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• Why do bind1st and bind2nd require constant function objects?

  - by rlbond

  So, I was writing a C++ program which would allow me to take control of the entire world. I was all done writing the final translation unit, but I got an error: error C3848: expression having type 'const `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>' would lose some const-volatile qualifiers in order to call 'void `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>::operator ()(const point::Point &,const int &)' with [ T=SideCounter, BinaryFunction=std::plus<int> ] c:\program files (x86)\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\functional(324) : while compiling class template member function 'void std::binder2nd<_Fn2>::operator ()(point::Point &) const' with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] c:\users\****\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\TAKE_OVER_THE_WORLD\grid_divider.cpp(361) : see reference to class template instantiation 'std::binder2nd<_Fn2>' being compiled with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] I looked in the specifications of binder2nd and there it was: it took a const AdaptibleBinaryFunction. So, not a big deal, I thought. I just used boost::bind instead, right? Wrong! Now my take-over-the-world program takes too long to compile (bind is used inside a template which is instantiated quite a lot)! At this rate, my nemesis is going to take over the world first! I can't let that happen -- he uses Java! So can someone tell me why this design decision was made? It seems like an odd decision. I guess I'll have to make some of the elements of my class mutable for now...

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• Returning true or error message in Ruby

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

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• Problem in filtering records using Dataview (C#3.0)

  - by Newbie

  I have a data table . The data table is basically getting populated from excel sheet. And there are many excel sheets. Henceforth, I have written a utility method for accomplishing the same. Now in some of the excel sheets, there are date columns and in some it is not(only text/string). My function is populating the values properly into the datatable from the excell sheet. But there are many blank rows in the excel sheets some are filled with NULL , some with " ". So I need to filter those records (which are NULL or " " ) first before further processing. What I am after is to use a dataview and apply the filter over there. DataView dv = dataTable.DefaultView; dv.RowFilter = ColumnName + " <> ''"; Well by using metedata (GetOleDbSchemaTable(OleDbSchemaGuid.Columns, restrection)) I was able to get the column names from the excel sheet , so getting the column names is not an issue. But the problem is as I said in some Excel sheet there are date fileds some are not. So the Filter condition of the Dataview needs to be proper. If I apply the above logic, and if it encounters a Datafield, it is throwing error Cannot perform '<' operation on System.DateTime and System.String. Could you people please help me out? I need to filter columns(not known at compile time + their data types) which can have NULL and " " I am using C#3.0 Thanks

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• java and threads: very strange behaviour

  - by Derk

  private synchronized Map<Team, StandingRow> calculateStanding() { System.out.println("Calculate standing for group " + getName()); Map<Team, StandingRow> standing = new LinkedHashMap<Team, StandingRow>(); for (Team team : teams) { standing.put(team, new StandingRow(team)); } StandingRow homeTeamRow, awayTeamRow; for (Match match : matches.values()) { homeTeamRow = standing.get(match.getHomeTeam()); awayTeamRow = standing.get(match.getAwayTeam()); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getHomeTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getHomeTeam())); System.out.println("Contains key for " + match.getAwayTeam() + ": " + standing.containsKey(match.getAwayTeam())); } } This is my code. matches contains 6 elements, but the problem is that after two matches no keys are anymore found in the standing map. The output is for example Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: true Contains key for Mexico: true Contains key for Uruguay: true Contains key for Frankrijk: true Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Mexico: false Contains key for Uruguay: false Contains key for Frankrijk: false Contains key for Zuid-Afrika: false This is in a threaded environment, but the method is synchronized so I thought that this would not give a problem? I have also a simple unit test for this method and that works well.

