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  • Soft keyboard "del" key fails in EditText on Gallery widget

    - by droidful
    Hi, I am developing an application in Eclipse build ID 20090920-1017 using android SDK 2.2 and testing on a Google Nexus One. For the purposes of the tests below I am using the IME "Android keyboard" on a non-rooted phone. I have an EditText widget which exhibits some very strange behavior. I can type text, and then press the "del" key to delete that text; but after I enter a 'space' character, the "del" key will no longer remove characters before that space character. An example speaks a thousand words, so consider the following two incredibly simple applications... Example 1: An EditText in a LinearLayout widget: package com.example.linear.edit; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.ViewGroup.LayoutParams; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.Gallery; import android.widget.LinearLayout; public class LinearEdit extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); LinearLayout layout = new LinearLayout(getApplicationContext()); layout.setLayoutParams(new Gallery.LayoutParams(Gallery.LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, Gallery.LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT)); EditText edit = new EditText(getApplicationContext()); layout.addView(edit, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); setContentView(layout); } } Run the above application, enter text "edit example", then press the "del" key several times until the entire sentence is deleted. Everything Works fine. Now consider example 2: An EditText in a Gallery widget: package com.example.gallery.edit; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.view.ViewGroup.LayoutParams; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.Gallery; import android.widget.LinearLayout; public class GalleryEdit extends Activity { private final String[] galleryData = {"string1", "string2", "string3"}; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Gallery gallery = new Gallery(getApplicationContext()); gallery.setAdapter(new ArrayAdapter(getApplicationContext(), android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, galleryData) { @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { LinearLayout layout = new LinearLayout(getApplicationContext()); layout.setLayoutParams(new Gallery.LayoutParams(Gallery.LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, Gallery.LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT)); EditText edit = new EditText(getApplicationContext()); layout.addView(edit, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams(LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); return layout; } }); setContentView(gallery); } } Run the above application, enter text "edit example", then press the "del" key several times. If you are getting the same problem as me then you will find that you can't deleted past the 'space' character. All is not well. If anyone could shed some light on this issue I would be most appreciative. Regards

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  • DSP - Problems using the inverse Fast Fourier Transform

    - by Trap
    I've been playing around a little with the Exocortex implementation of the FFT, but I'm having some problems. First, after calculating the inverse FFT of an unchanged frequency spectrum obtained by a previous forward FFT, one would expect to get the original signal back, but this is not the case. I had to figure out that I needed to scale the FFT output to about 1 / fftLength to get the amplitudes ok. Why is this? Second, whenever I modify the amplitudes of the frequency bins before calling the iFFT the signal gets distorted at low frequencies. However, this does not happen if I attenuate all the bins by the same factor. Let me put a very simplified example of the output buffer of a 4-sample FFT: // Bin 0 (DC) FFTOut[0] = 0.0000610351563 FFTOut[1] = 0.0 // Bin 1 FFTOut[2] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[3] = 0.000629425049 // Central bin FFTOut[4] = -0.0000381469727 FFTOut[5] = 0.0 // Bin 3, this is a negative frequency bin. FFTOut[6] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[7] = -0.000629425049 The output is composed of pairs of floats, each representing the real and imaginay parts of a single bin. So, bin 0 (array indexes 0, 1) would represent the real and imaginary parts of the DC frequency. As you can see, bins 1 and 3 both have the same values, (except for the sign of the Im part), so I guess these are the negative frequency values, and finally indexes (4, 5) would be the central frequency bin. To attenuate the frequency bin 1 this is what I do: // Attenuate the 'positive' bin FFTOut[2] *= 0.5; FFTOut[3] *= 0.5; // Attenuate its corresponding negative bin. FFTOut[6] *= 0.5; FFTOut[7] *= 0.5; For the actual tests I'm using a 1024-length FFT and I always provide all the samples so no 0-padding is needed. // Attenuate var halfSize = fftWindowLength / 2; float leftFreq = 0f; float rightFreq = 22050f; for( var c = 1; c < halfSize; c++ ) { var freq = c * (44100d / halfSize); // Calc. positive and negative frequency locations. var k = c * 2; var nk = (fftWindowLength - c) * 2; // This kind of attenuation corresponds to a high-pass filter. // The attenuation at the transition band is linearly applied, could // this be the cause of the distortion of low frequencies? var attn = (freq < leftFreq) ? 0 : (freq < rightFreq) ? ((freq - leftFreq) / (rightFreq - leftFreq)) : 1; mFFTOut[ k ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ k + 1 ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk + 1 ] *= (float)attn; } Obviously I'm doing something wrong but can't figure out what or where.

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  • Remote host: can tracert, can telnet, can*not* browse: what gives?

    - by MacThePenguin
    One of my customers of the company I work for has made a change to their Internet connection, and now we can't connect to them any more from our LAN. To help me troubleshoot this issue, the network guy on the customer's site has configured their firewall so that a HTTPS connection to their public IP address is open to any IP. I should put https://<customer's IP> in my browser and get a web page. Well, it works from any network I've tried (even from my smartphone), just not from my company's LAN. I thought it may be an issue with our firewall (though I checked its rules and it allows outbound TCP port 443 to anywhere), so I just connected a PC directly to the network connection of our provider, bypassing out firewall completely, and still it didn't work (everything else worked). So I asked for help to our Internet provider's customer service, and they asked me to do a tracert to our customer's IP. The tracert is successful, as the final hop shown in the output is the host I want to reach. So they said there's no problem. :( I also tried telnet <customer's IP> 443 and that works as well: I get a blank page with the cursor blinking (I've tried using another random port and that gives me an error message, as it should). Still, from any browser of any PC in my LAN I can't open that URL. I tried checking the network traffic with Wireshark: I see the packages going through and answers coming back, thought the packets I see passing are far less than they are if I successfully connect to another HTTPS website. See the attached screenshot: I had to blur the IPs, anyway the longer string is my PC's local IP address, the shorter one is the customer's public IP. I don't know what else to try. This is the only IP doing this... Any idea what could I try to find a solution to this issue? Thanks, let me know if you need further details. Edit: when I say "it doesn't work" I mean: the page doesn't open, the browser keeps loading for a long time and eventually shows an error saying that the page cannot be opened. I'm not in my office now so I can't paste the exact message, but it's the usual message you get when the browser reaches its timeout. When I say "it works", I mean the browser loads and shows a webpage (it's the logon page for the customers' firewall admin interface: so there's the firewall brand's logo and there are fields to enter a user id and a password). Update 13/09/2012: tried again to connect to the customer's network through our Internet connection without a firewall. This is what I did: Run a Kubuntu 12.04 live distro on a spare laptop; Updated all the packages I could and installed WireShark; Attached it to my LAN and verified that I couldn't open https://<customer's IP>. Verified that the Wireshark trace for this attempt was the same as the one I've already posted; Verified that I could connect to another customer's host using rdesktop (it worked); Tried to rdesktop to <customer's IP>, here's the output: kubuntu@kubuntu:/etc$ rdesktop <customer's IP> Autoselected keyboard map en-us ERROR: recv: Connection reset by peer Disconnected the laptop from the LAN; Disconnected the firewall from the Extranet connection, connected the laptop instead. Set its network configuration so that I could access the Internet; Verified that I could connect to other websites in http and https and in RDP to other customers' hosts - it all worked as expected; Verified that I could still traceroute to <customer's IP>: I could; Verified that I still couldn't open https://<customer's IP> (same exact result as before); Checked the WireShark trace for this attempt and noticed a different behaviour: I could see packets going out to the customer's IP, but no replies at all; Tried to run rdesktop again, with a slightly different result: kubuntu@kubuntu:/etc/network$ rdesktop <customer's IP> Autoselected keyboard map en-us ERROR: <customer's IP>: unable to connect Finally gave up, put everything back as it was before, turned off the laptop and lost the WireShark traces I had saved. :( I still remember them very well though. :) Can you get anything out of it? Thank you very much. Update 12/09/2012 n.2: I followed the suggestion by MadHatter in the comments. From inside the firewall, this is what I get: user@ubuntu-mantis:~$ openssl s_client -connect <customer's IP>:443 CONNECTED(00000003) If I now type GET / the output pauses for several seconds and then I get: write:errno=104 I'm going to try the same, but bypassing the firewall, as soon as I can. Thanks. Update 12/09/2012 n.3: So, I think ISA Server is altering the results of my tests... I tried installing Wireshark directly on the firewall and monitoring the packets on the Extranet network card. When the destination is the customer's IP, whatever service I try to connect to (HTTPS, RDP or SAProuter), I can only see outbound packets and no response packets whatsoever from their side. It looks like ISA Server is "faking" the remote server's replies, that's why I get a connection using telnet or the openSSL client. This is the wireshark trace from inside our LAN: But this is the trace on the Extranet network card: This makes a bit more sense... I'll send this info to the customer's tech and see if he can make anything out of it. Thanks to all that took the time to read my question and post suggestions. I'll update this post again.

