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  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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  • .NET proxy detection

    - by Ziplin
    I am having an issue with .NET detecting the proxy settings configured through internet explorer. I'm writing a client application that supports proxies, and to test I set up an array of 9 squid servers to support various authentication methods for HTTP and HTTPs. I have a script that updates IE to whichever configuration I choose (which proxy, detection via "Auto", PAC, or hardcode). I have tried the 3 methods below to detect the IE configuration through .NET. On occassion I notice that .NET picks up the wrong set of proxy servers. IE has the correct settings, and if I browse the web with IE, I can see I am hitting the correct servers via wireshark. WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy().GetProxy(destination); GlobalProxySelection.Select.GetProxy(destination); WebRequest.DefaultWebProxy Here are the following tips I have: My script sets a PAC file on a webserver, and updates the configuration in IE, then clears IE's cache .NET seems to get "stuck" on a certain proxy configuration, and I have to set another configuration for .NET to realize there was a change. Occasionally it seems to pick some random set of servers (I'm sure they're not random, just a set of servers I used once and are in some cached PAC file or something). As in, I will check the proxy for the destination "https://www.secure.com" and I may have IE configured for and thus expect to get "http://squidserver:18" and instead it will return "http://squidserver:28" (port 18 runs NTLM, 28 runs without authentication). All the squid servers work. This does not appear to be an issue on XP, only Vista, 2003, and windows 7. Hardcoding the proxy servers in IE ALWAYS works Time always solves the issue - if I leave the computer for about 20 or 30 minutes and come back, .NET picks up the correct proxy settings, as if a cached PAC script expired.

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  • Decoupling the view, presentation and ASP.NET Web Forms

    - by John Leidegren
    I have an ASP.NET Web Forms page which the presenter needs to populate with controls. This interaction is somewhat sensitive to the page-life cycle and I was wondering if there's a trick to it, that I don't know about. I wanna be practical about the whole thing but not compromise testability. Currently I have this: public interface ISomeContract { void InstantiateIn(System.Web.UI.Control container); } This contract has a dependency on System.Web.UI.Control and I need that to be able to do things with the ASP.NET Web Forms programming model. But neither the view nor the presenter may have knowledge about ASP.NET server controls. How do I get around this? How can I work with the ASP.NET Web Forms programming model in my concrete views without taking a System.Web.UI.Control dependency in my contract assemblies? To clarify things a bit, this type of interface is all about UI composition (using MEF). It's known through-out the framework but it's really only called from within the concrete view. The concrete view is still the only thing that knows about ASP.NET Web Forms. However those public methods that say InstantiateIn(System.Web.UI.Control) exists in my contract assemblies and that implies a dependency on ASP.NET Web Forms. I've been thinking about some double dispatch mechanism or even visitor pattern to try and work around this.

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  • Cast MyEntity To LinqEntity throw a base controller class

    - by Mohammad Kani
    hi there i design a multilayer we appliction andusing LINQ a my data provider i need to user my own Entites instead o LINQ etities. so i created Entities Project and create my entities in it. when i get data from contex and cast them to my entities , everything is ok. but when i want to cast on of my entities to linq entity , an exception thrown. in my linq entity i add CTYPE operator from and to my entities Exp : Public Class BaseController(Of LinqEntity As {BaseEntity, New}, MyEntity As ModuleEntities.BaseEntityInfo) Implements Interfaces.Base(Of ServiceEntity) 'This methd work fine and cast LinqEntity to MyEntity Public Function GetAll() As List(Of MyEntity ) Dim q = (From x In Context.GetTable(Of LinqEntity)() _ Select x).Cast(Of MyEntityBase) End Function Public Sub Update(ByVal entity As MyEntity) 'here is problem 'cast , direct cast , or anything not work Dim x as LinqEntity = entity Me.Context.GetTable(Of LinqEntity).InsertOnSubmit(entity) Me.Context.SubmiChanges() End Sub

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  • HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Graham
    I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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  • Visual Studio and .NET programming

    - by Vit
    Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

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  • Setting CPU target to x86 on .NET 2.0 project adds .NET 3.5 dependencies.

    - by AngryHacker
    I have a project in VS2008 that targets .NET 2.0 framework. It was original set to build for AnyCPU. I changed it to x86 and for whatever reason, VS adds the following lines to .csproj: <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Client.3.5"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework Client Profile</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> ... ... <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5.SP1"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework 3.5 SP1</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> </ItemGroup> Can someone explain as to why this is being added and whether I can safely remove it, as I still have to target the .NET 2.0 framework. Thanks.