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• SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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• How to load entities into readonly collections using the entity framework

  - by Anton P

  I have a POCO domain model which is wired up to the entity framework using the new ObjectContext class. public class Product { private ICollection<Photo> _photos; public Product() { _photos = new Collection<Photo>(); } public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Photo> Photos { get { return _photos; } } public void AddPhoto(Photo photo) { //Some biz logic //... _photos.Add(photo); } } In the above example i have set the Photos collection type to IEnumerable as this will make it read only. The only way to add/remove photos is through the public methods. The problem with this is that the Entity Framework cannot load the Photo entities into the IEnumerable collection as it's not of type ICollection. By changing the type to ICollection will allow callers to call the Add mentod on the collection itself which is not good. What are my options?

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• Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

  - by moonwalker

  Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

  - by shawn.mek

  Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Google Analytics Script inside XML File

  - by mnml

  Hi, I would like to know If I can add my ecommerce analytics tags inside an xml formated file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); _gaq.push(['_addTrans', '1234', // order ID - required 'Acme Clothing', // affiliation or store name '11.99', // total - required '1.29', // tax '5', // shipping 'San Jose', // city 'California', // state or province 'USA' // country ]); // add item might be called for every item in the shopping cart // where your ecommerce engine loops through each item in the cart and // prints out _addItem for each _gaq.push(['_addItem', '1234', // order ID - required 'DD44', // SKU/code 'T-Shirt', // product name 'Green Medium', // category or variation '11.99', // unit price - required '1' // quantity - required ]); _gaq.push(['_trackTrans']); //submits transaction to the Analytics servers (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script>

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• Linq is returning too many results when joined

  - by KallDrexx

  In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

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• C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

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• PHP Overloading, singleton instance

  - by jamalali81

  I've sort of created my own MVC framework and am curious as to how other frameworks can send properties from the "controller" to the "view". Zend does something along the lines of $this->view->name = 'value'; My code is: file: services_hosting.php class services_hosting extends controller { function __construct($sMvcName) { parent::__construct($sMvcName); $this->setViewSettings(); } public function setViewSettings() { $p = new property; $p->banner = '/path/to/banners/home.jpg'; } } file: controller.php class controller { public $sMvcName = "home"; function __construct($sMvcName) { if ($sMvcName) { $this->sMvcName = $sMvcName; } include('path/to/views/view.phtml'); } public function renderContent() { include('path/to/views/'.$this->sMvcName.'.phtml'); } } file: property.php class property { private $data = array(); protected static $_instance = null; public static function getInstance() { if (null === self::$_instance) { self::$_instance = new self(); } return self::$_instance; } public function __set($name, $value) { $this->data[$name] = $value; } public function __get($name) { if (array_key_exists($name, $this->data)) { return $this->data[$name]; } } public function __isset($name) { return isset($this->data[$name]); } public function __unset($name) { unset($this->data[$name]); } } In my services_hosting.phtml "view" file I have: <img src="<?php echo $this->p->banner ?>" /> This just does not work. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong or is my logic incorrect? I seem to be going round in circles at the moment. Any help would be very much appreciated.

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• Entity Framework in layered architecture

  - by Kamyar

  I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

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• java - powermock whenNew doesnt seem to work, calls the actual constructor

  - by user1331243

  I have two final classes that are used in my unit test. I am trying to use whenNew on the constructor of a final class, but I see that it calls the actual constructor. The code is @PrepareForTest({A.class, B.class, Provider.class}) @Test public void testGetStatus() throws Exception { B b = mock(B.class); when(b.getStatus()).thenReturn(1); whenNew(B.class).withArguments(anyString()).thenReturn(b); Provider p = new Provider(); int val = p.getStatus(); assertTrue((val == 1)); } public class Provider { public int getStatus() { B b = new B("test"); return b.getStatus(); } } public final class A { private void init() { // ...do soemthing } private static A a; private A() { } public static A getInstance() { if (a == null) { a = new A(); a.init(); } return a; } } public final class B { public B() { } public B(String s) { this(A.getInstance(), s); } public B(A a, String s) { } public int getStatus() { return 0; } } On debug, I find that its the actual class B instance created and not the mock instance that is returned for new usage and assertion fails. Any pointers on how to get this working. Thanks

