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  • IE8: weird border around HTML button element

    - by s427
    I have a button element with a custom background (image+color) and no borders except for a 2px border-bottom (and a bunch of other properties --code below) which renders quite differently in Firefox and in IE8. The problem is, this is a work for a company that uses IE8 as their only browser, so it's important that the button renders well in IE8. Here's a visual comparison between the two: My question here is not about the padding difference (I'm looking into that), but about the weird border that is visible on IE8 in addition to the regular border (border-bottom). Can anyone explain to me where it comes from and how to get rid of it? Thanks in advance. Here is the HTML code: <button class="btn" id="c_edit"> <span>Annuler</span> </button> And here is the CSS: .btn { display: inline-block; margin: 0 0 7px 5px; padding: 0; color: #ddd; font-size: 14px; font-family: FrutigerLTStd55Roman, sans-serif; text-decoration: none; border: none; border-bottom: 2px solid #222; background-color: #999; background-image: url('img/btn_bg.gif'); background-position: 0 bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; cursor: pointer; transition: all .5s ease-out; } .btn span { display: inline-block; margin: 0; padding: 8px 10px 6px 40px; background-color: transparent; background-position: 4px 0; background-repeat: no-repeat; }

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  • Outlook VSTO AddIn for Meetings

    - by BigDubb
    We have created a VSTO addin for Outlook Meetings. As part of this we trap on the SendEvent of the message on the FormRegionShowing event: _apptEvents.Send += new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.ItemEvents_SendEventHandler(_apptEvents_Send); The method _apptEvents_Send then tests on a couple of properties and exits where appropriate. private void _apptEvents_Send(ref bool Cancel) { if (!_Qualified) { MessageBox.Show("Meeting has not been qualified", "Not Qualified Meeting", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information); chkQualified.Focus(); Cancel = true; } } The problem that we're having is that some users' messages get sent twice. Once when the meeting is sent and a second time when the user re-opens outlook. I've looked for memory leaks, thinking that something might not be getting disposed of properly, and have added explicit object disposal on all finally calls to try and make sure resources are managed, but still getting the functionality incosistently across the organization. i.e. I never encountered the problem during development, nor other developers during testing. All users are up to date on framework (3.5 SP1) and Hotfixes for Outlook. Does anyone have any ideas on what might be causing this? Any ideas anyone might have would be greatly appreciated.

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  • iMX31 dependencies?

    - by Abhi
    Dear all I am beginner in an silverlight application. So at first i looked on demo application which is provided by wince 6.0 r3 at location WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\DEMOS\XAMLPERF - this contains c++ code and WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\FILES\XAMLPERF - this contains xaml file with the images Now before running this application in an emulator. I at first proceeded with the following: I have first taken my workspace went to catalog item and added "Silverlight for Windows Embedded" from the drop down menu of an catalog item Then right clicked on solution explorer and choosed on properties and under configuration in drop down menu i have selected environment variables where i have added new variable called "sysgen_samplexamlperf" and assigned value as 1 for that variable. Now after rebuiding the application, i have dumped the image into emulator and i found that at desktop of device emulator i can see the exe file to which i run and i can see the application is working fine with 3d effects. Now same thing i proceeded in iMX31 hardware and i was not able to see the application running in a proper manner as it was performing in an emulator. So now what i feel is that there be any dependency when we run the application on hardware. So what can be the dependency? Also in this location "WINCE600\PUBLIC\COMMON\OAK\FILES\XAMLPERF" the images are in png format. So is there any dependency with an image format? Thanks and regards

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  • how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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  • Synthetic click doesn't switch application's menu bar (Mac OS X)

