Search Results

Search found 9051 results on 363 pages for 'apply templates'.

Page 314/363 | < Previous Page | 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321  | Next Page >

  • Why does applying this gradient style break my silverlight app ?

    - by Robotsushi
    I am having some issues with applying a gradient to a RadButton. I have a gradient definition in my styles resource dictionairy like so : <LinearGradientBrush x:Key="GridView_HeaderBackground" EndPoint="0.5,1" StartPoint="0.5,0"> <GradientStop Color="#FF5B5B5B" Offset="1"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF868686"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF4F4F4F" Offset="0.42"/> <GradientStop Color="#FF0E0E0E" Offset="0.43"/> </LinearGradientBrush> When i apply this gradient directly to the background of a RadButton everything works. Here is the button and the template definition: Button <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" Background="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> However when applying this gradient in the resource dictionary, my application will not load it simply gets to the silverlight loading screen and then never proceeds Here is the button and template which breaks my app. Button: <telerik:RadButton Margin="5,10,5,0" Click="RadButton_Click" Tag="30" Content="30 Days" Style="{StaticResource SliderButton}" /> Template: <!-- Style Template for Slider RadButton --> <Style x:Key="SliderButton" TargetType="telerik:RadButton"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{StaticResource GridView_HeaderBackground}" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="30" /> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="#FFFFFF" /> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0" /> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="5,2" /> </Style> When i observe the js error console in google chrome i notice the following error is produced: "Cannot find a resource with the name/key ResourceWrapper"

    Read the article

  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

    Read the article

  • CSS Brace Styles

    - by Nimbuz
    I'm unable to figure how the standard (or just popular) brace style names apply to CSS. Here're all the brace styles: /* one - pico? */ selector { property: value; property: value; } /* two */ selector { property: value; /* declaration starts on newline */ property: value; } /* three */ selector { property: value; property: value; } /* four - Allman or GNU?*/ selector { property: value; /* declaration starts on newline */ property: value; }? /* five */ selector { property: value; property: value; } /* six - horstmann? */ selector { property: value; /* declaration starts on newline */ property: value; } /* seven - banner?*/ selector { property: value; property: value; } /* eight */ selector { property: value; /* declaration starts on newline */ property: value; } Can someone please name each brace style for me? Many thanks!

    Read the article

  • CSS Zebra Stripe a Specific Table tr:nth-child(even)

    - by BillR
    I want to zebra stripe only select tables using. I do not want to use jQuery for this. tbody tr:nth-child(even) td, tbody tr.even td {background:#e5ecf9;} When I put that in a css file it affects all tables on all pages that call the same stylesheet. What I would like to do is selectively apply it to specific tables. I have tried this, but it doesn't work. // in stylesheet .zebra_stripe{ tbody tr:nth-child(even) td, tbody tr.even td {background:#e5ecf9;} } // in html <table class="zebra_even"> <colgroup> <col class="width_10em" /> <col class="width_15em" /> </colgroup> <tr> <td>Odd row nice and clear.</td> <td>Some Stuff</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Even row nice and clear but it should be shaded.</td> <td>Some Stuff</td> </tr> </table> And this: <table> <colgroup> <col class="width_10em" /> <col class="width_15em" /> </colgroup> <tbody class="zebra_even"> The stylesheet works as it is properly formatting other elements of the html. Can someone help me with an answer to this problem? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Margin-Top push outer div down

    - by Daniel Hertz
    Hello, I have a header div as the first element in my wrapper div, but when I add a top margin to a h1 inside the header div it pushes the entire header div down. I realize this happens whenever I apply a top margin to the first visible element on a page. Here is a sample of the css. Thanks! div#header{ width: 100%; background-color: #000; position: relative; } div#header h1{ text-align: center; width: 375px; height: 50px; margin: 0 auto; font-size: 220%; text-indent: -5000px; background: url('../../images/name_logo.png') no-repeat; } html part <div id="header"> <h1><a href="/home.php">Title</a></h1> <ul id="navbar">

    Read the article

  • What am I doing wrong with my ItemsControl & databinding?