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  • algorithm q: Fuzzy matching of structured data

    - by user86432
    I have a fairly small corpus of structured records sitting in a database. Given a tiny fraction of the information contained in a single record, submitted via a web form (so structured in the same way as the table schema), (let us call it the test record) I need to quickly draw up a list of the records that are the most likely matches for the test record, as well as provide a confidence estimate of how closely the search terms match a record. The primary purpose of this search is to discover whether someone is attempting to input a record that is duplicate to one in the corpus. There is a reasonable chance that the test record will be a dupe, and a reasonable chance the test record will not be a dupe. The records are about 12000 bytes wide and the total count of records is about 150,000. There are 110 columns in the table schema and 95% of searches will be on the top 5% most commonly searched columns. The data is stuff like names, addresses, telephone numbers, and other industry specific numbers. In both the corpus and the test record it is entered by hand and is semistructured within an individual field. You might at first blush say "weight the columns by hand and match word tokens within them", but it's not so easy. I thought so too: if I get a telephone number I thought that would indicate a perfect match. The problem is that there isn't a single field in the form whose token frequency does not vary by orders of magnitude. A telephone number might appear 100 times in the corpus or 1 time in the corpus. The same goes for any other field. This makes weighting at the field level impractical. I need a more fine-grained approach to get decent matching. My initial plan was to create a hash of hashes, top level being the fieldname. Then I would select all of the information from the corpus for a given field, attempt to clean up the data contained in it, and tokenize the sanitized data, hashing the tokens at the second level, with the tokens as keys and frequency as value. I would use the frequency count as a weight: the higher the frequency of a token in the reference corpus, the less weight I attach to that token if it is found in the test record. My first question is for the statisticians in the room: how would I use the frequency as a weight? Is there a precise mathematical relationship between n, the number of records, f(t), the frequency with which a token t appeared in the corpus, the probability o that a record is an original and not a duplicate, and the probability p that the test record is really a record x given the test and x contain the same t in the same field? How about the relationship for multiple token matches across multiple fields? Since I sincerely doubt that there is, is there anything that gets me close but is better than a completely arbitrary hack full of magic factors? Barring that, has anyone got a way to do this? I'm especially keen on other suggestions that do not involve maintaining another table in the database, such as a token frequency lookup table :). This is my first post on StackOverflow, thanks in advance for any replies you may see fit to give.

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  • IIS 6+ASP.NET - many temp files generated

    - by moshe_ravid
    I have a ASP.NET + some .NET web-services running on IIS 6 (win 2003 server). The issue is that IIS is generating a lot (!) of files in "c:\WINDOWS\Temp" directory. a lot of files means thousands of files, which get to more than 3G of size so far. The files are generated by this command: C:\WINDOWS\SysWOW64\inetsrv "C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\csc.exe" /t:library /utf8output /R:"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\vfagt\113819dd\db0d5802\assembly\dl3\fedc6ef1\006e24d8_3bc9ca01\VfAgentWService.DLL" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Services\2.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a\System.Web.Services.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\mscorlib.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Xml\2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\System.Xml.dll" /R:"C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System\2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\System.dll" /out:"C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\9i_i2bmg.dll" /debug- /optimize+ /nostdlib /D:_DYNAMIC_XMLSERIALIZER_COMPILATION "C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\9i_i2bmg.0.cs" The files in the temp directory are pairs of *.out & *.err, where the *.err file is zero size, and the *.out file contains the compilation output messages. What is causing IIS to generate so many files? How can I prevent it? UPDATE: The problem is that the command i described above (csc.exe) is being executed many (many) times, causing the .out & .err to be generated so many times, until it consumes the disk space. So - my question is: what is causing this command to run so many times? (i don't have that many .aspx & .asmx files in my web app). Thanks, Moe

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  • ASP.NET MVC is not displaying the image

    - by Pinu
    <asp:Conte nt ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <%-- <h2>Notes</h2> <% Html.RenderPartial("~/Views/Shared/UserControl/Notes.ascx",Model.Notes); %> <br /> <h2>User Tracking Informtaion</h2> <% Html.RenderPartial("~/Views/Shared/UserControl/Tracking.ascx",Model.Log); %>--%> <div> <% for (int i = 1; i <= ViewData.Model.SelectedDocument.DocumentPages ; i++) { %> <br /> <img src="<%=DocuvaultMVC.Helpers.AppHelper.PDFUrl(ViewData.Model.SelectedDocument.DocumentID,i)%>" alt="Document" width="612" height="792" /> <%}%> <div> </div> </div> public static string PDFUrl(int id, int page) { return VirtualPathUtility.ToAbsolute("~/ViewDocument.aspx/" + id + "/" + page); }

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  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: HtmlHelpers, foreach?