    - by Rok
    Hi. I'm developing some sort of air mouse application for iPhone platform. This applications connects to one computer service which generates mouse events on Mac OS X. I'm generating this events with CGEventCreateMouseEvent() and CGEventPost(). But I've encountered one problem. Let's say you are using Safari and then you click on free desktop space. If you do this with regular mouse it will hide Safari's top menu bar and show Finder menu bar. But on these synthetic events it doesn't act like that. Do I have to post some other event or set some additional properties? Here is my code for mouse up, mouse down: - (void)mouseUp:(int)button { int type = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? kCGEventLeftMouseUp : kCGEventRightMouseUp; int mouseButton = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? kCGMouseButtonLeft : kCGMouseButtonRight; leftMouseDown = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? NO : leftMouseDown; rightMouseDown = (button == RIGHT_BUTTON) ? NO : rightMouseDown; CGEventSourceRef source = CGEventSourceCreate(kCGEventSourceStateHIDSystemState); CGEventRef event = CGEventCreateMouseEvent (source, type, CGSCurrentInputPointerPosition(), mouseButton); CGEventSetType(event, type); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event); CFRelease(event); } - (void)mouseDown:(int)button { int type = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? kCGEventLeftMouseDown : kCGEventRightMouseDown; int mouseButton = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? kCGMouseButtonLeft : kCGMouseButtonRight; leftMouseDown = (button == LEFT_BUTTON) ? YES : leftMouseDown; rightMouseDown = (button == RIGHT_BUTTON) ? YES : rightMouseDown; CGEventSourceRef source = CGEventSourceCreate(kCGEventSourceStateHIDSystemState); CGEventRef event = CGEventCreateMouseEvent (source, type, CGSCurrentInputPointerPosition(), mouseButton); CGEventSetType(event, type); CGEventPost(kCGHIDEventTap, event); CFRelease(event); }

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  • mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

    - by Mala
    I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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  • WP7 - listbox Binding

    - by Jeff V
    I have an ObservableCollection that I want to bind to my listbox... lbRosterList.ItemsSource = App.ViewModel.rosterItemsCollection; However, in that collection I have another collection within it: [DataMember] public ObservableCollection<PersonDetail> ContactInfo { get { return _ContactInfo; } set { if (value != _ContactInfo) { _ContactInfo = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("ContactInfo"); } } } PersonDetail contains 2 properties: name and e-mail I would like the listbox to have those values for each item in rosterItemsCollection RosterId = 0; RosterName = "test"; ContactInfo.name = "Art"; ContactInfo.email = "[email protected]"; RosterId = 0; RosterName = "test" ContactInfo.name = "bob"; ContactInfo.email = "[email protected]"; RosterId = 1; RosterName = "test1" ContactInfo.name = "chris"; ContactInfo.email = "[email protected]"; RosterId = 1; RosterName = "test1" ContactInfo.name = "Sam"; ContactInfo.email = "[email protected]"; I would like that listboxes to display the ContactInfo information. I hope this makes sense... My XAML that I've tried with little success: <listbox x:Name="lbRosterList" ItemsSource="rosterItemCollection"> <textblock x:name="itemText" text="{Binding Path=name}"/> What am I doing incorrectly?

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  • How to refactor models without breaking WPF views?

    - by Tim Murphy
    I've just started learning WPF and like the power of databinding it presents; that is ignoring the complexity and confusion for a noob. My concern is how do you safely refactor your models/viewmodels without breaking the views that use them? Take the following snippet of a view for example: <Grid> <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Contacts}"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="First Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=FirstName}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Last Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=FirstName}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="DOB" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=DateOfBirth}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="# Pets" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=NumberOfPets}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Male" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=IsMale}"/> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> </Grid> The list is bound to the Contacts property, IList(Of Contact), of the windows DataSource and each of the properties for a Contact is bound to a GridViewColumn. Now if I change the name of the NumberOfPets property in the Contact model to PetCount the view will break. How do I prevent the view breaking?

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  • C# WCF and Object Inheritence

    - by Michael Edwards
    I have the following setup of two classes: [SerializableAttribute] public class ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Title{get;set;} } [DataContract] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } These two classes are served through a WCF service. However I only want the service to expose the ChildData class to the end user but pull the marked up DataMember properties from the parent. E.g. The consuming client would have a stub class that looked like: public class ChildData{ public string Title{get;set;} public string Abstract{get;set;} } If I uses the parent and child classes as above the stub class only contains the Abstract property. I have looked at using the KnownType attribute on the ChildData class like so: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeOf(ParentData)] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } However this didn't work. I then applied the DataContract attribute to the ParentData class, however this then creates two stub classes in the client application which I don't want. Is there any way to tell the serializer that it should flatten the inheritance to that of the sub-class i.e. ChildData