    - by Joel
    I'm reworking my simple hex editor to practice using what I've recently learned about data binding in WPF. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong here. As I understand it, for each byte in the collection "backend" (inherits from ObservableCollection), my ItemsControl should apply the DataTemplate under resources. This template is just a textbox with a binding to a value converter. So I'm expecting to see a row of textboxes, each containing a string representation of one byte. When I use this XAML, all I get is a single line of uneditable text, which as far as I can tell doesn't use a textbox. What am I doing wrong? I've pasted my XAML in below, with the irrelevant parts (Menu declaration, schema, etc) removed. <Window ...> <Window.Resources> <local:Backend x:Key="backend" /> <local:ByteConverter x:Key="byteConverter" /> <DataTemplate DataType="byte"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Converter={StaticResource byteConverter}}" /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <StackPanel> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource backend}}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <WrapPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> </Window>

    Read the article

  • Help on MySQL table indexing when GROUP BY is used in a query

    - by Silver Light
    Thank you for your attention. There are two INNODB tables: Table authors id INT nickname VARCHAR(50) status ENUM('active', 'blocked') about TEXT Table books author_id INT title VARCHAR(150) I'm running a query against these tables, to get each author and a count of books he has: SELECT a. * , COUNT( b.id ) AS book_count FROM authors AS a, books AS b WHERE a.status != 'blocked' AND b.author_id = a.id GROUP BY a.id ORDER BY a.nickname This query is very slow (takes about 6 seconds to execute). I have an index on books.author_id and it works perfectly, but I do not know how to create an index on authors table, so that this query could use it. Here is how current EXPLAIN looks: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE a ALL PRIMARY,id_status_nickname NULL NULL NULL 3305 Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort 1 SIMPLE b ref key_author_id key_author_id 5 a.id 2 Using where; Using index I've looked at MySQL manual on optimizing queries with group by, but could not figure out how I can apply it on my query. I'll appreciate any help and hints on this - what must be the index structure, so that MySQL could use it?

    Read the article

  • Turn based synchronization between threads

    - by Amarus
    I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

    Read the article

  • What job title should be most suitable for my object in resume and what salary range should I expect

    - by user354177
    I was a classic asp developer in 2000. After a year of full-time employment, I left the field. I found a part-time position as an asp developer again in 2005 and taught myself vb.net. In 2007, I got the current full-time job as an Asp.net web developer. I taught myself C#, LING t0 SQL, Web Services, AJAX, and creating all kinds of reports with reporting services. One and half years ago, I sent myself to part-time graduate program in Database and Web Systems. I'll have two semesters to go and so far my GPA is 4.0/4.0. My job responsibility is to collect business requirements from other departments, design the database, write stored procedures, create aspx pages, and create reports. I love what I do and want to advance my career to the next level. What I enjoy most is to design the relational database. I would want to become an .Net Architect eventually. I got an interview. They were looking for asp.net web developer. But I was surprised and disappointed that position would only create aspx pages. I would not even have opportunity to write stored procedures, let alone design the database (those would be provided by another group). Furthermore, they asked me some detailed questions about web forms, some of which I did not know the answers. they might be disappointed as well. I am eager to learn and can apply what I learn to real projects right away. I believe no matter what specific skills I am lacking for a new position, I can catch up quickly. I am looking for $70k range job. The object in my resume is Experience C# Web Application Developer. Due to the experience from last interview, I wonder if the object is really what I want. Could somebody answer my questions? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Override one css class with another?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • CSS Container DIV Not Expanding

    - by rsmith84
    I've been researching this for hours now and it seems to be an IE thing but my issue is that I have a container DIV that, in IE9, doesn't expand and cuts everything off after about 400px. Chrome and FF work perfectly, of course. Container DIV #main_container{ font-family: arial, verdana; width: 920px; top: 0; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; background-color: #fff; overflow-x: hidden; } Page Container DIV #page_container{ font-family: arial, verdana; font-size: 14px; width: 900px; color: #000; border: 0px solid; overflow: hidden; } And the standard markup of page block looks like this <div id="main_container"> <div id="page_container"> Variable page data goes here </div> </div> Is there an issue with my CSS that I'm missing or is there an IE hack that I need to apply?

