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  • passenger-status - ERROR: Phusion Passenger doesn't seem to be running

    - by Casual Coder
    My server is: Server version: Apache/2.2.11 (Ubuntu) Server built: Aug 16 2010 17:44:11 My ruby version ruby 1.9.2p136 (2010-12-25 revision 30365) [x86_64-linux]. I've installed passenger 3.0.7 via RubyGems. I've run passenger-install-apache2-module and everything went fine. I've modified configuration (load module, edit virtualhost etc.) and restarted Apache. Module is loading fine (apache does not complain). But Passenger is obviously not working: sudo passenger-status ERROR: Phusion Passenger doesn't seem to be running. How can I get it working ? Edit 1: /etc/apache2/mods-enabled/passenger.load LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-3.0.7/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so Root of passenger: passenger-config --root /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-3.0.7 Apache VirtualHost sub URI configuration in /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/railsapps: <VirtualHost <IP ADDRESS>:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerName my.server.name PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/passenger-3.0.7 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby RailsEnv development DocumentRoot /www/vhosts/railsapps <Directory /www/vhosts/railsapps> Options FollowSymlinks -MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> RailsBaseURI /siteA <Directory /www/vhosts/railsapps/siteA> Options -MultiViews AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> RailsBaseURI /siteB <Directory /www/vhosts/railsapps/siteB> AllowOverride All Options -MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> LogLevel info ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/railsapps_error.log CustomLog /var/log/apache2/railsapps_access.log combined </VirtualHost> Of course as in 'users guide apache.html' siteA and siteB are symlinks to siteA/public and siteB/public absolute paths respectively. Edit 2: In logs there is nothing related to passenger. Permissions are also fine (read and executable) on directories in paths. Even if it was some misconfiguration or permission problem isn't passenger suppose to be running? I mean sudo passenger-status should at least output --- general information ---. When I place some test html file in railsapps directory it is served fine. /var/log/apache2/railsapps_error.log [Sun Jun 19 12:19:08 2011] [error] [client <IP>] Directory index forbidden by Options directive: /www/vhosts/railsapps/siteA/ [Sun Jun 19 12:19:08 2011] [error] [client <IP>] File does not exist: /www/vhosts/railsapps/favicon.ico

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  • Simple Backup Strategy for Amazon EC2 instances / volumes?

    - by minerj
    You have entered Introductory Backups for Amazon EC2 EBS-backed Windows Images 010... I have been browsing my brains out to find a simple backup strategy for our single windows 2008 server running SharePoint Services. This is an EBS-backed image of one server with one data volume. I don’t need anything exotic. I only need a “daily” backup (losing a day’s worth of data is not catastrophic). We have created and saved an EBS backed AMI image (Windows 2008) we are comfortable using. We started off making backups by simply creating a new EBS AMI image. This is really simple, but the running server is put offline during the first 10 – 15 minutes of creating the image – not ideal. The standard way of creating backups would seem to be creating snapshots of volumes attached to a running instance. Again it’s pretty simple and the server remains usable during the snapshot generation. The apparent Catch-22 is that you can’t simply launch a new instance directly from a snapshot. I know how to bundle a running instance to S3 storage and then register the AMI from the S3 bucket. This does allow me to capture a backup of a running instance and, if the running instance is lost, register the AMI from the S3 bucket and launch the new AMI to recover the instance, but this seems really convoluted and it seems ridiculous to have to juggle back and forth between the AWS Console and the S3 Organizer plug-in for Firefox to get this accomplished. (Please don't mention the command line approach, this is an 010 level course). From playing around with EBS-backed images, the following approach appears to work for me (all done within the AWS Console): 1.For your backups, simply snapshot the system volume (/dev/sda1) as needed. 2.If you lose your running instance, do the following: a.Create a new volume from your last snapshot backup b.Launch another instance of your starting AMI (must be EBS-backed) c.Stop this instance. d.Detach the existing system volume from the new stopped instance and discard. e.Attach the newly created volume as system volume (/dev/sda1) to the stopped instance. f.Re-start the new instance. I have tested this out a couple of times and it seems to work for me. Question: Is there anything wrong with this approach?

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  • using own mail server with external domain and dns. Now have internal dns. dkim test not working

    - by mojotaker
    I am not very knowledgeable in this area, but have been able to make great head way. Now i am stuck I setup my own mail server, e.g mailbox.example.com. I had the domain dns point to my mail server in my office. i was able to set up everything working fine. such as dkim and spf records. Recently i decided to setup an internal dns server in the office so as to resolve some addresses for some development servers internally. Ok the problem now is my mail server is sitting on the internal dns server (the mail server is on the same box as the dns server) its still able to send and receive emails but not sure if dkim is working properly. when i try to do a dkim test "amavisd test keys" i get "invalid (public key: not available)" and i know that that means i have a dns issue. so what should i do? I am currently looking at my internal dns zonefile and i dont know what to do (i am using bind dns server on an ubuntu-server box). do i configure a dkim txt record on the local dns ? or is there a way to forward dkim "request" to the external dns ? or do i have this whole thing done wrong ? To be clear Basically my internal domain name is the same as my external domain name (i.e example.com) i have a mail server within my internal domain mailbox.example.com, that uses my external domain dns (external dns has been setup to point to my emailserver (which of course is now sitting behind my internal dns)) dkim (i dont think its working because it fails the dkim test") Need help in determing the proper setup What is the proper way to set this up ? thank you Update: Here is my local dns zone file ; ; BIND data file for local loopback interface ; $TTL 604800 @ IN SOA webserver.example.com. root.example.com. ( //dns and webserver on the same box 2012030809 ; Serial 604800 ; Refresh 86400 ; Retry 2419200 ; Expire 604800 ) ; Negative Cache TTL ; @ IN NS webserver.example.com. @ IN A 192.168.1.117 @ IN AAAA ::1 ns IN A 192.168.1.117 www IN A xx.xx.xx.xxx // ip of external domain box (bluehost) work around to let local clients access website newsletter IN A xx.xx.xxx.117 // external ip address of local network mailbox.example.com. IN A 192.168.1.111 // internal ip of mailbox (mailserver webserver.example.com. IN A 192.168.1.117 //internal ip of a webserver

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  • Touch gestures in IE not working without explorer.exe being run once