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• Strategy for animating a lot of "LED's" - thread?, UIView animations? NSOperation? (iPhone)

  - by RickiG

  Hi I have to do some different views containing 72 LED lights. I built an LED Class so I can loop through the LED's and set them to different colors (Green, Red, Orange, Blue None etc.). The LED then loads the appropriate .png. This works fine, I loop over the LED's and set them. Now I know that at some time they will need to not just turn on/off change color, but will have to turn on with a small delay. Like an equalizer. I have a 5-10 views containing the 72 LED's and I would like to achieve the above with the minimum amount of memory/CPU strain. for(LED *l in self.ledArray) { [l display:Green]; } I simply loop as shown above and inside the LED is a switch case that does the correct logic. If this were actual LED's and a microController I would use sleep(100) or similar in the loop, but I would really like to avoid stuff like that for obvious reasons. I was thinking that doing a performOnThread withDelay would really be consuming, so would UIView animation changing the alpha and NSOperation would also be a lot of lifting for a small feature. Is there a both efficient and clever way to go around this? Thanks for any inspiration given:)

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• ADO.NET Multiple simultaneous reads from an open database.

  - by Deverill

  Answer not needed - my logic was wrong and this question is invalid. Charles helped me see where I went off-tracks. Thanks I have a utility that moves data from one source to another. In the process of writing the record I check to see if it exists and do an update/insert as necessary. The difficulty I have is that as I'm writing the main record info there is a 2nd table for "custom data" that I have to check to see if it exists and do an update/insert for that as well. Example: I may be loading a pencil sharpener that may or may not exist. While I'm writing it into destination it has characteristics such as style, color, etc. and each of them may or may not exist. As written I seem to need to have 2 DataReaders open, one for the sharpener and one to check for and update color. I am new to ADO.NET, but not to programming and it's more complicated than I listed but for sanity's sake I didn't put all the details. My question is: What am I missing? You can't have 2 readers open at the same time on a connection, yet I can't close the first if I'm stepping through all products. It seems inefficient to have 2 connections, readers, etc. for this. Is there a feature of ADO.NET DBs that I'm missing? How would you do it? Thanks!

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• Extending the .NET type system so the compiler enforces semantic meaning of primitive values in cert

  - by Drew Noakes

  I'm working with geometry a bit at the moment and am converting a lot between degrees and radians. Unfortunately, both of these are represented by double, so there's compile time warning/error if I try to pass a value in degrees where radians are expected. I believe F# has a compile-time solution for this (called units of measure.) I'd like to do something similar in C#. As another example, imagine a SQL library that accepts various query parameters as strings. It'd be good to have a way of enforcing that only clean strings were allowed to be passed in at runtime, and the only way to get a clean string was to pass through some SQL injection attack preventing logic. The obvious solution is to wrap the double/string/whatever in a new type to give it the type information the compiler needs. I'm curious if anyone has an alternative solution. If you do think wrapping is the only/best way, then please go into some of the downsides of the pattern (and any upsides I haven't mentioned too.) I'm especially concerned about the performance of abstracted primitive numeric types on my calculations at runtime.

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• ASP.NET MVC editor template for property

  - by Idsa

  Usually I render my forms by @Html.RenderModel, but this time I have a complex rendering logic and I render it manually. I decided to create a editor template for one property. Here is the code (copy pasted from default object editor template implementation): <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var modelMetadata = ViewData.ModelMetadata; %> <% if (modelMetadata.HideSurroundingHtml) { %> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <% } else { %> <% if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName).ToHtmlString())) { %> <div class="editor-label"><%= Html.Label(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %></div> <% } %> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(modelMetadata.PropertyName) %> </div> <% } %> And here is how I use it: @Html.EditorFor(x => x.SomeProperty, "Property") //"Property" is template above But it didn't work: labels are rendered regardless of DisplayName and editors are not rendered at all (in Watches Html.Editor(modelMetadata.PropertyName shows empty string). What am I doing wrong?