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  • LINQ EF not saving to database...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I guess this is a continuation of the last question I asked: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2587542/bulk-insert-and-update-with-ado-net-entity-framework. I am not getting any errors while doing inserts yet no data is actually going into my DB. My DB is a SDF file (SQL CE). Any ideas what to check? My app.config looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <configSections> </configSections> <connectionStrings> <add name="Lab_Use_Billing.Properties.Settings.LabUseConnectionString" connectionString="Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf" providerName="Microsoft.SqlServerCe.Client.3.5" /> <add name="LabUseEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.csdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.ssdl|res://*/Models.LabUseEntities.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5; provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Models\LabUse.sdf&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> TIA

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  • Rails 3 fields_for agressive loading?

    - by Seth
    Hi all, I'm trying to optimize (limit) queries in a view. I am using the fields_for function. I need to reference various properties of the object, such as username for display purposes. However, this is a rel table, so I need to join with my users table. The result is N sub-queries, 1 for each field in fields_for. It's difficult to explain, but I think you'll understand what I'm asking if I paste my code: <%= form_for @election do |f| %> <%= f.fields_for :voters do |voter| %> <%= voter.hidden_field :id %> <%= voter.object.user.preferred_name %> <% end %> <% end %> I have like 10,000 users, and many times each election will include all 10,000 users. That's 10,000 subqueries every time this view is loaded. I want fields_for to JOIN on users. Is this possible? I'd like to do something like: ... <%= f.fields_for :voters, :joins => :users do |voter| %> ... <% end %> ... But that, of course, doesn't work :(

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Extended Class Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to get automatic View Object binding for fields defined in a partial class for a Linq-To-SQL generated class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Postclass to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So here's my question: If a user is accessing my MVC application front-end and begins editing a Post object, they might enter an invalid category. When the server recognizes the invalid input, the usual practice is to return the faulty object to the original view for re-editing along with some error messages. The fields in the edit page are re-populated with the provided values. However I don't know how to get this mechanism to work with the properties I created with the partial class as shown above. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • c# creating a database query METHOD

    - by Sinaesthetic
    I'm not sure if im delluded but what I would like to do is create a method that will return the results of a query, so that i can reuse the connection code. As i understand it, a query returns an object but how do i pass that object back? I want to send the query into the method as a string argument, and have it return the results so that I can use them. Here's what i have which was a stab in the dark, it obviously doesn't work. This example is me trying to populate a listbox with the results of a query; the sheet name is Employees and the field/column is name. The error i get is "Complex DataBinding accepts as a data source either an IList or an IListSource.". any ideas? public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); openFileDialog1.ShowDialog(); openedFile = openFileDialog1.FileName; lbxEmployeeNames.DataSource = Query("Select [name] FROM [Employees$]"); } public object Query(string sql) { System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection MyConnection; System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand myCommand = new System.Data.OleDb.OleDbCommand(); string connectionPath; //build connection string connectionPath = "provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source='" + openedFile + "';Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; MyConnection = new System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(connectionPath); MyConnection.Open(); myCommand.Connection = MyConnection; myCommand.CommandText = sql; return myCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); }

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  • What is the return type of my linq query?

    - by Ulhas Tuscano
    I have two tables A & B. I can fire Linq queries & get required data for individual tables. As i know what each of the tables will return as shown in example. But, when i join both the tables i m not aware of the return type of the Linq query. This problem can be solved by creating a class which will hold ID,Name and Address properties inside it. but,everytime before writing a join query depending on the return type i will have to create a class which is not a convinient way Is there any other mathod available to achieve this private IList<A> GetA() { var query = from a in objA select a; return query.ToList(); } private IList<B> GetB() { var query = from b in objB select b; return query.ToList(); } private IList<**returnType**?> GetJoinAAndB() { var query = from a in objA join b in objB on a.ID equals b.AID select new { a.ID, a.Name, b.Address }; return query.ToList(); }

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  • What do you call a set of Javascript closures that share a common context?