    - by Michael
    Edit: Rephrasing my question: Upon further troubleshooting, I can conclude that: Touch gestures (dragging, pinch to zoom, touch-and-hold right click) in Internet Explorer start to work when: The system has been running for ~2 minutes. This coincides with the delayed start of services. Explorer.exe is being run, then killed. I assume Explorer.exe starts some services? The services with delayed start are as follows: Security Center Software Protection Windows Defender, Search and Update Windows Font Cache Service Microsoft .NET Framework NGEN v4.0.30319_X64 and X86 I see no connection between these services and touch gestures, but just in case, I manually tried starting these services, but without luck. What else happens delayed after system boot, which also happens when explorer is started? Old question: Details: Internet Explorer 9 and Windows 7 Professional, running on a HP TouchSmart (touch screen PC). It is going to be a kiosk PC (running a custom GUI for displaying websites). Scenario 1: When running Internet Explorer as a normal program in Windows 7, touch functions work perfectly. I can scroll the website by dragging it with my finger, I can pinch zoom and I can touch-and-hold right click. I now change the default shell in Windows to Internet Explorer (ie. IE starts instead of explorer.exe). Internet Explorer of course starts up when logging in. However, touch functions are reduced to basic clicking (no dragging, no pinch zooming, no touch-and-hold right click). Then I manually start explorer.exe, and the touch functions work again! And here is the weird part: When I kill explorer.exe, the touch functions keeps working - even if I close IE and start a new instance. Scenario 2: The exact same, but instead of changing the default shell to Internet Explorer, I change it to my own program, which uses an embedded Internet Explorer ("WebBrowser"). Same thing happens. What I've tried: Autorun programs: When explorer.exe launches, it launches all the autorun programs. There are no relevant programs being run by explorer, but just in case, I have manually started all the autorun programs, so that it is identical (but without explorer.exe) to a normal login. It still does not work (until I launch explorer.exe). Specifically TabTip.exe, TabTip32.exe and wisptis.exe are all running. All services are also started. To sum it up Running explorer.exe once changes something in the touch capabilities of Internet Explorer. It doesn't matter if explorer.exe is running - as long as it has been run once. Does anyone know what causes this behavior? Or how I can circumvent it neatly?

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  • Installing drivers for switchable graphics

    - by Anonymous
    I recently bought a laptop that came with Windows 7 64-bit installed. I have some older (16-bit and 32-bit) software that doesn't work with 64-bit Windows, but works just fine with 32-bit. Since I also wanted to get rid of all of the pre-installed spam, I decided to wipe the hard drive and install a fresh copy of Windows 7 32-bit. I can't get the graphics cards working. This laptop uses switchable graphics, an Intel card and a Radeon card. I first tried installing this driver from Intel, which works for the Intel card. Of course, the Radeon card doesn't work with this driver and I need it for some of the newer games I have. I also tried this driver. Windows's device manager will recognize the Radeon card, but it will still use the Intel card. Also, even though that package says it contains the Intel driver, the Intel card still isn't properly recognized by Windows (leaving me with a nasty 800x600 resolution). On top of that, the Catalyst Control Center won't open (saying "The Catalyst Control Center is not supported by the driver version of your enabled graphics adapter") I tried installing HP's driver then installing Intel's driver on top of it. Device manager will then recognize both graphics cards properly. However, the laptop still uses the Intel card. The CCC still won't start (saying the same thing as before) and I can't find any of 'switching' graphics cards. Before formatting, I could right-click the desktop and click "Configure Switchable Graphics" This option hasn't been in the context menu regardless of what driver(s) I've installed. After some research, I found out that this menu entry runs the command "cli.exe Start PowerXpressHybrid" I've tried manually running this command, but I get the same unsupported message from CCC. So, does anyone know how I can get this working? I would like to be able to switch between the Intel and Radeon. But, if there's some way to disable the Intel and use only the Radeon, that would be fine I dual-boot with Linux (framebuffer uses the Intel, haven't even tried getting X set up yet) Here's the output of lspci # lspci -v | grep VGA 00:02.0 VGA compatible controller: Intel Corporation 2nd Generation Core Processor Family Integrated Graphics Controller (rev 09) (prog-if 00 [VGA controller]) 01:00.0 VGA compatible controller: ATI Technologies Inc NI Seymour [AMD Radeon HD 6470M] (prog-if 00 [VGA controller]) The laptop is a HP Pavilion g6t-1d00. HP doesn't support installing anything but Windows 7 64-bit, so calling tech support isn't an option. Thanks for any help UPDATE: I finally got it working. After a fresh install of Windows 7, I installed the HP driver (the one linked above). Then, there's an optional Windows update I installed (don't remember the exact name, but it'll stick out). After that, graphics switching works just like it's supposed to. Moab, thanks anyways for your help

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  • Pros/Cons of switching from Exchange to GMail

    - by Brent
    We are a medium-large non-profit company, with around 1000 staff and volunteers, and have been using MS Exchange (currently 2003) for our mail system for years. I recently attended a Google conference where they were positing that "Cloud computing is the way of the future", and encouraging us to switch from doing our own email with Exchange, to using GMail and Google Apps for everything. Additionally, one of our departments has been pushing from inside to do this transition within their own department, if not throughout the entire organization. I can definitely see some benefits - such as: Archive space - we never seem to have the space our users want, and of course, the more we get, the more we have to back up OS Agnostic - Exchange is definitely built for windows, and with mac and linux users on the rise, these users increasingly demand better tools / support. Google offers this. Better archiving - potential of e-discovery, that doesn't exist in a practical way with our current setup. Switching would relieve us of a fair bit of server administration, give more options to our end users, and free up the server resources we are now using for Exchange. Our IT department wants to be perceived as providing up-to-date solutions to technical problems, and this change would definitely provide such an image. Google's infrastructure is obviously much more robust than ours, and they employ some of the world's best security and network experts. However, there are also some serious drawbacks: We would be essentially outsourcing one of our mission-critical systems to a 3rd party The switch would inevitably involve Google Apps and perhaps more as well. That means we would have a-lot more at the mercy of a single (potentially weak) password. (is there a way to make this more secure using a password plus physical key of some sort??) Our data would not remain under our roof - or even in our country (Canada). This obviously has plusses on the Disaster Recovery side, but I think there are potential negatives on the legal side. I can't imagine that somebody as large as Google would be as responsive as we would want with regard to non-critical issues such as tracing missing emails, etc. (not sure how much access we would have to basic mail logs - for instance) Can anyone help me evaluate this decision? What issues am I overlooking? What experiences have you had with this transition (or the opposite - gmail to Exchange) Can you add to the points I have already outlined?

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  • openstack, bridging, netfilter and dnat

    - by Craig Sanders
    In a recent upgrade (from Openstack Diablo on Ubuntu Lucid to Openstack Essex on Ubuntu Precise), we found that DNS packets were frequently (almost always) dropped on the bridge interface (br100). For our compute-node hosts, that's a Mellanox MT26428 using the mlx4_en driver module. We've found two workarounds for this: Use an old lucid kernel (e.g. 2.6.32-41-generic). This causes other problems, in particular the lack of cgroups and the old version of the kvm and kvm_amd modules (we suspect the kvm module version is the source of a bug we're seeing where occasionally a VM will use 100% CPU). We've been running with this for the last few months, but can't stay here forever. With the newer Ubuntu Precise kernels (3.2.x), we've found that if we use sysctl to disable netfilter on bridge (see sysctl settings below) that DNS started working perfectly again. We thought this was the solution to our problem until we realised that turning off netfilter on the bridge interface will, of course, mean that the DNAT rule to redirect VM requests for the nova-api-metadata server (i.e. redirect packets destined for 169.254.169.254:80 to compute-node's-IP:8775) will be completely bypassed. Long-story short: with 3.x kernels, we can have reliable networking and broken metadata service or we can have broken networking and a metadata service that would work fine if there were any VMs to service. We haven't yet found a way to have both. Anyone seen this problem or anything like it before? got a fix? or a pointer in the right direction? Our suspicion is that it's specific to the Mellanox driver, but we're not sure of that (we've tried several different versions of the mlx4_en driver, starting with the version built-in to the 3.2.x kernels all the way up to the latest 1.5.8.3 driver from the mellanox web site. The mlx4_en driver in the 3.5.x kernel from Quantal doesn't work at all) BTW, our compute nodes have supermicro H8DGT motherboards with built-in mellanox NIC: 02:00.0 InfiniBand: Mellanox Technologies MT26428 [ConnectX VPI PCIe 2.0 5GT/s - IB QDR / 10GigE] (rev b0) we're not using the other two NICs in the system, only the Mellanox and the IPMI card are connected. Bridge netfilter sysctl settings: net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-arptables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-iptables = 0 net.bridge.bridge-nf-call-ip6tables = 0 Since discovering this bridge-nf sysctl workaround, we've found a few pages on the net recommending exactly this (including Openstack's latest network troubleshooting page and a launchpad bug report that linked to this blog-post that has a great description of the problem and the solution)....it's easier to find stuff when you know what to search for :), but we haven't found anything on the DNAT issue that it causes.