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  • Ant + JUnit: NoClassDefFoundError

    - by K-Boo
    Ok, I'm frustrated! I've hunted around for a good number of hours and am still stumped. Environment: WinXP, Eclipse Galileo 3.5 (straight install - no extra plugins). So, I have a simple JUnit test. It runs fine from it's internal Eclipse JUnit run configuration. This class has no dependencies on anything. To narrow this problem down as much as possible it simply contains: @Test public void testX() { assertEquals("1", new Integer(1).toString()); } No sweat so far. Now I want to take the super advanced step of running this test case from within Ant (the final goal is to integrate with Hudson). So, I create a build.xml: <project name="Test" default="basic"> <property name="default.target.dir" value="${basedir}/target" /> <property name="test.report.dir" value="${default.target.dir}/test-reports" /> <target name="basic"> <mkdir dir="${test.report.dir}" /> <junit fork="true" printSummary="true" showOutput="true"> <formatter type="plain" /> <classpath> <pathelement path="${basedir}/bin "/> </classpath> <batchtest fork="true" todir="${test.report.dir}" > <fileset dir="${basedir}/bin"> <include name="**/*Test.*" /> </fileset> </batchtest> </junit> </target> </project> ${basedir} is the Java project name in the workspace that contains the source, classes and build file. All .java's and the build.xml are in ${basedir}/src. The .class files are in ${basedir}/bin. I have added eclipse-install-dir/plugins/org.junit4_4.5.0.v20090423/junit.jar to the Ant Runtime Classpath via Windows / Preferences / Ant / Runtime / Contributed Entries. ant-junit.jar is in Ant Home Entries. So, what happens when I run this insanely complex target? My report file contains: Testsuite: com.xyz.test.RussianTest Tests run: 1, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Time elapsed: 0 sec Testcase: initializationError took 0 sec Caused an ERROR org/hamcrest/SelfDescribing java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/hamcrest/SelfDescribing at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(Unknown Source) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Unknown Source) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.hamcrest.SelfDescribing at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(Unknown Source) What is this org.hamcrest.SelfDescribing class? Something to do with mocks? OK, fine. But why the dependency? I'm not doing anything at all with it. This is literally a Java project with no dependencies other than JUnit. Stumped (and frustrated)!!

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  • Grails validation problems with sets of data: only getting one error message for all errors in a set

    - by Matt
    Hi, I'm trying to validate a domain class that has a number of subsets. class IebeUser { ... static hasMany = [openUserAnswers:OpenUserAnswer, closedUserAnswers:ClosedUserAnswer] } class OpenUserAnswer { OpenQuestion openQuestion String text static belongsTo = [user:IebeUser] static constraints = { openQuestion(nullable:false) text(blank:false) } } class ClosedUserAnswer { ClosedQuestion closedQuestion ClosedAnswer answer static belongsTo = [user:IebeUser] static constraints = { closedQuestion(nullable:false) answer(nullable:false) } } A closed question has a set of predefined answers and an open question lets the user enter a freeform answer. All is well until I come to validate the object after entry in a form: params: [closedUserAnswers[0].answer.id:, closedUserAnswers[0]:[answer:[id:], answer.id:], password:dfgdfgdf, openUserAnswers[0].text:gdfgdfgdfg, openUserAnswers[0]:[text:gdfgdfgdfg], _isOptedOut:, create:Continue, username:gdfgdfggdf, email:[email protected], closedUserAnswers[1].answer.id:, closedUserAnswers[1]:[answer:[id:], answer.id:], openUserAnswers[1].text:, openUserAnswers[1]:[text:], firstName:dfgdf, lastName:gdfgdfgd, action:save, controller:main] The key bits being: closedUserAnswers[0].answer.id:, closedUserAnswers[0]:[answer:[id:] closedUserAnswers[1].answer.id:, closedUserAnswers[1]:[answer:[id:] openUserAnswers[1].text:, openUserAnswers[1]:[text:] In my tests I have two objects of type closedUserAnswers and two of openUserAnswers. But when I call validation on IebeUser I only get validation errors for the closedUserAnswers or the openUserAnswers as a whole. I don't get validation errors for each object with a problem which is what I need. I really need an error per instance. Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong? Even when I call the validate method against each closedUserAnswer/openUserAnswer I still only get one per type. Here are my errors. Sorry for all the code, but thought I'd include as much of the code as possible so that it makes sense. Field error in object 'uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser' on field 'openUserAnswers.text': rejected value []; codes [uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.error.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.openUserAnswers.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.error.openUserAnswers.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.error.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.error,openUserAnswer.text.blank.error.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.openUserAnswers.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank.error.openUserAnswers.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank.error.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank.error,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.openUserAnswers.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.openUserAnswers.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank.text,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer.text.blank,openUserAnswer.text.blank.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.openUserAnswers.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank.openUserAnswers.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank.text,openUserAnswer.text.blank,blank.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.openUserAnswers.text,blank.openUserAnswers.text,blank.text,blank]; arguments [text,class uk.co.cascaid.iebe.OpenUserAnswer]; default message [Property [{0}] of class [{1}] cannot be blank] Field error in object 'uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser' on field 'closedUserAnswers.answer': rejected value [null]; codes [uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.closedUserAnswers.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.closedUserAnswers.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.closedUserAnswers.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.closedUserAnswers.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.error,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.closedUserAnswers.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.closedUserAnswers.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.answer,uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer.answer.nullable,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.closedUserAnswers.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.closedUserAnswers.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable.answer,closedUserAnswer.answer.nullable,nullable.uk.co.cascaid.iebe.IebeUser.closedUserAnswers.answer,nullable.closedUserAnswers.answer,nullable.answer,nullable]; arguments [answer,class uk.co.cascaid.iebe.ClosedUserAnswer]; default message [Property [{0}] of class [{1}] cannot be null]

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  • c - fork() and wait()

    - by Joe
    Hi there, I need to use the fork() and wait() functions to complete an assignment. We are modelling non-deterministic behaviour and need the program to fork() if there is more than one possible transition. In order to try and work out how fork and wait work, I have just made a simple program. I think I understand now how the calls work and would be fine if the program only branched once because the parent process could use the exit status from the single child process to determine whether the child process reached the accept state or not. As you can see from the code that follows though, I want to be able to handle situations where there must be more than one child processes. My problem is that you seem to only be able to set the status using an _exit function once. So, as in my example the exit status that the parent process tests for shows that the first child process issued 0 as it's exit status, but has no information on the second child process. I tried simply not _exit()-ing on a reject, but then that child process would carry on, and in effect there would seem to be two parent processes. Sorry for the waffle, but I would be grateful if someone could tell me how my parent process could obtain the status information on more than one child process, or I would be happy for the parent process to only notice accept status's from the child processes, but in that case I would successfully need to exit from the child processes which have a reject status. My test code is as follows: #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <errno.h> #include <sys/wait.h> int main(void) { pid_t child_pid, wpid, pid; int status = 0; int i; int a[3] = {1, 2, 1}; for(i = 1; i < 3; i++) { printf("i = %d\n", i); pid = getpid(); printf("pid after i = %d\n", pid); if((child_pid = fork()) == 0) { printf("In child process\n"); pid = getpid(); printf("pid in child process is %d\n", pid); /* Is a child process */ if(a[i] < 2) { printf("Should be accept\n"); _exit(1); } else { printf("Should be reject\n"); _exit(0); } } } if(child_pid > 0) { /* Is the parent process */ pid = getpid(); printf("parent_pid = %d\n", pid); wpid = wait(&status); if(wpid != -1) { printf("Child's exit status was %d\n", status); if(status > 0) { printf("Accept\n"); } else { printf("Complete parent process\n"); if(a[0] < 2) { printf("Accept\n"); } else { printf("Reject\n"); } } } } return 0; } Many thanks Joe

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  • Derby gets stuck closing?