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• Verify an event was raised by mocked object

  - by joblot

  In my unit test how can I verify that an event is raised by the mocked object. I have a View(UI) -- ViewModel -- DataProvider -- ServiceProxy. ServiceProxy makes async call to serivce operation. When async operation is complete a method on DataProvider is called (callback method is passed as a method parameter). The callback method then raise and event which ViewModel is listening to. For ViewModel test I mock DataProvider and verify that handler exists for event raised by DataProvider. When testing DataProvider I mock ServiceProxy, but how can I test that callback method is called and event is raised. I am using RhinoMock 3.5 and AAA syntax Thanks -- DataProvider -- public partial class DataProvider { public event EventHandler<EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>> GetProductDefinitionCompleted; public void GetProductDefinition() { var service = IoC.Resolve<IServiceProxy>(); service.GetProductDefinitionAsync(GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback); } private void GetProductDefinitionAsyncCallback(ProductDefinition productDefinition, ServiceError error) { OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(this, new EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition>(productDefinition, error)); } protected void OnGetProductDefinitionCompleted(object sender, EntityEventArgs<ProductDefinition> e) { if (GetProductDefinitionCompleted != null) GetProductDefinitionCompleted(sender, e); } } -- ServiceProxy -- public class ServiceProxy : ClientBase<IService>, IServiceProxy { public void GetProductDefinitionAsync(Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback) { Channel.BeginGetProductDefinition(EndGetProductDefinition, callback); } private void EndGetProductDefinition(IAsyncResult result) { Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError> callback = result.AsyncState as Action<ProductDefinition, ServiceError>; ServiceError error; ProductDefinition results = Channel.EndGetProductDefinition(out error, result); if (callback != null) callback(results, error); } }

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• rename an html page according to an image within it

  - by Jake

  Hi, firstly I'll give some background regarding the situation. I have a website containing approximately 56k pages each page contain a mapped sketch of a machine part. this machine part is made out of smaller parts which are outlined in the image and hold a certain number. when you hover over the numbers a box with the part item code shows up. I order parts according to this item codes but recently a lot of the items codes have changed, therefore I am looking for a solution. now I own a database with data on all the 56k parts and I want to link the relevant webpage to each record according to the name of the part(a column in my database), the problem is that the webpages names has no logic name that could connect with the part name in any way but the image that is displayed in the page has the exact name of the part. I want to rename all the html files I has according to the Images displayed within them. how can I achieve that without renaming all the 56k pages manually? additionally how can I add the links to all the 56k pages automatically to my database after all the above is done? Thank you for your patience I know it was long.

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• What does this structure actually do?

  - by LGTrader

  I found this structure code in a Julia Set example from a book on CUDA. I'm a newbie C programmer and cannot get my head around what it's doing, nor have I found the right thing to read on the web to clear it up. Here's the structure: struct cuComplex { float r; float i; cuComplex( float a, float b ) : r(a), i(b) {} float magnitude2( void ) { return r * r + i * i; } cuComplex operator*(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r*a.r - i*a.i, i*a.r + r*a.i); } cuComplex operator+(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r+a.r, i+a.i); } }; and it's called very simply like this: cuComplex c(-0.8, 0.156); cuComplex a(jx, jy); int i = 0; for (i=0; i<200; i++) { a = a * a + c; if (a.magnitude2() > 1000) return 0; } return 1; So, the code did what? Defined something of structure type 'cuComplex' giving the real and imaginary parts of a number. (-0.8 & 0.156) What is getting returned? (Or placed in the structure?) How do I work through the logic of the operator stuff in the struct to understand what is actually calculated and held there? I think that it's probably doing recursive calls back into the stucture float magnitude2 (void) { return return r * r + i * i; } probably calls the '*' operator for r and again for i, and then the results of those two operations call the '+' operator? Is this correct and what gets returned at each step? Just plain confused. Thanks!

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• VS 2008 C++ build output?