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  • Veewee, Vagrant, Puppet, Erlang and RabbitMQ

    - by Tobias
    I am kinda stuck with a problem I am trying to wrap my head around for days now. Here is what I am doing: By using Veewee, I am creating a VirtualBox image and then I create a Vagrant box from it. See here, here Finally I run puppet from Vagrant to install RabbitMQ, see here. Veewee, Vagrant and VirtualBox all run on MacOS X 10.7.4. The vagrant box itself is CentOS 6.2. This worked fine for quite some time until I was recreating the VirtualBox image a couple of days ago. During installation of the rabbitmq-plugins during my puppet run I now get the following error: /Stage[main]/Rabbitmq/Exec[rabbitmq-plugins]/returns: erlexec: HOME must be set My RabbitMQ puppet configuration can be found on my GitHub repo for that project, but here is the most important part: $version = "2.8.7" $url = "http://www.rabbitmq.com/releases/rabbitmq-server/v${version}/rabbitmq-server-${version}-1.noarch.rpm" package{"erlang": ensure => "present", } package{"rabbitmq-server": provider => "rpm", source => $url, require => Package["erlang"] } exec{"rabbitmq-plugins": path => "/usr/bin:/usr/sbin:/bin", command => "rabbitmq-plugins enable rabbitmq_management", require => Package["rabbitmq-server"] } My additional repositories, e.g. epel, are defined in veewees postinstall.sh right at the top of the file. Finally, this is what I get when I do '/etc/init.d/rabbitmq-server status' [{pid,2834}, {running_applications,[{rabbit,"RabbitMQ","2.8.7"}, {ssl,"Erlang/OTP SSL application","4.1.6"}, {public_key,"Public key infrastructure","0.13"}, {crypto,"CRYPTO version 2","2.0.4"}, {mnesia,"MNESIA CXC 138 12","4.5"}, {os_mon,"CPO CXC 138 46","2.2.7"}, {sasl,"SASL CXC 138 11","2.1.10"}, {stdlib,"ERTS CXC 138 10","1.17.5"}, {kernel,"ERTS CXC 138 10","2.14.5"}]}, {os,{unix,linux}}, {erlang_version,"Erlang R14B04 (erts-5.8.5) [source] [64-bit] [rq:1] [async-threads:30] [kernel-poll:true]\n"}, {memory,[{total,24993120}, {processes,10328496}, {processes_used,10321296}, {system,14664624}, {atom,1175905}, {atom_used,1143841}, {binary,17192}, {code,11416020}, {ets,766168}]}, {vm_memory_high_watermark,0.4}, {vm_memory_limit,205851852}, {disk_free_limit,1000000000}, {disk_free,7089795072}, {file_descriptors,[{total_limit,924}, {total_used,4}, {sockets_limit,829}, {sockets_used,2}]}, {processes,[{limit,1048576},{used,131}]}, {run_queue,0}, {uptime,6}] Sources in the web suggest, that I have to set HOME. Of course I was logging into the box if HOME was set, for user vagrant it was '/home/vagrant' and for root it was 'root'. As always, any hints/ideas/suggestions/assumptions are more than welcome. Thanks a lot! Cheers, Tobi

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  • APC (PHP Cache) Uptime 0 minutes, not caching

    - by Jussi
    My goal is to implement APC for opcode cache for a drupal 6 production site. I have so far tested APC with several php files with and without including other php files with include_once. Also tried to tweak the apc.ini values for shm_size, apc.include_once_override and apc.stat. Restarted apache every time. Resulting in apc.php not showing any changes in any values. (except of course the changed apc.ini values are shown as they should) Every time i refresh the apc.php test page, the start time resets as the current time showing uptime 0 minutes. apc.php -testpage shows: General Cache InformationAPC Version 3.1.9 PHP Version 5.2.10 APC Host xxxx.xx.xx Server Software Apache/2.2.3 (CentOS) Shared Memory 1 Segment(s) with 128.0 MBytes (mmap memory, pthread mutex Locks locking) Start Time 2011/07/26 11:53:56 Uptime 0 minutes File Upload Support 1 Cached Files 0 ( 0.0 Bytes) Hits 1 Misses 1 Request Rate (hits, misses) 2.00 cache requests/second Hit Rate 1.00 cache requests/second Miss Rate 1.00 cache requests/second Insert Rate 0.00 cache requests/second Cache full count 0 Cached Variables 0 ( 0.0 Bytes) Hits 0 Misses 0 Request Rate (hits, misses) 0.00 cache requests/second Hit Rate 0.00 cache requests/second Miss Rate 0.00 cache requests/second Insert Rate 0.00 cache requests/second Cache full count 0 apc.cache_by_default 1 apc.canonicalize 1 apc.coredump_unmap 0 apc.enable_cli 0 apc.enabled 1 apc.file_md5 0 apc.file_update_protection 2 apc.filters apc.gc_ttl 3600 apc.include_once_override 0 apc.lazy_classes 0 apc.lazy_functions 0 apc.max_file_size 16 apc.mmap_file_mask /tmp/apcphp5.095eRm apc.num_files_hint 1024 apc.preload_path apc.report_autofilter 0 apc.rfc1867 0 apc.rfc1867_freq 0 apc.rfc1867_name APC_UPLOAD_PROGRESS apc.rfc1867_prefix upload_ apc.rfc1867_ttl 3600 apc.serializer default apc.shm_segments 1 apc.shm_size 128M apc.slam_defense 0 apc.stat 0 apc.stat_ctime 0 apc.ttl 7200 apc.use_request_time 1 apc.user_entries_hint 4096 apc.user_ttl 7200 apc.write_lock 1 Host Status Diagrams: Free: 128.0 MBytes (100.0%) Hits: 1 (50.0%) Used: 20.3 KBytes (0.0%) Misses: 1 (50.0%) Detailed Memory Usage and Fragmentation: Fragmentation: 0% phpinfo shows: Server API CGI/FastCGI APC: Version 3.1.9 APC Debugging Enabled MMAP Support Enabled MMAP File Mask /tmp/apcphp5.JkKDk7 Locking type pthread mutex Locks Serialization Support php Revision $Revision: 308812 $ Build Date Jul 21 2011 14:31:12 I followed these steps to find if suexec settings would prevent caching: http://www.litespeedtech.com/support/forum/showthread.php?t=4189 [root@host /]# ps -ef|grep lsphp root 20402 17833 0 11:21 pts/0 00:00:00 grep lsphp [root@host /]# ps -waux root 17833 0.0 0.1 5004 1484 pts/0 S 10:39 0:00 bash ..indicates that there is no lsphp running on the host also I read the following article and comments, concluding that in my case the problem is not the suexec as the user apache is the httpd process owner http://www.brandonturner.net/blog/2009/07/fastcgi_with_php_opcode_cache/ also suexec command is not recognized when logged and launced as root @ host also i'm almost confident that there is no cPanel running on the host to check if a setting there would reset the running cache process at some interval This leaves me with few clues where to head next. I tried to set (with chown and chgrp) apache as the owner of the apc.php file and some test php files resulting in 500 server error. Is there a way to check if the file permissions prevent the apc stay running? I'm tremendously grateful for any suggestions or help.