    - by bmargulies
    I've got unit tests (in maven) that use derby. At the end of the test run, there is a very long pause, with these log messages before the pause. INFO: Closing Hibernate SessionFactory Nov 16, 2009 8:30:31 PM org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl close INFO: closing Nov 16, 2009 8:30:31 PM org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaExport execute INFO: Running hbm2ddl schema export Nov 16, 2009 8:30:31 PM org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaExport execute INFO: exporting generated schema to database Hibernate config: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.DerbyDialect</property> <property name="hbm2ddl.auto">create-drop</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> referenced from: <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <!-- data source elsewhere --> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="mappingResources"> <list> <value>com/basistech/configdb/dao/Gazetteer.hbm.xml</value> <value>com/basistech/configdb/dao/FileGazetteer.hbm.xml</value> <value>com/basistech/configdb/dao/Regexpset.hbm.xml</value> <value>com/basistech/configdb/dao/Redactjoiner.hbm.xml</value> <value>com/basistech/configdb/dao/Misc.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="configLocation" value="classpath:com/basistech/configdb/dao/hibernate.xml"/> and finally maven: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>hibernate3-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <executions> <execution> <id>codegen</id> <goals> <goal>hbm2java</goal> </goals> <phase>generate-sources</phase> <configuration> <components> <component> <name>hbm2java</name> </component> </components> <componentProperties> <configurationfile>src/main/hibernate/codegen-hibernate.xml</configurationfile> </componentProperties> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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  • Resolve Wrong IP from Domain Name only on certain networks

    - by Godric Seer
    I host a personal website on an old desktop that is LAMP based. There are several strange things about this problem so I will break it down into steps. Since I have a dynamic IP, I use no-ip to make sure I have a working domain name at all times. I use the automatic update client, but logged in and checked and my no-ip domain has the proper IP tied to it. Here is a link to the homepage through the no-ip domain for reference. Also, I do a ping and a traceroute on the no-ip domain and get: [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ ping -c 1 endradil.noip.me PING endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99): icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=2.23 ms --- endradil.noip.me ping statistics --- 1 packets transmitted, 1 received, 0% packet loss, time 104ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 2.233/2.233/2.233/0.000 ms [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ traceroute endradil.noip.me traceroute to endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 . (192.168.2.1) 1.755 ms 5.409 ms 5.380 ms 2 endradil.noip.me (65.24.215.99) 6.297 ms 9.543 ms 10.324 ms Using this domain, I can connect to my webserver without issue or interruption(the https is required to avoid a redirect serverside, but it works). I also have a domain I have bought on GoDaddy where I have a CNAME record forwarding the www subdomain to my no-ip domain. CNAME Record Host: www Points to: endradil.noip.me TTL: 1 hour For the past several weeks, I never had an issue using the GoDaddy domain to connect (ssh or https). As of the past few days, however, the GoDaddy domain has only worked intermittently, for a few minutes at a time and then will go down for hours at a time. I get server not found errors most of the time. Also, if I happen to be using the GoDaddy domain for an ssh connection, the connection will freeze. I have run online tests of the DNS and have seen that the website is visible by external servers and resolved to the correct IP. I also contacted GoDaddy support but they had no issues connecting to the website, and therefore did not see any issues. My personal computers (Windows desktop, linux laptop, android phone) all fail to connect when on my personal wifi. If I disconnect my phone from the wifi and use my AT&T wireless data, it can connect with both domains without issue. When I attempt to use Google webmaster tools to crawl the site using the GoDaddy domain, Google can not find the site. From my linux laptop, I have found some interesting results when I ping or traceroute the domain. The results from these: [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ ping -c 1 www.endradil.com PING www.endradil.com.Belkin (198.105.244.228) 56(84) bytes of data. --- www.endradil.com.Belkin ping statistics --- 1 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 10000ms [eckertzs@localhost ~]$ traceroute www.endradil.com traceroute to www.endradil.com (198.105.244.228), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 . (192.168.2.1) 1.918 ms 2.806 ms 2.772 ms 2 cpe-65-24-208-1.insight.res.rr.com (65.24.208.1) 29.247 ms 29.654 ms 30.094 ms 3 cpe-69-23-24-117.new.res.rr.com (69.23.24.117) 15.597 ms 23.218 ms 23.581 ms 4 agg24.clmcohib01r.midwest.rr.com (65.29.1.52) 30.581 ms 30.556 ms 31.192 ms 5 be27.clevohek01r.midwest.rr.com (65.29.1.38) 30.580 ms 31.062 ms 31.038 ms 6 bu-ether25.atlngamq47w-bcr01.tbone.rr.com (107.14.19.38) 37.863 ms 68.844 ms 43.773 ms 7 107.14.17.178 (107.14.17.178) 51.866 ms 51.019 ms 50.989 ms 8 ae0.pr1.dca10.tbone.rr.com (107.14.17.200) 48.467 ms ae-4-0.a0.lax91.tbone.rr.com (66.109.1.113) 49.912 ms * 9 v413.core1.ash1.he.net (209.51.175.33) 60.270 ms 50.842 ms 50.819 ms 10 100ge5-1.core1.nyc4.he.net (184.105.223.166) 55.597 ms 56.045 ms 56.020 ms 11 xerocole-inc.10gigabitethernet12-4.core1.nyc4.he.net (216.66.41.242) 56.001 ms 55.969 ms 55.992 ms 12 * * * both show the incorrect IP. Also, the traceroute timesout on hops 12 through 255 (output truncated above). The traceroute using site24x7 works and shows reasonable results when run from their california server. From another linux box on a different network but in the same city as me (10 miles away), I still get timeout for traceroute, however the IP resolves correctly for the domain. From this I believe that the DNS result is incorrectly cached in either my router/modem or perhaps even at my ISP level. My question is, first, how do I find out exactly what is wrong, and second, how do I resolve it.

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  • Paging, sorting and filtering in a stored procedure (SQL Server)

    - by Fruitbat
    I was looking at different ways of writing a stored procedure to return a "page" of data. This was for use with the asp ObjectDataSource, but it could be considered a more general problem. The requirement is to return a subset of the data based on the usual paging paremeters, startPageIndex and maximumRows, but also a sortBy parameter to allow the data to be sorted. Also there are some parameters passed in to filter the data on various conditions. One common way to do this seems to be something like this: [Method 1] ;WITH stuff AS ( SELECT CASE WHEN @SortBy = 'Name' THEN ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Name) WHEN @SortBy = 'Name DESC' THEN ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Name DESC) WHEN @SortBy = ... ELSE ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY whatever) END AS Row, ., ., ., FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ... LEFT JOIN Table3 ... WHERE ... (lots of things to check) ) SELECT * FROM stuff WHERE (Row > @startRowIndex) AND (Row <= @startRowIndex + @maximumRows OR @maximumRows <= 0) ORDER BY Row One problem with this is that it doesn't give the total count and generally we need another stored procedure for that. This second stored procedure has to replicate the parameter list and the complex WHERE clause. Not nice. One solution is to append an extra column to the final select list, (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM stuff) AS TotalRows. This gives us the total but repeats it for every row in the result set, which is not ideal. [Method 2] An interesting alternative is given here (http://www.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/032206-1.aspx) using dynamic SQL. He reckons that the performance is better because the CASE statement in the first solution drags things down. Fair enough, and this solution makes it easy to get the totalRows and slap it into an output parameter. But I hate coding dynamic SQL. All that 'bit of SQL ' + STR(@parm1) +' bit more SQL' gubbins. [Method 3] The only way I can find to get what I want, without repeating code which would have to be synchronised, and keeping things reasonably readable is to go back to the "old way" of using a table variable: DECLARE @stuff TABLE (Row INT, ...) INSERT INTO @stuff SELECT CASE WHEN @SortBy = 'Name' THEN ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Name) WHEN @SortBy = 'Name DESC' THEN ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Name DESC) WHEN @SortBy = ... ELSE ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY whatever) END AS Row, ., ., ., FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ... LEFT JOIN Table3 ... WHERE ... (lots of things to check) SELECT * FROM stuff WHERE (Row > @startRowIndex) AND (Row <= @startRowIndex + @maximumRows OR @maximumRows <= 0) ORDER BY Row (Or a similar method using an IDENTITY column on the table variable). Here I can just add a SELECT COUNT on the table variable to get the totalRows and put it into an output parameter. I did some tests and with a fairly simple version of the query (no sortBy and no filter), method 1 seems to come up on top (almost twice as quick as the other 2). Then I decided to test probably I needed the complexity and I needed the SQL to be in stored procedures. With this I get method 1 taking nearly twice as long as the other 2 methods. Which seems strange. Is there any good reason why I shouldn't spurn CTEs and stick with method 3? UPDATE - 15 March 2012 I tried adapting Method 1 to dump the page from the CTE into a temporary table so that I could extract the TotalRows and then select just the relevant columns for the resultset. This seemed to add significantly to the time (more than I expected). I should add that I'm running this on a laptop with SQL Server Express 2008 (all that I have available) but still the comparison should be valid. I looked again at the dynamic SQL method. It turns out I wasn't really doing it properly (just concatenating strings together). I set it up as in the documentation for sp_executesql (with a parameter description string and parameter list) and it's much more readable. Also this method runs fastest in my environment. Why that should be still baffles me, but I guess the answer is hinted at in Hogan's comment.

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  • Linq2SQL vs NHibernate performance (have I gone mad?)