  - by STingRaySC

  Why when I watch the build output from a VC++ project in VS do I see: 1Compiling... 1a.cpp 1b.cpp 1c.cpp 1d.cpp 1e.cpp [etc...] 1Generating code... 1x.cpp 1y.cpp [etc...] The output looks as though several compilation units are being handled before any code is generated. Is this really going on? I'm trying to improve build times, and by using pre-compiled headers, I've gotten great speedups for each ".cpp" file, but there is a relatively long pause during the "Generating Code..." message. I do not have "Whole Program Optimization" nor "Link Time Code Generation" turned on. If this is the case, then why? Why doesn't VC++ compile each ".cpp" individually (which would include the code generation phase)? If this isn't just an illusion of the output, is there cross-compilation-unit optimization potentially going on here? There don't appear to be any compiler options to control that behavior (I know about WPO and LTCG, as mentioned above). EDIT: The build log just shows the ".obj" files in the output directory, one per line. There is no indication of "Compiling..." vs. "Generating code..." steps. EDIT: I have confirmed that this behavior has nothing to do with the "maximum number of parallel project builds" setting in Tools - Options - Projects and Solutions - Build and Run. Nor is it related to the MSBuild project build output verbosity setting. Indeed if I cancel the build before the "Generating code..." step, the ".obj" files will not exist for the most recent set of "compiled" files. E.g., if I cancel the build during "c.cpp" above, I will see only "a.obj" and "b.obj".

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• Modularizing web applications

  - by Matt

  Hey all, I was wondering how big companies tend to modularize components on their page. Facebook is a good example: There's a team working on Search that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc.. There's a team working on the news feed that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc... ... And the list goes on They cannot all be aware of what everyone is naming their div tags and whatnot, so what's the controller(?) doing to hook all these components in on the final page?? Note: This doesn't just apply to facebook - any company that has separate teams working on separate components has some logic that helps them out. EDIT: Thanks all for the responses, unfortunately I still haven't really found what I'm looking for - when you check out the source code (granted its minified), the divs have UIDs, my guess is that there is a compilation process that runs through and makes each of the components unique, renaming divs and css rules.. any ideas? EDIT 2: Thanks all for contributing your thoughts - the bounty went to the highest upvoted answer. The question was designed to be vague- I think it led to a really interesting discussion. As I improve my build process, I will contribute my own thoughts and experiences. Thanks all! Matt Mueller

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• Ruby Design Problem for SQL Bulk Inserter

  - by crunchyt

  This is a Ruby design problem. How can I make a reusable flat file parser that can perform different data scrubbing operations per call, return the emitted results from each scrubbing operation to the caller and perform bulk SQL insertions? Now, before anyone gets narky/concerned, I have written this code already in a very unDRY fashion. Which is why I am asking any Ruby rockstars our there for some assitance. Basically, everytime I want to perform this logic, I create two nested loops, with custom processing in between, buffer each processed line to an array, and output to the DB as a bulk insert when the buffer size limit is reached. Although I have written lots of helpers, the main pattern is being copy pasted everytime. Not very DRY! Here is a Ruby/Pseudo code example of what I am repeating. lines_from_file.each do |line| line.match(/some regex/).each do |sub_str| # Process substring into useful format # EG1: Simple gsub() call # EG2: Custom function call to do complex scrubbing # and matching, emitting results to array # EG3: Loop to match opening/closing/nested brackets # or other delimiters and emit results to array end # Add processed lines to a buffer as SQL insert statement @buffer << PREPARED INSERT STATEMENT # Flush buffer when "buffer size limit reached" or "end of file" if sql_buffer_full || last_line_reached @dbc.insert(SQL INSERTS FROM BUFFER) @buffer = nil end end I am familiar with Proc/Lambda functions. However, because I want to pass two separate procs to the one function, I am not sure how to proceed. I have some idea about how to solve this, but I would really like to see what the real Rubyists suggest? Over to you. Thanks in advance :D

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