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  • Can't install new database in OpenLDAP 2.4 with BDB on Debian

    - by Timothy High
    I'm trying to install an openldap server (slapd) on a Debian EC2 instance. I have followed all the instructions I can find, and am using the recommended slapd-config approach to configuration. It all seems to be just fine, except that for some reason it can't create my new database. ldap.conf.bak (renamed to ensure it's not being used): ########## # Basics # ########## include /etc/ldap/schema/core.schema include /etc/ldap/schema/cosine.schema include /etc/ldap/schema/nis.schema include /etc/ldap/schema/inetorgperson.schema pidfile /var/run/slapd/slapd.pid argsfile /var/run/slapd/slapd.args loglevel none modulepath /usr/lib/ldap # modulepath /usr/local/libexec/openldap moduleload back_bdb.la database config #rootdn "cn=admin,cn=config" rootpw secret database bdb suffix "dc=example,dc=com" rootdn "cn=manager,dc=example,dc=com" rootpw secret directory /usr/local/var/openldap-data ######## # ACLs # ######## access to attrs=userPassword by anonymous auth by self write by * none access to * by self write by * none When I run slaptest on it, it complains that it couldn't find the id2entry.bdb file: root@server:/etc/ldap# slaptest -f ldap.conf.bak -F slapd.d bdb_db_open: database "dc=example,dc=com": db_open(/usr/local/var/openldap-data/id2entry.bdb) failed: No such file or directory (2). backend_startup_one (type=bdb, suffix="dc=example,dc=com"): bi_db_open failed! (2) slap_startup failed (test would succeed using the -u switch) Using the -u switch it works, of course. But that merely creates the configuration. It doesn't resolve the underlying problem: root@server:/etc/ldap# slaptest -f ldap.conf.bak -F slapd.d -u config file testing succeeded Looking in the database directory, the basic files are there (with right ownership, after a manual chown), but the dbd file wasn't created: root@server:/etc/ldap# ls -al /usr/local/var/openldap-data total 4328 drwxr-sr-x 2 openldap openldap 4096 Mar 1 15:23 . drwxr-sr-x 4 root staff 4096 Mar 1 13:50 .. -rw-r--r-- 1 openldap openldap 3080 Mar 1 14:35 DB_CONFIG -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 24576 Mar 1 15:23 __db.001 -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 843776 Mar 1 15:23 __db.002 -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 2629632 Mar 1 15:23 __db.003 -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 655360 Mar 1 14:35 __db.004 -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 4431872 Mar 1 15:23 __db.005 -rw------- 1 openldap openldap 32768 Mar 1 15:23 __db.006 -rw-r--r-- 1 openldap openldap 2048 Mar 1 15:23 alock (note that, because I'm doing this as root, I had to also change ownership of some of the files created by slaptest) Finally, I can start the slapd service, but it dies in the attempt (text from syslog): Mar 1 15:06:23 server slapd[21160]: @(#) $OpenLDAP: slapd 2.4.23 (Jun 15 2011 13:31:57) $#012#011@incagijs:/home/thijs/debian/p-u/openldap-2.4.23/debian/build/servers/slapd Mar 1 15:06:23 server slapd[21160]: config error processing olcDatabase={1}bdb,cn=config: Mar 1 15:06:23 server slapd[21160]: slapd stopped. Mar 1 15:06:23 server slapd[21160]: connections_destroy: nothing to destroy. I manually checked the olcDatabase={1}bdb file, and it looks fine to my amateur eye. All my specific configs are there. Unfortunately, syslog isn't reporting a specific error in this case (if it were a file permission error, it would say). I've tried uninstalling and reinstalling slapd, changing permissions, Googling my wits out, but I'm tapped out. Any OpenLDAP genius out there would be greatly appreciated!

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  • DNS problems with Google on Windows 7

    - by awishformore
    Hello dear superuser community. I had no idea where to post this because it is a problem that completely baffles me. I have a lot of experience with network configuration, but I am completely out of ideas on how to fix this. I have a Fritz!Box branded router on my ISP 1&1 in Germany. My computer is connected to it with a normal Ethernet cable. I always manually set my IP on the computer and use the Google DNS servers for name resolution. I also tried OpenDNS and the result is the same. With that configuration the following happens: Google search responds with big delay Gmail, Google Calendar & Google Drive requests time out the majority of the time In order to troubleshoot, I set the network connection to DHCP for both IP & DNS. At that point, what happens is the following: Google search times out most of the time Gmail, Google Calendar & Google Drive work most of the time Sometimes, it happens that the sites that time out will come up, but weirdly enough, the pictures on the buttons will be missing. For instance, the magnifying glass on Google will be gone or the circle arrow on Gmail (but all buttons of course). All other websites load just fine - and very quickly. All other network functionality is completely unimpacted. The behaviour of fixed IP & Google DNS vs automatic IP & DNS is easily reproducible. I am going crazy trying to fix this as I have no idea what the hell is going on at this point. Here a list of the things I have tried thus far: Flushed the DNS Tried on different browsers (Works fine on my laptop by the way) Tried disabling Teredo & IPv6 stack Emptied all caches Checked the HOSTS file Rebooted the router Reset the router Reinstalled the network adapter Tracert displayes normal route until timing out at one point Ping usually doesn't work for the unreachable sites either Ran both complete Norton 360 & Kaspersky 2012 scan Ran Kaspersky Virus Removal Tool in safe mode Tried connection in safe mode & networking enabled If you have any ideas, please let me know. I'm getting desperate...

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  • Trailing dots in url result in empty 404 page on IIS

    - by Peter Hahndorf
    I have an ASP.NET site on IIS8, but IIS7.5 behaves exactly the same. When I enter a URL like: mysite.com/foo/bar.. I get the following error with a '500 Internal Server Error' status code: even though I have custom error pages set up for 500 and 404 and I don't see anything wrong with my custom error page. In my web.config system.web node I have the following: <customErrors mode="On"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="/404.aspx" /> </customErrors> If I remove that section, I get a 404.0 response back but the page itself is blank. In web.config system.webServer I have: <httpErrors errorMode="DetailedLocalOnly"> <remove statusCode="404" subStatusCode="-1" /> <error statusCode="404" prefixLanguageFilePath="" path="404.html" responseMode="File" /> </httpErrors> But whether that is there or not, I get the same blank 404.0 page rather than my expected custom error page, or at least an internal IIS message. So first of all why is the asp.net handler picking up a request for '..' (also works with one or more trailing dots) If I remove the following handler from applicacationHost.config: <add name="ExtensionlessUrlHandler-Integrated-4.0" path="*." verb="GET,HEAD,POST,DEBUG" type="System.Web.Handlers.TransferRequestHandler" preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv4.0" responseBufferLimit="0" /> I get my expected custom 404 page, but of course removing that handler breaks routing in asp.net among other things. Looking at the failure trace I see: Windows Authentication is disabled for the site, so why is that module even in the request pipeline? For now my fix is to use the URL Rewrite module with the following rule: <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Trailing Dots" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="\.+$" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="/404.html" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> This works okay, but I wonder why IIS/ASP.NET behaves this way?