    - by HeavyWave
    I have written the following tests to compare performance of Linq2SQL and NHibernate and I find results to be somewhat strange. Mappings are straight forward and identical for both. Both are running against a live DB. Although I'm not deleting Campaigns in case of Linq, but that shouldn't affect performance by more than 10 ms. Linq: [Test] public void Test1000ReadsWritesToAgentStateLinqPrecompiled() { Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); Stopwatch swIn = new Stopwatch(); sw.Start(); for (int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { swIn.Reset(); swIn.Start(); ReadWriteAndDeleteAgentStateWithLinqPrecompiled(); swIn.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("Run ReadWriteAndDeleteAgentState: " + swIn.ElapsedMilliseconds + " ms"); } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("Total Time: " + sw.ElapsedMilliseconds + " ms"); Console.WriteLine("Average time to execute queries: " + sw.ElapsedMilliseconds / 1000 + " ms"); } private static readonly Func<AgentDesktop3DataContext, int, EntityModel.CampaignDetail> GetCampaignById = CompiledQuery.Compile<AgentDesktop3DataContext, int, EntityModel.CampaignDetail>( (ctx, sessionId) => (from cd in ctx.CampaignDetails join a in ctx.AgentCampaigns on cd.CampaignDetailId equals a.CampaignDetailId where a.AgentStateId == sessionId select cd).FirstOrDefault()); private void ReadWriteAndDeleteAgentStateWithLinqPrecompiled() { int id = 0; using (var ctx = new AgentDesktop3DataContext()) { EntityModel.AgentState agentState = new EntityModel.AgentState(); var campaign = new EntityModel.CampaignDetail { CampaignName = "Test" }; var campaignDisposition = new EntityModel.CampaignDisposition { Code = "123" }; campaignDisposition.Description = "abc"; campaign.CampaignDispositions.Add(campaignDisposition); agentState.CallState = 3; campaign.AgentCampaigns.Add(new AgentCampaign { AgentState = agentState }); ctx.CampaignDetails.InsertOnSubmit(campaign); ctx.AgentStates.InsertOnSubmit(agentState); ctx.SubmitChanges(); id = agentState.AgentStateId; } using (var ctx = new AgentDesktop3DataContext()) { var dbAgentState = ctx.GetAgentStateById(id); Assert.IsNotNull(dbAgentState); Assert.AreEqual(dbAgentState.CallState, 3); var campaignDetails = GetCampaignById(ctx, id); Assert.AreEqual(campaignDetails.CampaignDispositions[0].Description, "abc"); } using (var ctx = new AgentDesktop3DataContext()) { ctx.DeleteSessionById(id); } } NHibernate (the loop is the same): private void ReadWriteAndDeleteAgentState() { var id = WriteAgentState().Id; StartNewTransaction(); var dbAgentState = agentStateRepository.Get(id); Assert.IsNotNull(dbAgentState); Assert.AreEqual(dbAgentState.CallState, 3); Assert.AreEqual(dbAgentState.Campaigns[0].Dispositions[0].Description, "abc"); var campaignId = dbAgentState.Campaigns[0].Id; agentStateRepository.Delete(dbAgentState); NHibernateSession.Current.Transaction.Commit(); Cleanup(campaignId); NHibernateSession.Current.BeginTransaction(); } Results: NHibernate: Total Time: 9469 ms Average time to execute 13 queries: 9 ms Linq: Total Time: 127200 ms Average time to execute 13 queries: 127 ms Linq lost by 13.5 times! Event with precompiled queries (both read queries are precompiled). This can't be right, although I expected NHibernate to be faster, this is just too big of a difference, considering mappings are identical and NHibernate actually executes more queries against the DB.

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  • Does JUnit4 testclasses require a public no arg constructor?

    - by Thomas Baun
    I have a test class, written in JUnit4 syntax, that can be run in eclipse with the "run as junit test" option without failing. When I run the same test via an ant target I get this error: java.lang.Exception: Test class should have public zero-argument constructor at org.junit.internal.runners.MethodValidator.validateNoArgConstructor(MethodValidator.java:54) at org.junit.internal.runners.MethodValidator.validateAllMethods(MethodValidator.java:39) at org.junit.internal.runners.TestClassRunner.validate(TestClassRunner.java:33) at org.junit.internal.runners.TestClassRunner.<init>(TestClassRunner.java:27) at org.junit.internal.runners.TestClassRunner.<init>(TestClassRunner.java:20) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.java:27) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Constructor.java:513) at org.junit.internal.requests.ClassRequest.getRunner(ClassRequest.java:26) at junit.framework.JUnit4TestAdapter.<init>(JUnit4TestAdapter.java:24) at junit.framework.JUnit4TestAdapter.<init>(JUnit4TestAdapter.java:17) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.java:27) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Constructor.java:513) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.optional.junit.JUnitTestRunner.run(JUnitTestRunner.java:386) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.optional.junit.JUnitTestRunner.launch(JUnitTestRunner.java:911) at org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.optional.junit.JUnitTestRunner.main(JUnitTestRunner.java:768) Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodException: dk.gensam.gaia.business.bonusregulering.TestBonusregulerAftale$Test1Reader.<init>() at java.lang.Class.getConstructor0(Class.java:2706) at java.lang.Class.getConstructor(Class.java:1657) at org.junit.internal.runners.MethodValidator.validateNoArgConstructor(MethodValidator.java:52) I have no public no arg constructor in the class, but is this really necessary? This is my ant target <target name="junit" description="Execute unit tests" depends="compile, jar-test"> <delete dir="tmp/rawtestoutput"/> <delete dir="test-reports"/> <mkdir dir="tmp/rawtestoutput"/> <junit printsummary="true" failureproperty="junit.failure" fork="true"> <classpath refid="class.path.test"/> <classpath refid="class.path.model"/> <classpath refid="class.path.gui"/> <classpath refid="class.path.jfreereport"/> <classpath path="tmp/${test.jar}"></classpath> <batchtest todir="tmp/rawtestoutput"> <fileset dir="${build}/test"> <include name="**/*Test.class" /> <include name="**/Test*.class" /> </fileset> </batchtest> </junit> <junitreport todir="tmp"> <fileset dir="tmp/rawtestoutput"/> <report todir="test-reports"/> </junitreport> <fail if="junit. failure" message="Unit test(s) failed. See reports!"/> </target> The test class have no constructors, but it has an inner class with default modifier. It also have an anonymouse inner class. Both inner classes gives the "Test class should have public zero-argument constructor error". I am using Ant version 1.7.1 and JUnit 4.7

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  • Help Repainting a Line

    - by serhio
    I am doing a custom control (inherited from VisualBasic.PowerPacks.LineShape), that should be painted like as standard one, but also having a Icon displayed near it. So, I just overrided OnPaint like this: protected override void OnPaint(System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs e) { e.Graphics.DrawIcon(myIcon, StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y); base.OnPaint(e); } Now, everything is OK, but when my control moves, the icon still remains drawn on the ancient place. Is there a way to paint it properly? The sample code for tests using Microsoft.VisualBasic.PowerPacks; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Drawing; namespace LineShapeTest { /// /// Test Form /// public class Form1 : Form { IconLineShape myLine = new IconLineShape(); ShapeContainer shapeContainer1 = new ShapeContainer(); Panel panel1 = new Panel(); public Form1() { this.panel1.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; // load your back image here this.panel1.BackgroundImage = global::WindowsApplication22.Properties.Resources._13820t; this.panel1.Controls.Add(shapeContainer1); this.myLine.StartPoint = new Point(20, 30); this.myLine.EndPoint = new Point(80, 120); this.myLine.Parent = this.shapeContainer1; MouseEventHandler panelMouseMove = new MouseEventHandler(this.panel1_MouseMove); this.panel1.MouseMove += panelMouseMove; this.shapeContainer1.MouseMove += panelMouseMove; this.Controls.Add(panel1); } private void panel1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (e.Button == MouseButtons.Left) { myLine.StartPoint = e.Location; } } } /// /// Test LineShape /// public class IconLineShape : LineShape { Icon myIcon = SystemIcons.Exclamation; protected override void OnPaint(System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs e) { e.Graphics.DrawIcon(myIcon, StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y); base.OnPaint(e); } } } Nota Bene, for the lineShape: Parent = ShapeContainer Parent.Parent = Panel Update 1 TRACES In this variant of OnPaint, we have traces: protected override void OnPaint(System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs e) { Graphics g = Parent.Parent.CreateGraphics(); g.DrawIcon(myIcon, StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y); base.OnPaint(e); } Update 2 BLINKS In this variant of OnPaint, we have a blinking image: protected override void OnPaint(System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs e) { Parent.Parent.Invalidate(this.Region, true); Graphics g = Parent.Parent.CreateGraphics(); g.DrawIcon(myIcon, StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y); base.OnPaint(e); } Update 3: External Invalidation This variant works well, but... from exterior of IconLineShape class: private void panel1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (e.Button == MouseButtons.Left) { Region r = myLine.Region; myLine.StartPoint = e.Location; panel1.Invalidate(r); } } /// /// Test LineShape /// public class IconLineShape : LineShape { Icon myIcon = SystemIcons.Exclamation; Graphics parentGraphics; protected override void OnPaint(System.Windows.Forms.PaintEventArgs e) { parentGraphics.DrawIcon(myIcon, StartPoint.X, StartPoint.Y); base.OnPaint(e); } protected override void OnParentChanged(System.EventArgs e) { // Parent is a ShapeContainer // Parent.Parent is a Panel parentGraphics = Parent.Parent.CreateGraphics(); base.OnParentChanged(e); } } Even this resolves the problem of the test example, I need this control to be done inside the control, because I can't force the external "clients" of this control do not forget to save the old region and invalidate the parent each time changing a location...