    Read the article

  • Starting a personal reuasable code repository.

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    Hi, I've been meaning to start a library of reusable code snippets for a while and never seem to get round to it. At the moment I just tend to have some transient classes/files that I drag out of old projects. I think my main problems are: Where to start. What structure should my repository take? Should it be a compiled library (where appropriate) or just classes/files I can drop into any project? Or a library project that can be included? What are the licencing implications of that? In my experience, a built/minified library will quickly become out of date and the source will get lost. So I'm leaning towards source that I can export from SVN and include in any project. Intellectual property. I am employeed, so a lot of the code I write is not my IP. How can I ensure that I don't give my own IP away using it on projects in work and at home? I'm thinking the best way would be to licence my library with an open source licence and make sure I only add to it in my own time using my own equipment and therefore making sure that if I use it in a work project the same rules apply as if I was using a third party library. I write in many different languages and often would require two or more parts of this library. Should I look at implementing a few template projects and a core project for each of my chosen reusable components and languages? Has anyone else got this sort of library and how do you organise and update it?

    Read the article

  • How do I daemonize an arbitrary script in unix?

    - by dreeves
    I'd like a daemonizer that can turn an arbitrary, generic script or command into a daemon. There are two common cases I'd like to deal with: I have a script that should run forever. If it ever dies (or on reboot), restart it. Don't let there ever be two copies running at once (detect if a copy is already running and don't launch it in that case). I have a simple script or command line command that I'd like to keep executing repeatedly forever (with a short pause between runs). Again, don't allow two copies of the script to ever be running at once. Of course it's trivial to write a "while(true)" loop around the script in case 2 and then apply a solution for case 1, but a more general solution will just solve case 2 directly since that applies to the script in case 1 as well (you may just want a shorter or no pause if the script is not intended to ever die (of course if the script really does never die then the pause doesn't actually matter)). Note that the solution should not involve, say, adding file-locking code or PID recording to the existing scripts. More specifically, I'd like a program "daemonize" that I can run like % daemonize myscript arg1 arg2 or, for example, % daemonize 'echo `date` >> /tmp/times.txt' which would keep a growing list of dates appended to times.txt. (Note that if the argument(s) to daemonize is a script that runs forever as in case 1 above, then daemonize will still do the right thing, restarting it when necessary.) I could then put a command like above in my .login and/or cron it hourly or minutely (depending on how worried I was about it dying unexpectedly). NB: The daemonize script will need to remember the command string it is daemonizing so that if the same command string is daemonized again it does not launch a second copy. Also, the solution should ideally work on both OS X and linux but solutions for one or the other are welcome. (If I'm thinking of this all wrong or there are quick-and-dirty partial solutions, I'd love to hear that too.)

    Read the article

  • Optimize INSERT / UPDATE / DELETE operation

    - by clime
    I wonder if the following script can be optimized somehow. It does write a lot to disk because it deletes possibly up-to-date rows and reinserts them. I was thinking about applying something like "insert ... on duplicate key update" and found some possibilities for single-row updates but I don't know how to apply it in the context of INSERT INTO ... SELECT query. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION update_member_search_index() RETURNS VOID AS $$ DECLARE member_content_type_id INTEGER; BEGIN member_content_type_id := (SELECT id FROM django_content_type WHERE app_label='web' AND model='member'); DELETE FROM watson_searchentry WHERE content_type_id = member_content_type_id; INSERT INTO watson_searchentry (engine_slug, content_type_id, object_id, object_id_int, title, description, content, url, meta_encoded) SELECT 'default', member_content_type_id, web_member.id, web_member.id, web_member.name, '', web_user.email||' '||web_member.normalized_name||' '||web_country.name, '', '{}' FROM web_member INNER JOIN web_user ON (web_member.user_id = web_user.id) INNER JOIN web_country ON (web_member.country_id = web_country.id) WHERE web_user.is_active=TRUE; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; EDIT: Schemas of web_member, watson_searchentry, web_user, web_country: http://pastebin.com/3tRVPPVi. (content_type_id, object_id_int) in watson_searchentry is unique pair in the table but atm the index is not present (there is no use for it). This script should be run at most once a day for full rebuilds of search index.