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  • Windows Server 2008 - one MAC Address, assign multiple external IP's to VirtualBoxes running as guests on host

    - by Sise
    Couldn't find any help @ google or here. The scenario: Windows Server 2008 Std x64 on i7-975, 12 GB RAM. The server is running in a data centre. One hardware NIC - RealTek PCIe GBE - one MAC Address. The data centre provides us 4 static external IP's. The first is assigned to the host by default of course. I have ordered all 4 IP's, the data centre can assign the available IP's to the physical MAC address of the given NIC only. This means one NIC, one MAC Address, 4 IP's. Everything works fine so far. Now, what I would like to have: Installed VirtualBox with 1-3 guests running, each gets it's own external IP assigned. Each of it should be an standalone Win Server 2008. It looks like the easiest way would be to put the guests into an virtual subnet and routing all data coming to the 2nd till 4th external IP through to this guests using there subnet IP's. I have been through the VirtualBox User Manuel regarding networking. What's not working: I can't use bridged networking without anything else, because the IP's are assigned to the one MAC address only. I can't use NAT networking because it does not allow access from outside or the host to the guest. I do not wanna use port forwarding. Host-only networking itself would not allow internet access, by sharing the default internet connection of the host, internet is granted from the guest to the outside but not from outside or the host to the guest. InternalNetworking is not really an option here. What I have tried is to create an additional MS Loopback adapter for a routed subnet, where the Vbox guests are in, now the idea was to NAT the internet connection to the loopback 'subnet'. But I can't ping the gateway from the guests. By using route command in the command shell or RRAS (static route, NAT) I didn't get there as well. Solutions like the following do work for the one way, but not for the way back: For your situation, it might be best to use the Host-Only adapter for ICS. Go to the preferences of VB itself and select network. There you can change the configuration for the interface. Set the IP address to 192.168.0.1, netmask 255.255.255.0. Disable the DHCP server if it isn't already and that's it. Now the Guest should get an IP from Windows itself and be able to get onto the internet, while you can also access the Host. Slowly I'm pretty stucked with this topic. There is a possibility I've just overlooked something or just didn't getting it by trying, especially using RRAS, but it's kinda hard to find useful howto's or something in the web. Thanks in advance! Best regards, Simon

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  • apache mod_cache in v2.2 - enable cache based on url

    - by Janning
    We are using apache2.2 as a front-end server with application servers as reverse proxies behind apache. We are using mod_cache for some images and enabled it like this: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache CacheIgnoreCacheControl On CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The image urls vary completely and have no common start pattern, but they all end in ".png". Thats why we used the root in CacheEnable / If not served from the cache, the request is forwarded to an application server via reverse proxy. So far so good, cache is working fine. But I really only need to cache all image request ending in ".png". My above configuration still works as my application server send an appropriate Cache-Control: no-cache header on the way back to apache. So most pages send a no-cache header back and they get not cached at all. My ".png" responses doesn't send a Cache-Control header so apache is only going to cache all urls with ".png". Fine. But when a new request enters apache, apache does not know that only .png requests should be considered, so every request is checking a file on disk (recorded with strace -e trace=file -p pid): [pid 19063] open("/var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache/zK/q8/Kd/g6OIv@woJRC_ba_A.header", O_RDONLY|O_CLOEXEC) = -1 ENOENT (No such file or directory) I don't want to have apache going to disk every request, as the majority of requests are not cached at all. And we have up to 10.000 request/s at peak time. Sometimes our read IO wait spikes. It is not getting really slow, but we try to tweak it for better performance. In apache 2.4 you can say: <LocationMatch .png$> CacheEnable disk </LocationMatch> This is not possible in 2.2 and as I see no backports for debian I am not going to upgrade. So I tried to tweak apache2.2 to follow my rules: <IfModule mod_disk_cache.c> SetEnvIf Request_URI "\.png$" image RequestHeader unset Cache-Control RequestHeader append Cache-Control no-cache env=!image CacheEnable disk / CacheRoot /var/cache/apache2/mod_disk_cache #CacheIgnoreCacheControl on CacheMaxFileSize 2500000 CacheIgnoreURLSessionIdentifiers jsessionid CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie </IfModule> The idea is to let apache decide to serve request from cache based on Cache-control header (CacheIgnoreCacheControl default to off). And before simply set a RequestHeader based on the request. If it is not an image request, set a Cache-control header, so it should bypass the cache at all. This does not work, I guess because of late processing of RequestHeader directive, see https://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.2/mod/mod_headers.html#early I can't add early processing as "early" keyword can't be used together with a conditional "env=!image" I can't change the url requesting the images and I know there are of course other solutions. But I am only interested in configuring apache2.2 to reach my goal. Does anybody has an idea how to achieve my goal?

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  • Deleting windows.edb and unchecking Indexing service lead to hard drive file records swapping

    - by linni
    I followed the instructions listed here:http://www.mydigitallife.info/2007/09/18/turn-off-and-disable-search-indexing-service-in-windows-xp/ to free up space on hard drive by deleting the windows.edb indexing file... I also stopped windows search service as mentioned in the comments following the article. In addition to unchecking the "Allow Indexing Service to index this disk for fast file searching" check box on the properties dialog for the C:\ drive, I did the same for two usb connected hard drives (J:\ and I:\ ). I'm not sure why I did that, thought it might shrink the windows.edb file so I wouldn't have to delete it (which sounded a bit risky in my ears at the time). The file of course didn't shrink so I ended up deleting it and freeing up over 3 GB of space, yeehaw. However, as soon as I had done this I could not access the usb connected hard drives anymore. The error I got was "I:\photos is not accessible" "The file or directory is corrupted and unreadable" when I tried to open the photos directory on I:\ Here is where I enter the twilight zone... I try disconnecting I:\ usb hard drive. But XP shows me that instead J:\ drive has disconnected and I:\ is still there. So I disconnect both drives and restart the computer. I then connect one drive, but it lists up the contents of the other drive on root level. I tried connecting the drives vice versa and the same thing happens. I try taking one of the hard drives to another computer and when I connect it there it lists up not its own contents but the contents of the other hard drive and gives the same error as above when I try and access any of the folders (even folders on the root that have the same name as folders on the other drive (e.g. J:\photos and I:\photos)??? And no, this is not a me mixing up my drive letters. Computer Manager - Disk management shows the same result as explorer: The drive size is correct (one is 500GB, the other is 640GB) but the drive name is of the opposite drive, as long as the contents. Also, one drive was full of data and the other almost empty but they incorrectly show their free space status of the other drive. Somehow the usb drives seem to have switched file tables, file records, boot records or something, extremely weird! Even weirder, if I try and create a text file or folder on this drive, it works fine, accessing them, saving, whatever, all good, but accessing any other data on the drive gives me an error. Does anyone have a clue what is going on and more importantly, how I can restore the correct folder listings to access my family photos ??? cheers, linni

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  • Is dual-booting an OS more or less secure than running a virtual machine?