    - by Ed Stauff
    I've been trying to learn closures (in Javascript), which kind of hurts my brain after way too many years with C# and C++. I think I now have a basic understanding, but one thing bothers me: I've visited lots of websites in this Quest for Knowledge, and nowhere have I seen a word (or even a simple two-word phrase) that means "a set of Javascript closures that share a common execution context". For example: function CreateThingy (name, initialValue) { var myName = name; var myValue = initialValue; var retObj = new Object; retObj.getName = function() { return myName; } retObj.getValue = function() { return myValue; } retObj.setValue = function(newValue) { myValue = newValue; } return retObj; }; From what I've read, this seems to be one common way of implementing data hiding. The value returned by CreateThingy is, of course, an object, but what would you call the set of functions which are properties of that object? Each one is a closure, but I'd like a name I can used to describe (and think about) all of them together as one conceptual entity, and I'd rather use a commonly accepted name than make one up. Thanks! -- Ed

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  • page loads twice due to js code

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I have this div inside a repeater, where i set the class, onmouseover and onmouseout properties from code behind: <div id="Div1" runat="server" class="<%# getClassProduct(Container.ItemIndex) %>" onmouseover="<%# getClassProductOver(Container.ItemIndex) %>" onmouseout="<%# getClassProductOut(Container.ItemIndex) %>"> codebehind: public String getClassProduct(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem lastbox"; else return "produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem"; } public String getClassProductOver(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem_ lastbox'"; else return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem_'"; } public String getClassProductOut(Object index) { int indexItem = Int32.Parse(index.ToString()); if (indexItem == 3) return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem lastbox'"; else return "this.className='produs_box produs_box_wrap overitem'"; } Well, the problem is that, my Page_Load is fired twice, and there i have some code which i want to execute only ONCE: if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ..code to execute once } This code is fired initially, and after the page is rendered, it is called again, and executed again due to that js... Anyone can recommend a workaround? Thanks in advance.

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  • Spring MVC: Where to place validation and how to validation entity references.

    - by arrages
    Let's say I have the following command bean for creating a user: public class CreateUserCommand { private String userName; private String email; private Integer occupationId; pirvate Integer countryId; } occupationId and countryId are drop down selected values on the form. They map to an entity in the database (Occupation, Country). This command object is going to be fed to a service facade like so: userServiceFacade.createUser(CreateUserCommand command); This facade will construct a user entity to be sent to the actual service. So I suppose that in the facade layer I will have to make several dao calls to map all the lookup properties of the User entity. Based on this what is the best strategy to validate that occupationId and countryId map to real entities? Where is the best place to perform this validation? There is the spring validator but I am not sure this is the best place for this, for one I am wary of this method as validation is tied to the web tier, but also that means I would need to make the dao calls in the validator for validation but I would need to call the dao's in the facade layer again when the command - entity translation occurs. Is there anything I can do better? Thanks.

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  • How can I qualify an autowired property with a variable from a config file using annotations?

    - by jiggy
    My specific problem is that I have configured two beans that implement the same interface and I have a third bean that has a property of that interface's type. I inject the property using a config property. So, assuming RemoteDataSource and LocalDataSource implement IDataSource and dao1 has a property of type IDataSource, my XML config might look like this: <bean id="datasource1" class="com.foo.RemoteDataSource"> <property name="url">${url}</property> </bean> <bean id="datasource2" class="com.foo.LocalDataSource"> <property name="path">${filepath}</property> </bean> <bean id="dao1" class="com.foo.MyDAO"> <property name="dataSource">${datasource}</property> </bean> With url, filepath and datasource being defined in an included properties file. We are now making a push for annotation-driven configuration and I'm not sure how to annotate my dao to put the data source configured in the property file. I want to do something like this, but it is evidently not allowed: @Autowired @Qualifier("${datasource}") public void setDataSource(IDataSource datasource) {...}

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  • Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

    - by djerry
    Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

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  • Git Svn dcommit error - restart the commit