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  • Deployment Workbench no longer available after PXE boot

    - by Patrick
    Our build process revolves around windows Deployment Workbench. Unfortunately this was setup by someone who is no longer with the company, and no-one has ever dared/needed to make any changes. The other day it stopped working. It turns out that one of our build guys started thinking about changing some stuff in it, clicked something and now it no longer works (He is saying now that he right clicked on the 'LAB' entry in 'Deployment points' and hit 'Update', which took some time to run through apparently). The job has fallen on me to resolve and frankly I'm not sure what I'm doing. I was wondering if someone with more experience than me can provide some pointers as to troubleshooting cos I'm feeling quite a lot in the dark here. On the server I have Deployment Workbench up and running (MMC snapin) version 3.0. There is a WDS service that appears to be running ok, as does the tFTPd service. Nothing specific to this in event logs. From the client side; PXE boot works and gets you to the Win PE launch, and it has the correct company logo as the background (proving to me that its loading win PE from the network). WPEINIT runs, and asks for domain credentials, here the team simply put User/Pass/Domain in the boxes and click ok. Normally the build would kick off. Instead they get an error message saying that the \NATBLU01\Distribution$ share isn't available. Checking \NATBLU01\Distribution$ shows that its there and accessible over the network. Security/permissions seem ok, even 'ANONYMOUS LOGON' has read access to that share so I don't see that being a problem. Digging the trace files from C:\MININT\SMSOSD\OSDLOGS\ after an attempt to run the build I can see an error saying much the same - <![LOG[Validating connection to \\NATBLU01\Distribution$]LOG]!><time="16:42:14.000+000" date="03-15-2012" component="LiteTouch" context="" type="1" thread="" file="LiteTouch"> <![LOG[FindFile: The file OSDConnectToUNC.exe could not be found in any standard locations.]LOG]!><time="16:42:14.000+000" date="03-15-2012" component="LiteTouch" context="" type="1" thread="" file="LiteTouch"> <![LOG[The network location cannot be reached. For information about network troubleshooting, see Windows Help.]LOG]!><time="16:42:24.000+000" date="03-15-2012" component="LiteTouch" context="" type="3" thread="" file="LiteTouch"> <![LOG[ERROR - Unable to map a network drive to \\NATBLU01\Distribution$.]LOG]!><time="16:42:24.000+000" date="03-15-2012" component="LiteTouch" context="" type="3" thread="" file="LiteTouch"> BDD.LOG shows much the same. Full copies of the .LOG files can both files be found here : BDD.LOG LITETOUCH.LOG I can get to a command prompt from the Win PE that boots from PXE, however there isn't any network stuff there. IPCONFIG returns nothing so none of the tests I would usually run resolve anything. I'm at a loss frankly. I did wonder if I could perhaps start a new build process but if the change to the DeploymentWorkbench has knocked it offline I don't think I'm going to be able to create a new deployment. Failing that; we do have a deployment point labeled type 'Media' which appears to be a DVD ISO image of one of the builds, but its dated 2008, is it possible to export the network build to .ISO and build from DVD? We are looking at new hardware to run this from anyway (for the impending Windows 7 roll out) so a temporary work round isn't going to be too much of a problem. All assistance is appreciated! EDIT : OK. Got it working again. Solution was close to Newmanth's idea. The problem was that our PE image didn't appear to be connecting the network. I had an older copy of the PE boot.WIM on a stick that I had been using for other purposes. I booted that and correctly got a network connection. Showed a correct internal IP and could ping out etc etc. However I was still getting the same errors in all the logs and in when wpeinit was running. What I did seperately was to update the PE image that DeploymentWorkbench was pushing out to display a different back ground. I wanted to prove that I was working in the correct place. Turns out that I wasn't. I went and looked at the other deployment stuff we had on this machine, Windows Deployment Services was installed and although all the install images are off line the boot image was online, so I uploaded the copy from my stick to that. Booted straight off. And fixed. Working. Yay! For anyone stumbling across this in the future you may find that although your deployment images are located in the DeploymentWorkbench, the Win PE boot image you are launching from is located in the associated Windows Deployment Services images.

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  • Is this a right way to use NHibernate?

    - by Venemo
    I spent the rest of the evening reading StackOverflow questions and also some blog entries and links about the subject. All of them turned out to be very helpful, but I still feel that they don't really answer my question. So, I'm developing a simple web application. I'd like to create a reusable data access layer which I can later reuse in other solutions. 99% of these will be web applications. This seems to be a good excuse for me to learn NHibernate and some of the patterns around it. My goals are the following: I don't want the business logic layer to know ANYTHING about the inner workings of the database, nor NHibernate itself. I want the business logic layer to have the least possible number of assumptions about the data access layer. I want the data access layer as simplistic and easy-to-use as possible. This is going to be a simple project, so I don't want to overcomplicate anything. I want the data access layer to be as non-intrusive as possible. Will all this in mind, I decided to use the popular repository pattern. I read about this subject on this site and on various dev blogs, and I heard some stuff about the unit of work pattern. I also looked around and checked out various implementations. (Including FubuMVC contrib, and SharpArchitecture, and stuff on some blogs.) I found out that most of these operate with the same principle: They create a "unit of work" which is instantiated when a repository is instantiated, they start a transaction, do stuff, and commit, and then start all over again. So, only one ISession per Repository and that's it. Then the client code needs to instantiate a repository, do stuff with it, and then dispose. This usage pattern doesn't meet my need of being as simplistic as possible, so I began thinking about something else. I found out that NHibernate already has something which makes custom "unit of work" implementations unnecessary, and that is the CurrentSessionContext class. If I configure the session context correctly, and do the clean up when necessary, I'm good to go. So, I came up with this: I have a static class called NHibernateHelper. Firstly, it has a static property called CurrentSessionFactory, which upon first call, instantiates a session factory and stores it in a static field. (One ISessionFactory per one AppDomain is good enough.) Then, more importantly, it has a CurrentSession static property, which checks if there is an ISession bound to the current session context, and if not, creates one, and binds it, and it returns with the ISession bound to the current session context. Because it will be used mostly with WebSessionContext (so, one ISession per HttpRequest, although for the unit tests, I configured ThreadStaticSessionContext), it should work seamlessly. And after creating and binding an ISession, it hooks an event handler to the HttpContext.Current.ApplicationInstance.EndRequest event, which takes care of cleaning up the ISession after the request ends. (Of course, it only does this if it is really running in a web environment.) So, with all this set up, the NHibernateHelper will always be able to return a valid ISession, so there is no need to instantiate a Repository instance for the "unit of work" to operate properly. Instead, the Repository is a static class which operates with the ISession from the NHibernateHelper.CurrentSession property, and exposes some functionality through that. I'm curious, what do you think about this? Is it a valid way of thinking, or am I completely off track here?

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  • Why is an inverse loop faster than a normal loop (test included)

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have been running some small tests in PHP on loops. I do not know if my method is good. I have found that a inverse loop is faster than a normal loop. I have also found that a while-loop is faster than a for-loop. Setup <?php $counter = 10000000; $w=0;$x=0;$y=0;$z=0; $wstart=0;$xstart=0;$ystart=0;$zstart=0; $wend=0;$xend=0;$yend=0;$zend=0; $wstart = microtime(true); for($w=0; $w<$counter; $w++){ echo ''; } $wend = microtime(true); echo "normal for: " . ($wend - $wstart) . "<br />"; $xstart = microtime(true); for($x=$counter; $x>0; $x--){ echo ''; } $xend = microtime(true); echo "inverse for: " . ($xend - $xstart) . "<br />"; echo "<hr> normal - inverse: " . (($wend - $wstart) - ($xend - $xstart)) . "<hr>"; $ystart = microtime(true); $y=0; while($y<$counter){ echo ''; $y++; } $yend = microtime(true); echo "normal while: " . ($yend - $ystart) . "<br />"; $zstart = microtime(true); $z=$counter; while($z>0){ echo ''; $z--; } $zend = microtime(true); echo "inverse while: " . ($zend - $zstart) . "<br />"; echo "<hr> normal - inverse: " . (($yend - $ystart) - ($zend - $zstart)) . "<hr>"; echo "<hr> inverse for - inverse while: " . (($xend - $xstart) - ($zend - $zstart)) . "<hr>"; ?> Average Results The difference in for-loop normal for: 1.0908501148224 inverse for: 1.0212800502777 normal - inverse: 0.069570064544678 The difference in while-loop normal while: 1.0395669937134 inverse while: 0.99321985244751 normal - inverse: 0.046347141265869 The difference in for-loop and while-loop inverse for - inverse while: 0.0280601978302 Questions My question is can someone explain these differences in results? And is my method of benchmarking been correct?