    Read the article

  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

    Read the article

  • Class is not applying to submit button

    - by Mayur
    Hi All, I m Trying to apply a class to following submit button Code: <input type="submit" value="Submit" name="commit"> css : .confirm-button-submit { width : 79px; font : bold 12px sans-serif;; color : #000; background : url("../images/confirm-btn.png") 0 -33px no-repeat; text-decoration : none; margin-top :0px; text-align:center; border:0px; cursor : pointer; height:170px; } .confirm-button a { display : block; width : 79px; padding : 8px 0px 12px 0px; font : bold 12px sans-serif;; color : #000; background : url("../images/confirm-btn.png") 0 -33px no-repeat; text-decoration : none; margin-top :0px; text-align:center; } .confirm-button a:hover { display : block; width : 79px; padding : 8px 0px 12px 0px; font : bold 12px sans-serif;; color : #fff; background : url("../images/confirm-btn.png") 0 0 no-repeat; text-decoration : none; margin-top :0px; text-align:center; } But its not working proper what to do Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

    Read the article

  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • License key pattern detection?

    - by Ricket
    This is not a real situation; please ignore legal issues that you might think apply, because they don't. Let's say I have a set of 200 known valid license keys for a hypothetical piece of software's licensing algorithm, and a license key consists of 5 sets of 5 alphanumeric case-insensitive (all uppercase) characters. Example: HXDY6-R3DD7-Y8FRT-UNPVT-JSKON Is it possible (or likely) to extrapolate other possible keys for the system? What if the set was known to be consecutive; how do the methods change for this situation, and what kind of advantage does this give? I have heard of "keygens" before, but I believe they are probably made by decompiling the licensing software rather than examining known valid keys. In this case, I am only given the set of keys and I must determine the algorithm. I'm also told it is an industry standard algorithm, so it's probably not something basic, though the chance is always there I suppose. If you think this doesn't belong in Stack Overflow, please at least suggest an alternate place for me to look or ask the question. I honestly don't know where to begin with a problem like this. I don't even know the terminology for this kind of problem.

    Read the article

  • Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

    - by Endemic
    In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

    Read the article

  • Limit asp:Repeater control - Is it possible without changing sql statement?

    - by ktsixit
    Hi all, I'm trying to apply some kind of limit on an asp:Repeater control, so that I can get only the first 5 results from repeating. The only suggested solution I have found is about limiting the sql statement results. In my case, this is not possible. I need to find some other kind of solution. Are there any other asp controls that I could use which are similar to Repeater? This is the current code I'm using: <asp:Repeater ID="rptrMan" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="rptrMan_ItemDataBound" EnableViewState="false"> <HeaderTemplate> <ul> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li> <div class="picture1"> <asp:HyperLink ID="imageLink" runat="server" /> </div> <div class="title"> <asp:HyperLink ID="manTitle" runat="server" /> </div> </li> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </ul> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater>

    Read the article

  • Check for existing mapping when writing a custom applier in ConfORM

    - by Philip Fourie
    I am writing my first custom column name applier for ConfORM. How do I check if another column has already been map with same mapping name? This is what I have so far: public class MyColumnNameApplier : IPatternApplier<PropertyPath, IPropertyMapper> { public bool Match(PropertyPath subject) { return (subject.LocalMember != null); } public void Apply(PropertyPath subject, IPropertyMapper applyTo) { string shortColumnName = ToOracleName(subject); // How do I check if the short columnName already exist? applyTo.Column(cm => cm.Name(shortColumnName)); } private string ToOracleName(PropertyPath subject) { ... } } } I need to shorten my class property names to less than 30 characters to fit in with Oracle's 30 character limit. Because I am shortening the column names it is possible that I generate the same name for two different properties. I would like to know when a duplicate mapping occurs. If I don't handle this scenario ConfORM/NHibernate allows two different properties to 'share' the same column name - this is obviously creates a problem for me.