    - by Mark
    I run two operating systems on two separate disk partitions on the same physical machine (a modern MacBook Pro). In order to isolate them from each other, I've taken the following steps: Configured /etc/fstab with ro,noauto (read-only, no auto-mount) Fully encrypted each partition with a separate encryption key (committed to memory) Let's assume that a virus infects my first partition unbeknownst to me. I log out of the first partition (which encrypts the volume), and then turn off the machine to clear the RAM. I then un-encrypt and boot into the second partition. Can I be reasonably confident that the virus has not / cannot infect both partitions, or am I playing with fire here? I realize that MBPs don't ship with a TPM, so a boot-loader infection going unnoticed is still a theoretical possibility. However, this risk seems about equal to the risk of the VMWare/VirtualBox Hypervisor being exploited when running a guest OS, especially since the MBP line uses UEFI instead of BIOS. This leads to my question: is the dual-partitioning approach outlined above more or less secure than using a Virtual Machine for isolation of services? Would that change if my computer had a TPM installed? Background: Note that I am of course taking all the usual additional precautions, such as checking for OS software updates daily, not logging in as an Admin user unless absolutely necessary, running real-time antivirus programs on both partitions, running a host-based firewall, monitoring outgoing network connections, etc. My question is really a public check to see if I'm overlooking anything here and try to figure out if my dual-boot scheme actually is more secure than the Virtual Machine route. Most importantly, I'm just looking to learn more about security issues. EDIT #1: As pointed out in the comments, the scenario is a bit on the paranoid side for my particular use-case. But think about people who may be in corporate or government settings and are considering using a Virtual Machine to run services or applications that are considered "high risk". Are they better off using a VM or a dual-boot scenario as I outlined? An answer that effectively weighs any pros/cons to that trade-off is what I'm really looking for in an answer to this post. EDIT #2: This question was partially fueled by debate about whether a Virtual Machine actually protects a host OS at all. Personally, I think it does, but consider this quote from Theo de Raadt on the OpenBSD mailing list: x86 virtualization is about basically placing another nearly full kernel, full of new bugs, on top of a nasty x86 architecture which barely has correct page protection. Then running your operating system on the other side of this brand new pile of shit. You are absolutely deluded, if not stupid, if you think that a worldwide collection of software engineers who can't write operating systems or applications without security holes, can then turn around and suddenly write virtualization layers without security holes. -http://kerneltrap.org/OpenBSD/Virtualization_Security By quoting Theo's argument, I'm not endorsing it. I'm simply pointing out that there are multiple perspectives here, so I'm trying to find out more about the issue.

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  • Downloading Python 2.5.4 (from official website) in order to install it

    - by brilliant
    I was quite hesitant about whether I should post this question here on "StackOverflow" or on "SuperUser", but finally decided to post it here as Python is more a programming language rather than a piece of software. I've been recently using Python 2.5.4 that is installed on my computer, but at the moment I am not at home (and won't be for about two weeks from now), so I need to install the same version of Python on another computer. This computer has Windows XP installed – just like the one that I have at home. The reason why I need Python 2.5.4 is because I am using “Google App Engine”, and I was told that it only supports Python 2.5 However, when I went to the official Python page for the download, I discovered that certain things have changed, and I don’t quite remember where exactly from that site I had downloaded Python 2.5.4 on my computer at home. I found this page: http://www.python.org/download/releases/2.5.4/ Here is how it looks: (If you can’t see it here, please check it out at this address: http://brad.cwahi.net/some_pictures/python_page.jpg ) A few things here are not clear to me. It says: For x86 processors: python-2.5.4.msi For Win64-Itanium users: python-2.5.4.ia64.msi For Win64-AMD64 users: python-2.5.4.amd64.msi First of all, I don’t know what processor I am using – whether mine is “x86” or not; and also, I don’t know whether I am an “Win64-Itanium” or an “Win64-AMD64” user. Are Itanium and AMD64 also processors? Later it says: Windows XP and later already have MSI; many older machines will already have MSI installed. I guess, it is my case, but then I am totally puzzled as to which link I should click as it seems now that I don’t need those three previous links (as MSI is already installed on Windows XP), but there is no fourth link provided for those who use “Windows XP” or older machines. Of course, there are these words after that: Windows users may also be interested in Mark Hammond's win32all package, available from Sourceforge. but it seems to me that it is something additional rather than the main file. So, my question is simple: Where in the official Python website I can download Python 2.5.4, precisely, which link I should click?

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  • ZFS/Btrfs/LVM2-like storage with advanced features on Linux?

    - by Easter Sunshine
    I have 3 identical internal 7200 RPM SATA hard disk drives on a Linux machine. I'm looking for a storage set-up that will give me all of this: Different data sets (filesystems or subtrees) can have different RAID levels so I can choose performance, space overhead, and risk trade-offs differently for different data sets while having a few number of physical disks (very important data can be 3xRAID1, important data can be 3xRAID5, unimportant reproducible data can be 3xRAID0). If each data set has an explicit size or size limit, then the ability to grow and shrink the size limit (offline if need be) Avoid out-of-kernel modules R/W or read-only COW snapshots. If it's a block-level snapshots, the filesystem should be synced and quiesced during a snapshot. Ability to add physical disks and then grow/redistribute RAID1, RAID5, and RAID0 volumes to take advantage of the new spindle and make sure no spindle is hotter than the rest (e.g., in NetApp, growing a RAID-DP raid group by a few disks will not balance the I/O across them without an explicit redistribution) Not required but nice-to-haves: Transparent compression, per-file or subtree. Even better if, like NetApps, analyzes the data first for compressibility and only compresses compressible data Deduplication that doesn't have huge performance penalties or require obscene amounts of memory (NetApp does scheduled deduplication on weekends, which is good) Resistance to silent data corruption like ZFS (this is not required because I have never seen ZFS report any data corruption on these specific disks) Storage tiering, either automatic (based on caching rules) or user-defined rules (yes, I have all-identical disks now but this will let me add a read/write SSD cache in the future). If it's user-defined rules, these rules should have the ability to promote to SSD on a file level and not a block level. Space-efficient packing of small files I tried ZFS on Linux but the limitations were: Upgrading is additional work because the package is in an external repository and is tied to specific kernel versions; it is not integrated with the package manager Write IOPS does not scale with number of devices in a raidz vdev. Cannot add disks to raidz vdevs Cannot have select data on RAID0 to reduce overhead and improve performance without additional physical disks or giving ZFS a single partition of the disks ext4 on LVM2 looks like an option except I can't tell whether I can shrink, extend, and redistribute onto new spindles RAID-type logical volumes (of course, I can experiment with LVM on a bunch of files). As far as I can tell, it doesn't have any of the nice-to-haves so I was wondering if there is something better out there. I did look at LVM dangers and caveats but then again, no system is perfect.