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    Last week, I made a number of changes to my local branch before leaving town for the weekend. This morning I wanted to dcommit all of those changes to the company's Svn repository, but I get a merge conflict in one file: Merge conflict during commit: Your file or directory 'build.properties.sample' is probably out-of-date: The version resource does not correspond to the resource within the transaction. Either the requested version resource is out of date (needs to be updated), or the requested version resource is newer than the transaction root (restart the commit). I'm not sure exactly why I'm getting this, but before attempting to dcommit, I did a git svn rebase. That "overwrote" my commits. To recover from that, I did a git reset --hard HEAD@{1}. Now my working copy seems to be where I expect it to be, but I have no idea how to get past the merge conflict; there's not actually any conflict to resolve that I can find. Any thoughts would be appreciated. EDIT: Just wanted to specify that I am working locally. I have a local branch for the trunk that references svn/trunk (the remote branch). All of my work was done on the local trunk: $ git branch maint-1.0.x master * trunk $ git branch -r svn/maintenance/my-project-1.0.0 svn/trunk Similarly, git log currently shows 10 commits on my local trunk since the last commit with a Svn ID. Hopefully that answers a few questions. Thanks again.

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  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

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  • Synfony2 validation changes invalid integer to 0

    - by Craig
    I've added validation to a form and found that in some cases it is losing the invalid data I am feeding it and saving 0s instead. The output at the bottom shows that if I post the latitude as 'zzzzzz' (clearly not a number nor between -90 and 90) the form is declared as valid and saved with the value 0 How can that happen given that I have declared the input must be a number? ProxyType.php buildForm() $builder ->add('siteName', null, array('label' => 'Site name')) .... ->add('latitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Latitude')) ->add('longitude', 'number', array('label' => 'Longitude')) .... ; ProxyController.php createAction .... $postData = $request->request->get('niwa_pictbundle_proxytype'); $this->get('logger')->info('Posted latitude = '.$postData['latitude']); $form = $this->createForm(new ProxyType(), $entity); $form->bindRequest($request); if ($form->isValid()) { $this->get('logger')->info('Form declared valid : latlong ('.$entity->getLatitude().','.$entity->getLongitude().')'); .... validation.yml Acme\PictBundle\Entity\Proxy: properties: longitude: - Min: { limit: -180 } - Max: { limit: 180 } latitude: - Max: { limit: 90 } - Min: { limit: -90 } Output [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Posted latitude = zzzzzz [] [] [2012-09-28 02:05:30] app.INFO: Form declared valid : latlong (0,0) [] []

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  • Unit test approach for generic classes/methods

    - by Greg
    Hi, What's the recommended way to cover off unit testing of generic classes/methods? For example (referring to my example code below). Would it be a case of have 2 or 3 times the tests to cover testing the methods with a few different types of TKey, TNode classes? Or is just one class enough? public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } // Constructors protected TopologyBase() { Nodes = new Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>>(); Relationships = new List<RelationshipBase<TKey>>(); } // Methods public TNode CreateNode(TKey key) { var node = new TNode {Key = key}; Nodes.Add(node.Key, node); return node; } public void CreateRelationship(NodeBase<TKey> parent, NodeBase<TKey> child) { . . .

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  • Invalid Pointer Operation, advice requested with debugging

    - by Xanyx
    I appear to have created code that is trashing memory. Having never had such problems before, i am now settign an Invalid Pointer Operation. In the following the value of the const string sFilename gets trashed after my call to PromptForXYZPropertiesSettings. // Allow the user to quickly display the properties of XYZ without needing to display the full Editor function PromptForXYZProperties(const sFilename:string; var AXYZProperties: TXYZProperties): boolean; var PropEditor: TdlgEditor; begin PropEditor:= TdlgEditor.create(nil); try PropEditor.LoadFromFile(sFilename); Other Details: Delphi 2007, Windows 7 64 bit, but can reproduce when testing EXE on XP REMOVING CONST STOPS PROBLEM FROM EXHIBITING (but presumably the problem is thus just lurking) PropEditor.PromptForXYZPropertiesSettings creates and shows a form. If I disable the ShowModal call then the memory is not trashed. Even though i have REMOVED ALL CONTROLS AND CODE from the form So I would like some advice on how to debug the issue. I was thinking perhaps watching the memory pointer where the sFilename var exists to see where it gets trashed, but not sure how i would do that (obviously needs to be done within the app so is owned memory). Thanks

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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