    Read the article

  • Mysql dropping inserts with triggers

    - by user2891127
    Using mysql 5.5. I have two tables. One has a whitelist of hashes. When I insert a new row into the other table, I want to first compare the hash in the insert statement to the whitelist. If it's in the whitelist, I don't want to do the insert (less data to plow through later). The inserts are generated from another program and are text files with sql statements. I've been playing with triggers, and almost have it working: BEGIN IF (select count(md5hash) from whitelist where md5hash=new.md5hash) 0 THEN SIGNAL SQLSTATE '45000' SET MESSAGE_TEXT = 'Already Whitelisted'; END IF; END But there's a problem. The Signal throwing up the error stops the import. I want to skip that line, not stop the whole import. Some searching didn't find any way to silently skip the import. My next idea was to create a duplicate table definition, and redirect the insert to that dup table. But the old and new don't seem to apply to table names. Other then adding an ignore column to my table then doing a mass drop based on that column after the import, is there any way to achieve my goal?

    Read the article

  • Comparing lists of field-hashes with equivalent AR-objects.

    - by Tim Snowhite
    I have a list of hashes, as such: incoming_links = [ {:title => 'blah1', :url => "http://blah.com/post/1"}, {:title => 'blah2', :url => "http://blah.com/post/2"}, {:title => 'blah3', :url => "http://blah.com/post/3"}] And an ActiveRecord model which has fields in the database with some matching rows, say: Link.all => [<Link#2 @title='blah2' @url='...post/2'>, <Link#3 @title='blah3' @url='...post/3'>, <Link#4 @title='blah4' @url='...post/4'>] I'd like to do set operations on Link.all with incoming_links so that I can figure out that <Link#4 ...> is not in the set of incoming_links, and {:title => 'blah1', :url =>'http://blah.com/post/1'} is not in the Link.all set, like so: #pseudocode #incoming_links = as above links = Link.all expired_links = links - incoming_links missing_links = incoming_links - links expired_links.destroy missing_links.each{|link| Link.create(link)} One route I've tried: I'd rather not rewrite Array#- and such, and I'm okay with converting incoming_links to a set of unsaved Link objects; so I've tried overwriting hash eql? and so on in Link so that it ignored the id equality that AR::Base provides by default. But this is the only place this sort of equality should be considered in the application - in other places the Link#id default identity is required. Is there some way I could subclass Link and apply the hash, eql?, etc overwriting there? The other route I've tried is to pull out the attributes hash for each Link and doing a .slice('id',...etc) to prune the hashes down. But this requires writing seperate methods for keeping track of the Link objects while doing set operations on the hashes, or writing seperate Collection classes to wrap the incoming_links hash-list and Link-list which seems a bit overkill. What is the best way to design this interaction? Extra credit for cleanliness.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ~ MVVM ~ Dynamic setting of Style property based on model value

    - by eponymous23
    I have a class called Question that represents a question and it's answer. I have an application that renders an ObservableCollection of Question objects. Each Question is rendered as a StackPanel that contains a TextBlock for the question verbiage, and a TextBox for the user to enter in an answer. The questions are rendered using an ItemsControl, and I have initially set the Style of the Questions's StackPanel using a StaticResource key called 'IncorrectQuestion' (defined in UserControl.Resources section of the page). In the UserControl.Resources section, I've also defined a key calld 'CorrectQuestion' which I need to somehow apply to the Question's StackPanel when the user correctly answers the question. My problem is I'm not sure how to dynamically change the Style of the StackPanel, specifically within the constraints of a ViewModel class (i.e. I don't want to put any style selection code in the View's code-behind). My Question class has an IsCorrect property which is accurately being set when the correction is answered. I'd like to somehow reflect the IsCorrect value in the form of a Style selection. How do I do that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 310 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321  | Next Page >