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  • I'm looking for an online ASP.NET tutor.

    - by pkiyan
    $15/hr. I know it's not much but... Hi. I'm looking for an ASP.NET tutor. I want to use a remote desktop application so we can see each others screens and use Skype or phone to communicate with. You won't need to come up with any lessons or anything like that. I was thinking we could spend an hour or two each time we logged in to build a decent sized website from scratch. That's basically it. I'm a beginner with about 2 months experience with ASP.NET so we won't have to start from the very beginning, but pretty close. I wanted this site to have a little complexity to it and not just a website for beginners, but something I could study for a while. I'll pay you through PayPal or some other method if you prefer. By the way, it doesn't have to be a website that we work on together. I'll listen to other suggestions too. Maybe we could use an open source site/app to walk-through and study and modify. I've looked at 'My Web Pages Starter Kit 1.30', 'SubText 2.1.2', 'nopCommerce 1.5', and some others. They were all beyond me, and I couldn't make sense of any of the source code. But if you use and are really familiar with an open source app/site that I can download, we could study that. Here are some technical specs about the site I'd like to build/study: ASP.NET 2.0+ (preferably 3.5+, but I don't really care) C# / VB.NET ( don't really care, I suck at both. This is more about ASP.NET and helping me understand the structure of an ASP.NET website and the .NET framework in general. ) SQL Server ( I have SQL Server 2008 express and would someday like to learn how to use this thing. ) JavaScript / AJAX ( at least some use of this ) XML ( basically, I'd like to spend some time in the web.config file, and have some sense of what's going on in there. ) ASP.NET Folders ( I'd like to work with all of the ASP.NET folders if possible: App_Code, App_GlobalResources, etc.. and understand what does/doesn't go in them. Hopefully we can build more than one theme too. ) Assemblies ( how do you create a .dll and use it across different websites? maybe you could suggest a third party .dll that we could use ) Web Service ( I read about this once but didn't really get it ) I can't think of anything else but the above will definitely keep me busy. Hopefully we could make use of a lot of the server controls too (the nav controls gave me a headache when I tried customizing them). Is someone willing to help? I'll pay through PayPal 15 bucks an hour. I live in the Dallas, Texas (US) area so we'd have to synchronize time zones and agree on a day(s)/time of the week. I prefer working at night and on the weekends because I work during the week but whatever your schedule allows too. If you'd like to help me, can you post: years of experience with ASP.NET, your Time zone and time you're available and any ideas you might have about how you'd like to tutor? THANK YOU.

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  • My server app works strangely. What could be the reason(s)?

    - by Poni
    Hi! I've written a server app (two parts actually; proxy server and a game server) using C++ (board game). It uses IOCP as the sockets interface. For that app I've also written a "client simulator" (hereafter "client") app that spawns many client connections, where each of them plays, in very high speed, getting the CPU to be 100% utilized. So, that's how it goes in terms of topology: Game server - holds the game state. Real players do not connect it directly but through the proxy server. When a player joins a game, the proxy actually asks for it on behalf of that player, and the game server spawns a "player instance" for that player, and from now on, every notification between the game server and the player is being passed through the proxy. Proxy server - holds TCP connections with the real players. Players communicate with the game server through it only. Client simulator - connects to the proxy only. When running the server (again, it's actually two server apps) & client locally it all works just fine. I'm talking about 40k+ player instances in which all of them are active in a game. On the other hand, when running the server remotely with, say, 1000 clients who play things getting strange. For example, I run it as said above. Then with Task Manager I kill the client simulator app ("End Process Tree"). Then it seems like the buffer of the remote server got modified by another thread, or in other words, a memory corruption has been occurred. The server crashes because it got an unknown message id (it's a custom protocol where each message has it's own unique number). To make things clear, here is how I run the apps: PC1 - game server and clients simulator (because the clients will connect the proxy). PC2 - proxy server. The strangest thing is this: Only the remote side gets "corrupted". Remote in terms that it's not the PC I use to code the app (VC++ 2008). Let's call the PC I use to code the apps "PC1". Now for example, if this time I ran the game server on PC1 (it means that proxy server on PC2 and clients simulator on PC1), then the proxy server crashes with an "unknown message id" error. Another variation is when I run the proxy server on PC1 (again, the dev machine), the game server and the clients simulator on PC2, then the game server on PC2 gets crashed. As for the IOCP config: The servers' internal connections use the default receive/send buffer sizes. Tried even with setting them to 1MB, but no luck. I have three PCs in total; 2 x Vista 64bit <<-- one of those is the dev machine. The other is connected through WiFi. 1 x WinXP 32bit They're all connected in a "full duplex" manner. What could be the reason? Tried about everything; Stack tracing, recording some actions (like read/write logging).. I want to stress that only the PC I'm not using to code the apps crashes (actually the server app "role" which is running on it - sometimes the game server and sometimes the proxy server). At first I thought that maybe the wireless PC has problems (it's wireless..) but: TCP has it's own mechanisms to make sure the packet is delivered properly. Also, a crash also happens when trying it with the two PCs that are physically connected (Vista vs. XP). Another option is that the Windows DLLs versions might have problems, but then again, one of the tests is Vista vs. Vista, and the other is Vista vs. XP. Any idea?

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  • DSP - Filtering in the frequency domain via FFT

    - by Trap
    I've been playing around a little with the Exocortex implementation of the FFT, but I'm having some problems. Whenever I modify the amplitudes of the frequency bins before calling the iFFT the resulting signal contains some clicks and pops, especially when low frequencies are present in the signal (like drums or basses). However, this does not happen if I attenuate all the bins by the same factor. Let me put an example of the output buffer of a 4-sample FFT: // Bin 0 (DC) FFTOut[0] = 0.0000610351563 FFTOut[1] = 0.0 // Bin 1 FFTOut[2] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[3] = 0.000629425049 // Bin 2 FFTOut[4] = -0.0000381469727 FFTOut[5] = 0.0 // Bin 3, this is the first and only negative frequency bin. FFTOut[6] = 0.000331878662 FFTOut[7] = -0.000629425049 The output is composed of pairs of floats, each representing the real and imaginay parts of a single bin. So, bin 0 (array indexes 0, 1) would represent the real and imaginary parts of the DC frequency. As you can see, bins 1 and 3 both have the same values, (except for the sign of the Im part), so I guess bin 3 is the first negative frequency, and finally indexes (4, 5) would be the last positive frequency bin. Then to attenuate the frequency bin 1 this is what I do: // Attenuate the 'positive' bin FFTOut[2] *= 0.5; FFTOut[3] *= 0.5; // Attenuate its corresponding negative bin. FFTOut[6] *= 0.5; FFTOut[7] *= 0.5; For the actual tests I'm using a 1024-length FFT and I always provide all the samples so no 0-padding is needed. // Attenuate var halfSize = fftWindowLength / 2; float leftFreq = 0f; float rightFreq = 22050f; for( var c = 1; c < halfSize; c++ ) { var freq = c * (44100d / halfSize); // Calc. positive and negative frequency indexes. var k = c * 2; var nk = (fftWindowLength - c) * 2; // This kind of attenuation corresponds to a high-pass filter. // The attenuation at the transition band is linearly applied, could // this be the cause of the distortion of low frequencies? var attn = (freq < leftFreq) ? 0 : (freq < rightFreq) ? ((freq - leftFreq) / (rightFreq - leftFreq)) : 1; // Attenuate positive and negative bins. mFFTOut[ k ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ k + 1 ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk ] *= (float)attn; mFFTOut[ nk + 1 ] *= (float)attn; } Obviously I'm doing something wrong but can't figure out what. I don't want to use the FFT output as a means to generate a set of FIR coefficients since I'm trying to implement a very basic dynamic equalizer. What's the correct way to filter in the frequency domain? what I'm missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Sending multiple requests simultaneously to the Server using Selenium with Java

