.0001]; then the animation of the keyboard happens nearly at the same time as the modal view controller's animation -- it's extremely difficult to tell that they aren't both being animated at the exact same time. Furthermore, there's no more UI lag. Has anyone experienced anything similar to this?

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  • Focussing on Style Sheets and Cross Browser Compatibility.

    - by Sam
    Hello everyone, Let me begin this topic by explaining my background experience with web design. I have always been more of a back end programmer, with PHP and SQL and things. However I do have a shallow background with HTML and CSS. The problem is, I don't know it all. What I do know is, when it comes to designing (not back end dirty work) I understand basic CSS properties and I also understand HTML and I can usually throw together a sloppy web page with the two and a couple bazillion DIV tags. Anyways.. The problem I always have encountered is that when I design a website in a browser such as IE7 (and then it looks perfect on IE7), and then look at it on IE8 or IE6 or Mozilla (etc.) it gets all spacey and ugly and looks totally different than the way it should look on IE7. Question one: Basically, what I am asking everyone is what route should I take to learn how to properly build the website? Build as in put it togehter with CSS standards and HTML standards that will make my site look the same on every brwoser. (Not only learning standards but where can I learn to properly write my code?) Where is a strong free resource I can use to learn how to these things? Question two: How do I properly code my website? Do I use all external style sheets to make dynamic page design simplistic or do I hard code some things into the DIV tags on each page? What is proper? Oh, and if anyone has any tutorials on how to properly design a complete layout feel free to throw it in a response somewhere. Thank you for taking the time to read my questions, and hopefully you will understand what I am trying to get out to everyone. I need to get on the right route of the designing side of web programming so that I will know how to create successful websites in the future. Thank you, Sam Pardee

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  • WPF - Dynamic tooltip

    - by Al Mackenzie
    I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

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  • Aspnet_merge error has no detail

    - by dang57
    I have been attempting to add a Deployment Project to my web app. When I build it, I get a message "An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004". There is no other detail, like ILMerge error, or Duplicate Name. I have "verbosity" set to "Diagnostic", and this is the output: Command: C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe "\...XXX...\My Documents\Visual Studio 2005\Projects\XXX_deploy\Debug" -o XXX_deploy -debug -copyattrs The "AspNetMerge" task is using "aspnet_merge.exe" from "C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\aspnet_merge.exe". Utility to merge precompiled ASP.NET assemblies. An error occurred when merging assemblies: Exception from HRESULT: 0x806D0004 C:\Program Files\MSBuild\Microsoft\WebDeployment\v8.0\Microsoft.WebDeployment.targets(474,9): error MSB6006: "aspnet_merge.exe" exited with code 1. Done executing task "AspNetMerge" -- FAILED. Done building target "AspNetMerge" in project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Done building project "XXX_deploy.wdproj" -- FAILED. Build FAILED. I have tried running the command via the Command prompt, but it does not give any additional information. I have also removed EVERYTHING from the project, including references, style sheets, forms, tableadapters. I still have a web.config, but deleted all app-specific lines. I added a single new form named Default. I have even tried renaming that form to DefaultX, just in case there was another Default out there. I still get the error. What else can I look for? I'm running VS 2005 v8.05. Thanks Dan

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  • RotatingFileHandler throws an exception when delay parameter is set

    - by Eli Courtwright
    When I run the following code under Python 2.6 import logging from logging.handlers import RotatingFileHandler rfh = RotatingFileHandler("testing.log", delay=True) logging.getLogger().addHandler(rfh) logging.warning("Boo!") then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'level'. So I add the line rfh.setLevel(logging.DEBUG) before the call to addHandler, and then the last line throws AttributeError: RotatingFileHandler instance has no attribute 'filters'. So if I manually set filters to be an empty list, then it complains about not having the attribute lock, etc. When I remove the delay=True to leave it as the default value of False as documented here, the problem completely goes away. Am I missing something? How do I properly use the delay parameter of the RotatingFileHandler class? EDIT: Upon further analysis (presented in my own answer below), this looks like a bug, but I can't find a bug report on this in the Python bug tracker, even trying different search terms, so I guess I'll report it. However, if someone can locate the actual bug report, then I can avoid submitting a duplicate reporting and wasting the time of the Python developers. I'll hold off on reporting the bug for a few hours, and if someone posts an answer that has the current bug report, then I'll accept that answer for this question.

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