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  • PowerShell remove force

    - by mausch
    Trying to delete a directory recursively with rm -Force -Recurse somedirectory, I get several "The directory is not empty" errors. If I retry the same command, it succeeds. Example: PS I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net> rm -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\FileHelpers.Tests\Data\RunTime\_svn: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (_svn:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\FileHelpers.Tests\Data\RunTime: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (RunTime:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\FileHelpers.Tests\Data: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (Data:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\FileHelpers.Tests: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (FileHelpers.Tests:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\Libs\nunit\_svn: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (_svn:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\Libs\nunit: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (nunit:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers\Libs: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (Libs:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand Remove-Item : Cannot remove item I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net\FileHelpers: The directory is not empty. At line:1 char:3 + rm <<<< -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (I:\Documents an...net\FileHelpers:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand PS I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net> rm -Force -Recurse .\FileHelpers PS I:\Documents and Settings\m\My Documents\prg\net> Of course, this doesn't happen always. Also, it doesn't happen only with _svn directories, and I don't have TortoiseSVN cache or anything like that so nothing is blocking the directory. Any ideas?

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  • Persuading openldap to work with SSL on Ubuntu with cn=config

    - by Roger
    I simply cannot get this (TLS connection to openldap) to work and would appreciate some assistance. I have a working openldap server on ubuntu 10.04 LTS, it is configured to use cn=config and most of the info I can find for TLS seems to use the older slapd.conf file :-( I've been largely following the instructions here https://help.ubuntu.com/10.04/serverguide/C/openldap-server.html plus stuff I've read here and elsewhere - which of course could be part of the problem as I don't totally understand all of this yet! I have created an ssl.ldif file as follows; dn:cn=config add: olcTLSCipherSuite olcTLSCipherSuite: TLSV1+RSA:!NULL add: olcTLSCRLCheck olcTLSCRLCheck: none add: olcTLSVerifyClient olcTLSVerifyClient: never add: olcTLSCACertificateFile olcTLSCACertificateFile: /etc/ssl/certs/ldap_cacert.pem add: olcTLSCertificateFile olcTLSCertificateFile: /etc/ssl/certs/my.domain.com_slapd_cert.pem add: olcTLSCertificateKeyFile olcTLSCertificateKeyFile: /etc/ssl/private/my.domain.com_slapd_key.pem and I import it using the following command line ldapmodify -x -D cn=admin,dc=mydomain,dc=com -W -f ssl.ldif I have edited /etc/default/slapd so that it has the following services line; SLAPD_SERVICES="ldap:/// ldapi:/// ldaps:///" And everytime I'm making a change, I'm restarting slapd with /etc/init.d/slapd restart The following command line to test out the non TLS connection works fine; ldapsearch -d 9 -D cn=admin,dc=mydomain,dc=com -w mypassword \ -b dc=mydomain,dc=com -H "ldap://mydomain.com" "cn=roger*" But when I switch to ldaps using this command line; ldapsearch -d 9 -D cn=admin,dc=mydomain,dc=com -w mypassword \ -b dc=mydomain,dc=com -H "ldaps://mydomain.com" "cn=roger*" This is what I get; ldap_url_parse_ext(ldaps://mydomain.com) ldap_create ldap_url_parse_ext(ldaps://mydomain.com:636/??base) ldap_sasl_bind ldap_send_initial_request ldap_new_connection 1 1 0 ldap_int_open_connection ldap_connect_to_host: TCP mydomain.com:636 ldap_new_socket: 3 ldap_prepare_socket: 3 ldap_connect_to_host: Trying 127.0.0.1:636 ldap_pvt_connect: fd: 3 tm: -1 async: 0 TLS: can't connect: A TLS packet with unexpected length was received.. ldap_err2string ldap_sasl_bind(SIMPLE): Can't contact LDAP server (-1) Now if I check netstat -al I can see; tcp 0 0 *:www *:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 *:ssh *:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 *:https *:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 *:ldaps *:* LISTEN tcp 0 0 *:ldap *:* LISTEN I'm not sure if this is significant as well ... I suspect it is; openssl s_client -connect mydomain.com:636 -showcerts CONNECTED(00000003) 916:error:140790E5:SSL routines:SSL23_WRITE:ssl handshake failure:s23_lib.c:188: I think I've made all my certificates etc OK and here are the results of some checks; If I do this; certtool -e --infile /etc/ssl/certs/ldap_cacert.pem I get Chain verification output: Verified. certtool -e --infile /etc/ssl/certs/mydomain.com_slapd_cert.pem Gives "certtool: the last certificate is not self signed" but it otherwise seems OK? Where have I gone wrong? Surely getting openldap to run securely on ubuntu should be easy and not require a degree in rocket science! Any ideas?

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  • where on disk is space allocated for new files inside LVM lv with ext4 file system?

    - by Jost
    I run a multi-disk server with LVM2. Several large disks serve as LVM2 physical volumes for one volume group, containing one logical volume formatted with ext4. Nothing fancy, just your standard linear setup. Recently an additional, very small disk was added as physical volume to that volume group and I expanded both the logical volume, and the ext4 file system therein onto that disk. This lv is used to store incremental backups using rsync and is only about 30% full, there have rarely been any files deleted from it, only incremental writes. Now this new HDD I added to the pre-existing volume group has unexpectedly died on me, and the volume group won't come up because it is missing one physical volume. As fate will have it, this WAS the "in an event of catastrophic failure on the primary server"-backup, the event happened, the boss is not happy, so this kinda has to work... According to this (Part 3): http://www.novell.com/coolsolutions/appnote/19386.html it is possible to trick LVM into starting anyway by creating a new pv with identical metadata to the failed disk, which will make the volume accessible, but of course leave giant holes in the file system. I have'n tried it yet, because it involves repairing (writing to) the file system which eliminates the possibility of trying other things if it fails. Now my question is: How does this setup actually allocate disk space for new data? Is it allocated linearly from beginning to end of PVs, in the order they were added to the vg? Is it striped somehow in order to increase performance/balance load? since this defective disk was added only later to an existing lvm2 vg and lv, containing a half-empty ext4, what are the chances that there was never any data written to the defective disk? In other words: what are the chances of recovering all my data, even without the defective disk, by just starting the volume group as-is? Am I about to go spend $1500 on having 250GB of empty space recovered when I send the defective disk in for repair? Is there a way to check without mounting the file system and opening the files, hoping they contain something other than zeros? (comparing addresses of used data blocks inside ext4 to address ranges that were on the missing pv, something like that, preferably easy to automate) I know bitwise-copying the entire lv into an image file before trying to repair the ext4 would probably be a good idea, but since this lv is very large and I just suffered major file system failure on several systems it is probably a luxury I don't have... Any suggestions?