    - by gagneet
    I wish to send multiple requests to the server, simultaneously. The problem statement will be: Read a text file containing multiple URL’s. Open each URL in the web browser. Collect the Cookie information for each call, and store it to a file. Send another call: http://myserver.com:1111/cookie?out=text Store the output (body text) of this file to a separate file for each call made in 4 Open the next URL in the text file given in 1 and repeat steps 1-6. The above is to be run with multi-threading, so that I can send around 5-10 URL requests simultaneously. I have implemented something in Selenium using Java, but have not been able to do the multi-threading approach. Code is given below: package com.cookie.selenium; import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.BufferedWriter; import java.io.FileReader; import java.io.FileWriter; import java.io.IOException; import com.thoughtworks.selenium.*; public class ReadURL extends SeleneseTestCase { public void setUp() throws Exception { setUp("http://www.myserver.com/", "*chrome"); } public static void main(String args[]) { Selenium selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, "*chrome", "http://myserver"); selenium.start(); selenium.setTimeout("30000000"); try { BufferedReader inputfile = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("C:\\url.txt")); BufferedReader cookietextfile = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("C:\\text.txt")); BufferedWriter cookiefile = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter("C:\\cookie.txt")); BufferedWriter outputfile = null; String str; String cookiestr = "http://myserver.com:1111/cookie?out=text"; String filename = null; int i = 0; while ((str = inputfile.readLine()) != null) { selenium.createCookie("T=222redHyt345&f=5&r=fg&t=100",""); selenium.open( str ); selenium.waitForPageToLoad("120000"); String urlcookie = selenium.getCookie(); System.out.println( "URL :" + str ); System.out.println( "Cookie :" + urlcookie ); cookiefile.write( urlcookie ); cookiefile.newLine(); selenium.open( cookiestr ); selenium.waitForPageToLoad("120000"); String bodytext = selenium.getBodyText(); System.out.println("Body Text :" + bodytext); filename = "C:\\cookies\\" + i + ".txt"; outputfile = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter( filename )); outputfile.write( bodytext ); outputfile.newLine(); i++; } inputfile.close(); outputfile.close(); cookiefile.close(); selenium.stop(); } catch (IOException e) { } } } What basically I am trying to do here is, open the first set of URL from a text file (which has list given of all the URL's i wish to open). Then when I capture the cookie information from here and store it, I open another window to output all the cookie information for that server to my browser window. This works fine when I do outside of Selenium code, but when I do it within the above code, it opens a "Save As..." popup and my tests stop. :-( I wish to save the contents of that second call to a new file, but have not been able to do the same. Also, if I have to send multiple such requests to the server, how would that be possible in Java using a Selenium Framework. Currently, I am opening multiple instances of the framework and running them with different parameters :-(

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  • Game AI: Pattern for implementing Sense-Think-Act components?

    - by Rosarch
    I'm developing a game. Each entity in the game is a GameObject. Each GameObject is composed of a GameObjectController, GameObjectModel, and GameObjectView. (Or inheritants thereof.) For NPCs, the GameObjectController is split into: IThinkNPC: reads current state and makes a decision about what to do IActNPC: updates state based on what needs to be done ISenseNPC: reads current state to answer world queries (eg "am I being in the shadows?") My question: Is this ok for the ISenseNPC interface? public interface ISenseNPC { // ... /// <summary> /// True if `dest` is a safe point to which to retreat. /// </summary> /// <param name="dest"></param> /// <param name="angleToThreat"></param> /// <param name="range"></param> /// <returns></returns> bool IsSafeToRetreat(Vector2 dest, float angleToThreat, float range); /// <summary> /// Finds a new location to which to retreat. /// </summary> /// <param name="angleToThreat"></param> /// <returns></returns> Vector2 newRetreatDest(float angleToThreat); /// <summary> /// Returns the closest LightSource that illuminates the NPC. /// Null if the NPC is not illuminated. /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> ILightSource ClosestIlluminatingLight(); /// <summary> /// True if the NPC is sufficiently far away from target. /// Assumes that target is the only entity it could ever run from. /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> bool IsSafeFromTarget(); } None of the methods take any parameters. Instead, the implementation is expected to maintain a reference to the relevant GameObjectController and read that. However, I'm now trying to write unit tests for this. Obviously, it's necessary to use mocking, since I can't pass arguments directly. The way I'm doing it feels really brittle - what if another implementation comes along that uses the world query utilities in a different way? Really, I'm not testing the interface, I'm testing the implementation. Poor. The reason I used this pattern in the first place was to keep IThinkNPC implementation code clean: public BehaviorState RetreatTransition(BehaviorState currentBehavior) { if (sense.IsCollidingWithTarget()) { NPCUtils.TraceTransitionIfNeeded(ToString(), BehaviorState.ATTACK.ToString(), "is colliding with target"); return BehaviorState.ATTACK; } if (sense.IsSafeFromTarget() && sense.ClosestIlluminatingLight() == null) { return BehaviorState.WANDER; } if (sense.ClosestIlluminatingLight() != null && sense.SeesTarget()) { NPCUtils.TraceTransitionIfNeeded(ToString(), BehaviorState.ATTACK.ToString(), "collides with target"); return BehaviorState.CHASE; } return currentBehavior; } Perhaps the cleanliness isn't worth it, however. So, if ISenseNPC takes all the params it needs every time, I could make it static. Is there any problem with that?

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  • C++ template function specialization using TCHAR on Visual Studio 2005

    - by Eli
    I'm writing a logging class that uses a templatized operator<< function. I'm specializing the template function on wide-character string so that I can do some wide-to-narrow translation before writing the log message. I can't get TCHAR to work properly - it doesn't use the specialization. Ideas? Here's the pertinent code: // Log.h header class Log { public: template <typename T> Log& operator<<( const T& x ); template <typename T> Log& operator<<( const T* x ); template <typename T> Log& operator<<( const T*& x ); ... } template <typename T> Log& Log::operator<<( const T& input ) { printf("ref"); } template <typename T> Log& Log::operator<<( const T* input ) { printf("ptr"); } template <> Log& Log::operator<<( const std::wstring& input ); template <> Log& Log::operator<<( const wchar_t* input ); And the source file // Log.cpp template <> Log& Log::operator<<( const std::wstring& input ) { printf("wstring ref"); } template <> Log& Log::operator<<( const wchar_t* input ) { printf("wchar_t ptr"); } template <> Log& Log::operator<<( const TCHAR*& input ) { printf("tchar ptr ref"); } Now, I use the following test program to exercise these functions // main.cpp - test program int main() { Log log; log << "test 1"; log << L"test 2"; std::string test3( "test3" ); log << test3; std::wstring test4( L"test4" ); log << test4; TCHAR* test5 = L"test5"; log << test4; } Running the above tests reveals the following: // Test results ptr wchar_t ptr ref wstring ref ref Unfortunately, that's not quite right. I'd really like the last one to be "TCHAR", so that I can convert it. According to Visual Studio's debugger, the when I step in to the function being called in test 5, the type is wchar_t*& - but it's not calling the appropriate specialization. Ideas? I'm not sure if it's pertinent or not, but this is on a Windows CE 5.0 device.

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  • How to overlay a div (or any element) over a table row (tr)?

    - by slolife
    I'd like to overlay a div (or any element that'll work) over a table row (tr tag) that happens to have more than one column. I have tried a few methods, which don't seem to work. I've posted my current code below. I do get an overlay, but not directly over just the row. I tried setting the overlay top to $divBottom.css('top'), but that is always 'auto'. So, am I on the right track, or is there a better way of doing it? Utilizing jQuery is fine as you can see. If I am on the right track, how do I get the div placed correctly? Is the offsetTop an offset in the containing element, the table, and I need to do some math? Any other gotchas I'll run into with that? <html> <head> <title>Overlay Tests</title> <style> #rowBottom { outline:red solid 2px } #divBottom { margin:1em; font-size:xx-large; position:relative; } #divOverlay { background-color:Silver; text-align:center; position:absolute; z-index:10000; opacity:0.5; } </style> </head> <body> <p align="center"><a id="lnkDoIt" href="#">Do it!</a></p> <table width="100%" border="0" cellpadding="10" cellspacing="3" style="position:relative"> <tr> <td><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.</p></td> </tr> <tr id="rowBottom"> <td><div id="divBottom"><p align="center">This is the bottom text</p></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.</p></td> </tr> </table> <div id="divOverlay" style=""><p>This is the overlay div.</p><p id="info"></p></div> <script src="../includes/javascript/jquery/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#lnkDoIt').click(function() { var $divBottom = $('#rowBottom'); var $divOverlay = $('#divOverlay'); var bottomTop = $divBottom.attr('offsetTop'); var bottomLeft = $divBottom.attr('offsetLeft'); var bottomWidth = $divBottom.css('width'); var bottomHeight = $divBottom.css('height'); $divOverlay.css('top', bottomTop); $divOverlay.css('left', bottomLeft); $divOverlay.css('width', bottomWidth); $divOverlay.css('height', bottomHeight); $('#info').text('Top: ' + bottomTop + ' Left: ' + bottomLeft); }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • Sometimes big delay when using PHP mail()