    - by dcolumbus
    This one is new to me... I'm bringing in a Model that represents a list of items. Some items should be rendered as a number of checkboxes and radios. Others will be rendered in a list. Now I know how to foreach the items and spit them out manually... but I'd like to be able to check them against the Model that I have, making sure that at least one optios is selected/chosen. And obviously display the associated validation errors. This is how I am displaying the checkbox items manually: <ul> <% foreach (Corporate.Entities.DesignLayout.Tag tag in Model.DesignOptions.Items) { %> <li><input type="checkbox" /><%: tag.TagName %></li> <% } %> </ul> Two questions arise: 1) How do I check that list of checkboxes against my model? 2) How would I render the tag items with an HtmlHelper SelectList? Example: <%: Html.ListBoxFor(m=>m.DesignOptions, [don't know what I should put here]) %>

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  • auto refresh of div in mvc3 ASP.Net not working

    - by user1493249
    ViewData.cshtml(Partial View) Date Bill Amount PayNow </tr> </thead> <tbody> @{ for (int i = @Model.bill.Count - 1; i >= 0; i--) { <tr> <td width="30%" align="center">@Model.billdate[i]</td> <td width="30%" align="center">@Model.bill[i]</td> <td width="30%" align="center"> <a class="isDone" href="#" data-tododb-itemid="@Model.bill[i]">Paynow</a> </td> </tr> } } </tbody> Index.cshtml(View) $(document).ready(function () { window.setInterval(function () { var url = '@Url.Action("SomeScreen", "Home")'; $('#dynamictabs').load(url) }, 9000); $.ajaxSetup({ cache: false }); }); @Html.Partial("ViewData") HomeController.cs(Controller) public ActionResult Index() { fieldProcessor fp= new fieldProcessor(); return View(fp); } public ActionResult ShowScreen() { return View("ViewData",fp); } Still the same is not working..

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  • How to programaticly access min and Max values defined in a core-data model designed with XCode ?

    - by Xav
    I was expecting to find that in the NSAttributeDescription class, but only the default value is there. Behind the scene I tought a validationPredicate was created but trying to reach it using NSDictionary* dico= [[myManagedObject entity] propertiesByName]; NSAttributeDescription* attributeDescription=[dico objectForKey:attributeKey]; for (NSString* string in [attributeDescription validationWarnings]) just get me nowhere, no validationWarnings, no validationPredicates... any thoughts on this ? Edit1: It seems that getting the entity straight from the managedObject doesn't give you the full picture. Getting the Entity from the NSManagedObjectModel permits to reach the validationWarnings & validationPredicates...

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  • Cant install .NET application in Clients PC

    - by Niraj Doshi
    Hello all, My client's PC runs Windows 7 Ultimate with .netframework 4 client profile. I am unable to install my application developed in VS2008. I tried uninstalling .NET Framework 4 From his PC and running the Clean up tool provided by Microsoft. But still I am unable to install it successfully. It provides Error 1001. I tried running the program as administrator. I also tried to Turn on .net 3.5 feature from add or remove program. Thanks in advance. :) Edit: The error what i get is shown here. Furthermore, I have confirmed that it is a 32bit processor and i run x86 release version of setup The application is developed in a Windows 7 OS with .NET Framework 3.5 I have installed this application in 7 PCs which have .NET 3.5 installed in them and having OS Windows XP,Vista and Windows 7; and all are working fine. In clients PC, when I try to install .NET 3.5 again, the installer starts but then it disappears suddenly without doing anything I have tried turning on .NET 3.5 framework feature from control panel Program and Features. I have tried running the program as Administrator I have tried setting the application setup in Windows XP and Vista compatible mode. But still the issue persists. Thanks :)

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  • ASP.NET AJAX, WebSeal Junctions, and Sessions

    - by powella
    I've run up across a problem with ASP.NET AJAX (hooked up to WebServices directly) and accessing our site through a WebSeal junction. Listing 11. On this page; http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/tivoli/library/t-ajaxtam/index.html explains that requests to pages which do not result in a content type of text/html are not sent with cookie data. Hence, no session. ASP.NET AJAX requests are returned with a content type of "application/json; charset=utf-8". As such, the WebSeal junction is not appending the Session Cookie to the request. This results in our WebService seeing the user as invalid, due to no session information. The Junction has been setup properly with the -J parameter (thats an uppercase J, which appends the required script for WebSeal to the bottom of the page - this prevents forcing IE into quirks mode.) and we've confirmed that the necessary script exists in the output source. I'm up for any suggestions at this point, as I'm out of ideas. FWIW, the site runs perfectly when not accessed through the WebSeal Junction.