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  • PHP & MySQL on Mac OS X: Access denied for GUI user

    - by Eirik Lillebo
    Hey! This question was first posted to Stack Overflow, but as it is perhaps just as much a server issue I though it might be just as well to post it here also. I have just installed and configured Apache, MySQL, PHP and phpMyAdmin on my Macbook in order to have a local development environment. But after I moved one of my projects over to the local server I get a weird MySQL error from one of my calls to mysql_query(): Access denied for user '_securityagent'@'localhost' (using password: NO) First of all, the query I'm sending to MySQL is all valid, and I've even testet it through phpMyAdmin with perfect result. Secondly, the error message only happens here while I have at least 4 other mysql connections and queries per page. This call to mysql_query() happens at the end of a really long function that handles data for newly created or modified articles. This basically what it does: Collect all the data from article form (title, content, dates, etc..) Validate collected data Connect to database Dynamically build SQL query based on validated article data Send query to database before closing the connection Pretty basic, I know. I did not recognize the username "_securityagent" so after a quick search I came across this from and article at Apple's Developer Connection talking about some random bug: Mac OS X's security infrastructure gets around this problem by running its GUI code as a special user, "_securityagent". Then I tried put a var_dump() on all variables used in the mysql_connect() call, and every time it returns the correct values (where username is not "_securityagent" of course). Thus I'm wondering if anyone has any idea why 'securityagent' is trying to connect to my database - and how I can keep this error from occurring when I call mysql_query(). Update: Here is the exact code I'm using to connect to the database. But a little explanation must follow: The connection error happens at a call to mysql_query() in function X in class_1 class_1 uses class_2 to connect to database class_2 reads a config file with the database connection variables (host, user, pass, db) class_2 connect to the database through the following function: var $SYSTEM_DB_HOST = ""; function connect_db() { // Reads the config file include('system_config.php'); if (!($SYSTEM_DB_HOST == "")) { mysql_connect($SYSTEM_DB_HOST, $SYSTEM_DB_USER, $SYSTEM_DB_PASS); @mysql_select_db($SYSTEM_DB); return true; } else { return false; } }

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  • Share 3G connection over WiFi-LAN network

    - by kush.impetus
    This is how I have established network between my PC and my laptop at home (being novice in networking, it took me few days to achieve the feat). And it is working perfectly. I can easily share files between them. Laptop IP Address: 192.168.1.4 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.2 Desktop IP Address: 192.168.1.5 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.2 ASUS RT-N10+ Router IP Address: 192.168.1.4 Default Gateway: 192.168.1.2 I have connected the Desktop PC to the router using a LAN cable, and laptop to router over WiFi. Both, PC and laptop are running on Windows 7 OS, are on same HomeGroup, have same username / password. Also, I have connected the Ethernet cable to LAN port 1 of the router. Click here to view a graphical representation of the network. Can't post image here, because I don't have 10 reputation points. Now, what I want is use connect to Internet using a 3G USB modem on one device and share it over the network on the other. I tried Huawei and Micromax 3G USB modem. Both obtain a new IP address whenever I connect to Internet (means they have dynamic IPs). Rest, both have Subnet Mask as 255.255.255.255 and Default Gateway as 0.0.0.0. In that case, I cannot directly share Internet from the modem. Preferred DNS is blank for now in both, laptop and PC. What I am planning to do is to connect to Internet on laptop using the 3G modem and share the Internet connection over laptop's Wi-Fi (as hotspot) using Connectify, which I have done already. That, I suppose, will broadcast a static IP to connect to. Now what I can't figure out is that what changes should I make to the network settings of the router and the PC so that PC connects to the Internet broadcast by Connectify? Is that possible on the first hand? Please note that I am trying to implement the network without spending anything extra (for purchasing as USB WiFi adapter for PC, of course, which could have made the life lot easier for me). Thanks in advance

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  • Gateway GT5220 Boot/POST Failure

    - by John Rudy
    I have a Gateway GT5220 I'm troubleshooting. It is, in fact, the machine I just gave my father for his birthday a couple months ago. (Prior to that, it was my home PC. My home PC is now the MacBook on which I'm writing this.) Before going any further, I suspect that the answer will be, "It's worse than that, it's dead, Jim, it's dead, Jim, it's dead, Jim." At least, mobo and/or CPU. The initial symptoms were as follows: Turn on power All fans fire up (thus making it so I can't hear if the hard drive is spinning or not, nor are my hands sensitive enough anymore to feel it) No LEDs remained lit on the front panel. (Initially, the hard drive indicator flashed briefly.) No beep, no video, no nothing. Following some advice I found here, I tried to "drain the stored power." After following those steps, the new symptoms were: Turn on power All fans fire up The front panel LEDs remained lit! After about 20, maybe 30 seconds, we had video! Sort of. We got to the Gateway splash/POST screen, which appeared thoroughly corrupted. How corrupted? Well, I imagine it's what a POST screen would look like after reading the wrong passage out of the Necronomicon: It stayed there. I gave it at least 5, maybe 6 minutes, and it didn't move. So I shut her down, started her up again, and now (this is where we currently stand, symptomatically) we have this: Turn on power All fans fire up The front panel LEDs remain lit No video, no beep, no nothing. I'm a software guy; haven't done real hardware troubleshooting in years. My gut tells me that the mobo and/or CPU is fried, and unfortunately my gut didn't get to be as big as it is being wrong all the time. :( In addition to the link above, I have read all of the following (trying to save you some LMGTFY trouble): Gateway Support POST Error Messages and Handling About a zillion (useless) POST beep code sites A kioskea.net post indicating that most likely we're at what I consider "total loss" (mobo and/or CPU) My questions: Are there any conditions other than mobo/CPU that could cause symptoms like these? Is it worth my time to try the next hardware troubleshooting step?(IE, remove all non-critical hardware from the machine, try to boot, systematically replace one by one until we find the failing component) Which mobos will fit in the Gateway GT5220 case (with rear ports correctly aligned)? (Why this is not a dupe: I wouldn't have posted this question if it hadn't been for the funkadelic possessed video display on the one occasion we got video out. I think that justified this not being an exact dupe. Of course, if the community overrules, I will understand.)

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  • Optical SPDIF audio from motherboard not working with receiver

    - by simon b
    Hi, I hope someone can help; I can't get my SPDIF optical out working through my receiver and all the responses I can see on the web assume you have a sound card, while I settled for the (seemingly high end) sound on my motherboard (Asus P7P55D-E PRO), which appears to limit some of my options. My set-up is a "new out of the box" one and is: *Windows 7 PC (using PowerDVD10 for DVDs/Blurays and Windows media player for music) *Asus P7P55D-E PRO motherboard - has 8-channel audio TRS jacks and SPDIF optical and coaxial out *An old Yamaha receiver, whose only multi-channel input options are optical in and 6 channel RCA in. However, it still can handle DTS and DD *Boston Acoustic Soundware XS 5.1 speakers I've currently got the SPDIF optical out from the motherboard connected to the in on my receiver, have SPDIF enabled in the sound menu and the light is glowing red down the fibre. But I'm getting no sound at all. What I want is to be able to play DVDs/BluRays in 5.1 but also to be able to play music in multi-channel mode (even though I know this will be "fake" multichannel; it's more about where I sit in the room and my requirement to use the sub because the Boston is a satellite/sub set-up) My questions are: *Will optical work at all for multi-channel? THe latest posts I can see suggest it does but some people seem to say optical only outputs stereo. Whom to believe? *Even if it does work, I've read that I have to disable AC-3 decoding, or make various other changes, which don't seem to be possible without the menu options that a sound-card brings. Is the motherboard-only option just too inflexible? *Although my SPDIF device is enabled in the sound menu, it insists under "Jack information" that it is a "rear panel RCA jack", when of course it is not (both TOSLINK and rCA jacks do exist). Has the PC just forgotten that it has an optical? *I think I could relatively easily connect the 8-channel 3.5mm TRS jacks to my receiver 6-ch input jacks by way of TRS/RCA cables, but would that not stop me from being able to play music from media-player in multi-channel mode, as I'm not sure the motherboard can cope *Or do I need to bite the bullet and buy a sound-card? And if so, how can I be sure the one I get doesn't have the same problem? Any thoughts gratefully received, Cheers, simon

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