    - by Robbert Dam
    I have a website which processes orders from a Windows application. This works as follows: User clicks "Order now" in the windows app App uploads a file with POST to a PHP script The script immediately calls the PHP mail() function (order is not stored in a db) This works fine most of the time. However, sometimes a big delay occurs (several days). Customers calls why the product has not yet been delivered. E-mail headers of delayed mail follows: Microsoft Mail Internet Headers Version 2.0 Received: from barracuda.nkl.nl ([10.0.0.1]) by smtp.nkl.nl with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.3959); Wed, 26 May 2010 16:26:51 +0200 X-ASG-Debug-ID: 1274883818-2f8800000000-X58hIK X-Barracuda-URL: http://10.0.0.1:8000/cgi-bin/mark.cgi Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by barracuda.nkl.nl (Spam & Virus Firewall) with ESMTP id ECAFD15776A for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:38 +0200 (CEST) Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (server45.firstfind.nl [93.94.226.76]) by barracuda.nkl.nl with ESMTP id 85bAT2AU58kkxjPb for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:38 +0200 (CEST) X-Barracuda-Envelope-From: [email protected] Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Debian-3+etch1) with ESMTP id o4QEM3Hb004301 for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:31 +0200 Received: (from nklsemin@localhost) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Submit) id o4J9lA7M031307; Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 Date: Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 Message-Id: <[email protected]> To: [email protected] X-ASG-Orig-Subj: easyfit - ref: Hoen3443 Subject: easyfit - ref: Hoen3443 X-PHP-Script: www.nklseminar.nl/emailer/upload.php for 77.61.220.217 From: [email protected] Content-type: text/html X-Virus-Scanned: by amavisd-new X-Barracuda-Connect: server45.firstfind.nl[93.94.226.76] X-Barracuda-Start-Time: 1274883820 X-Barracuda-Bayes: INNOCENT GLOBAL 0.0000 1.0000 -2.0210 X-Barracuda-Virus-Scanned: by Barracuda Spam & Virus Firewall at nkl.nl X-Barracuda-Spam-Score: 0.92 X-Barracuda-Spam-Status: No, SCORE=0.92 using global scores of TAG_LEVEL=2.0 QUARANTINE_LEVEL=1000.0 KILL_LEVEL=3.0 tests=DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX, DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2, HTML_MESSAGE, MIME_HEADER_CTYPE_ONLY, MIME_HTML_ONLY, NO_REAL_NAME X-Barracuda-Spam-Report: Code version 3.2, rules version 3.2.2.30817 Rule breakdown below pts rule name description ---- ---------------------- -------------------------------------------------- 0.00 NO_REAL_NAME From: does not include a real name 0.01 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX Date: is 96 hours or more before Received: date 0.00 MIME_HTML_ONLY BODY: Message only has text/html MIME parts 0.00 HTML_MESSAGE BODY: HTML included in message 0.86 MIME_HEADER_CTYPE_ONLY 'Content-Type' found without required MIME headers 2.07 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2 DATE_IN_PAST_96_XX_2 Return-Path: [email protected] X-OriginalArrivalTime: 26 May 2010 14:26:51.0343 (UTC) FILETIME=[7B80DDF0:01CAFCDF] The delay seems to occur here: Received: from server45.firstfind.nl (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Debian-3+etch1) with ESMTP id o4QEM3Hb004301 for <[email protected]>; Wed, 26 May 2010 16:23:31 +0200 Received: (from nklsemin@localhost) by server45.firstfind.nl (8.13.8/8.13.8/Submit) id o4J9lA7M031307; Wed, 19 May 2010 11:47:10 +0200 I've reported this issue various times to the web hosting service that hosts my website. They say the delay does not occur in their network (impossible). But they do confirm that the e-mail is first seen in their mail server on May 26, which is 7 days after the mail has been composed. The order is marked with the timestamp of the user's local PC, which also matches May 19 (so it's not a PC clock problem) It's also interesting to see that all delayed mails (orders were placed on different days) come in at once. So I suddenly receive 14 e-mail in my mailbox from various days. Any idea were this delay may be introduced? Could there be a bug in my PHP code that causes this? (I cannot believe I can introduce a loop of 7 days in my PHP code)

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  • Cannot get focus on new opened tab with selenium IDE

    - by Goueg83460
    I'm trying to create some web test with selenium IDE. But I have one problem when I click on a javascript link it opened a new tab. I need perform some check on this new tab but I can't get he focus that is still in main page. I tried several things that I'ad search on google without succeed to do it works. I hope that someone can help me. Thanks in advance. Update: So I tried several things and I tink I'm on a good way. I can get windows names with : StoreAllWindowNames names echo names=${name} I have something like: , 987dfg4545sdfgsd It seems that value before "," is the NULL so the default page and the other value is the name of my page. But I'm not able to open it with a selectWindow. Does someone know how should I do it ?? Thanks in advance. More info about my selenium tests: <tr> <td>setSpeed</td> <td>1000</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>selectWindow</td> <td>null</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>click</td> <td>link=Show Tree...</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>storeAllWindowNames</td> <td>names</td> <td>array</td> </tr> <tr> <td>echo</td> <td>${names}</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>waitForPopUp</td> <td>${names}</td> <td>30000</td> </tr> <tr> <td>selectWindow</td> <td>name=${names}</td> <td></td> </tr> <tr> <td>clickAndWait</td> <td>link=Search</td> <td></td> </tr> Results: * [info] Executing: |setSpeed | 1000 | | * [info] Executing: |selectWindow | null | | * [info] Executing: |click | link=Show Tree... | | * [info] Executing: |storeAllWindowNames | names | array | * [info] Executing: |echo | ${names} | | * [info] echo: ,bdae1e119a367a54 * [info] Executing: |waitForPopUp | ${names} | 30000 | * [error] Timed out after 30000ms * [info] Executing: |selectWindow | name=${names} | | * [error] Window does not exist. If this looks like a Selenium bug, make sure to read http://seleniumhq.org/docs/04_selenese_commands.html#alerts-popups-and-multiple-windows for potential workarounds. Where bdae1e119a367a54 is the dynamic value that I want to get. I found a mach that someone done but it does not works for me it return null http://old.nabble.com/How-can-I-access-the-second,-third..-element-of-a-stored-array--td9393201.html

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  • Is asp.net caching my sql results?

    - by Christian W
    I have the following method in an App_Code/Globals.cs file: public static XmlDataSource getXmlSourceFromOrgid(int orgid) { XmlDataSource xds = new XmlDataSource(); var ctx = new SensusDataContext(); SqlConnection c = new SqlConnection(ctx.Connection.ConnectionString); c.Open(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(String.Format("select orgid, tekst, dbo.GetOrgTreeXML({0}) as Subtree from tblOrg where OrgID = {0}", orgid), c); var rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); rdr.Read(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.AppendFormat("&lt;node orgid=\"{0}\" tekst=\"{1}\"&gt;",rdr.GetInt32(0),rdr.GetString(1)); sb.Append(rdr.GetString(2)); sb.Append("&lt;/node&gt;"); xds.Data = sb.ToString(); xds.ID = "treedata"; rdr.Close(); c.Close(); return xds; } This gives me an XML-structure to use with the asp.net treeview control (I also use the CssFriendly extender to get nicer code) My problem is that if I logon on my pc with a code that gives me access on a lower level in the tree hierarchy (it's an orgianization hierarchy), it somehow "remembers" what level i logon at. So when my coworker tests from her computer with another code, giving access to another place in the tree, she get's the same tree as me. (The tree is supposed to show your own level and down.) I have added a html-comment to show what orgid it passes to the function, and the orgid passed is correct. So either the treeview caches something serverside, or the sqlquery caches it's result somehow... Any ideas? Sql function: ALTER function [dbo].[GetOrgTreeXML](@orgid int) returns XML begin RETURN (select org.orgid as '@orgid', org.tekst as '@tekst', [dbo].GetOrgTreeXML(org.orgid) from tblOrg org where (@orgid is null and Eier is null) or Eier=@orgid for XML PATH('NODE'), TYPE) end Extra code as requested: int orgid = int.Parse(Session["org"].ToString()); string orgname = context.Orgs.Where(q => q.OrgID == orgid).First().Tekst; debuglit.Text = String.Format("<!-- Id: {0} \n name: {1} -->", orgid, orgname); var orgxml = Globals.getXmlSourceFromOrgid(orgid); tvNavtree.DataSource = orgxml; tvNavtree.DataBind(); Where "debuglit" is a asp:Literal in the aspx file. EDIT: I have narrowed it down. All functions returns correct values. It just doesn't bind to it. I suspect the CssFriendly adapter to have something to do with it. I disabled the CssFriendly adapter and the problem persists... Stepping through it in debug it's correct all the way, with the stepper standing on "tvNavtree.DataBind();" I can hover the pointer over the tvNavtree.Datasource and see that it actually has the correct data. So something must be faulting in the binding process...

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