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  • ASP.NET sending email through exchange problem

    - by Solmead
    I have an exchange 2010 server running on Windows 2008 R2, I also have a remote webserver running Windows 2003 with multiple sites on it (all asp.net mvc 2 sites). I setup a Transport in exchange and all the websites on my remote web server can send email no problem to anyone in the exchange server and to any external domain. Now for my problem. I am having issues with that webserver, so I moved one of the websites to run on my exchange server, it runs well (low hit website) except that email doesn't work from that site. I tried changing the Transport in exchange to add the IP address of the local machine and the 127.0.0.1 addresses and it still isn't sending any email. Any ideas on how to get this working? The remote websites can still send email no problem, the version of the site that I had to move on the remote server can still email, but on the exchange server for that website email does not send. I would guess it is a Transport issue, since it is running on the same server a firewall shouldn't be the issue. I changed the smtp setting in web.config to localhost, and now I do receive email to my account on the exchange server, but I do not receive any emails on outside addresses. To add more description, this is a custom developed asp.net mvc 2 website. And no errors were being generated in the code when sending the email in either case.

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  • IIS8 Asp.net State service remote connection failure

    - by maxisam
    Recently we upgrade our web server to windows server 2012 with IIS8. We have this issue when users try to connect the asp.net state service to this web server remotely. It always popup Unable to make the session state request to the session state server. Please ensure that the ASP.NET State service is started and that the client and server ports are the same. If the server is on a remote machine, please ensure that it accepts remote requests by checking the value of HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Services\aspnet_state\Parameters\AllowRemoteConnection. If the server is on the local machine, and if the before mentioned registry value does not exist or is set to 0, then the state server connection string must use either 'localhost' or '127.0.0.1' as the server name. In IIS7 / 7.5 we use the same way and it works fine. As long as the state service is running and firewall is set properly, we don't have any problem. However, in IIS8 it doesn't work. (We even turn off firewall to test it) Thanks for helping.

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  • .NET 2.0 Application now running slow on IIS 7.5

    - by Valien
    I recently moved (and still in testing) an application from a Windows 2003 Server (Physical box) running IIS 6.x to a Windows 2008 R2 Standard (VM) IIS 7.5 server. The application is a .NET framework 2.0 application and is running under a 2.0 App Pool. This site works great except for one thing: Takes forever to get a request back. I've been tracking it with Chrome Inspect Element and it queries the site and can take up to 45 seconds to answer. Now when it does the page(s) render instantly but it's that initial request that's killing it. I see no error logs or issues with the application or Windows Event Viewer or even IIS logs so not sure where to start looking next. Some new changes was that previously the app resided behind a Pix firewall and now is behind a larger network environment in a DMZ zone (and I believe NetScaler is also being used to manage the network). I do not have rights/abilities to look at the network itself but can contact the Data center folks to look deeper into this but I wanted to make sure it's not my application that might be causing the slowdown or IIS. In summary: .NET 2.0 application works great in IIS 6.x Application moved to an IIS 7.5 server and now slow on rendering but when it does render responds back with pages instantly. Edit for solution Found out that it was the SOAP calls that were slowing the site down. In the new datacenter my application cannot request SOAP calls and so they time out after 40-45 seconds or so. Now trying to find out if I can install a proxy server to redirect this...

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  • What's needed in a complete ASP.NET environment?

    - by Christian W
    We have a ASP3.0 application with a few ASP.NET (2.0) dittys mixed in. (Our longtime goal is to migrate everything to ASP.NET but that's not important for this issue) Our current test/deploy workflow is like this: 1 Use notepad++ or VS2008 to fix a bug/feature (depending on what I have open) 2 Open my virtual test-server 3 Copy the fixed file over, either with explorer, or if I can be bothered to open it, WinMerge 4 Test that the fix works 5 Close the virtual test-server 6 Connect to our host with VPN 7 Use WinMerge to update the files necessary 8 Pray to higher powers that the production environment is not so different that something bombs. To make things worse, only I have access to my "test-server". So I'm the only one testing it. I really want to make this a bit more robust, I even have a subversion setup running. But I always forget to commit changes... And I don't even work in my checked out folder, but a copy of what is currently in production... Can someone recommend some good reading on deploying, testing, staging and stuff like that. I currently use VS2008 and want to use subversion or GIT (or any other free VCS). Since I'm the only developer, teamsystem is not really an option (cost-related). I have found myself developing an "improved" feature, only to find a bug in the same feature in the production system. And since my "improved" feature incorporated deleting some old functionality, I have to fix bugs directly in production... That's not a fun feeling... (I have inherited this system recently... So it's not directly my fault that it is like this ;) )

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  • ASP.NET Session State SQL Server 2008 R2 Freezes with High CPU Usage

    - by jtseng
    Our ASP.Net website uses SQL Server as the session state provider. We currently host the database on SQL Server 2005 since it does not play well on 2008 R2. We would like to know why, and how to fix it. hardware setup Our current session state server has SQL Server 2005 with the files hosted on a single local disk. It is one of our oldest servers since it has served us well, and we never felt the need to upgrade it. The database is about 2 GB holding 6000 sessions. (The sessions are a little big, but we need it.) We have another server with SQL Server 2008 R2 with a much faster CPU, much more RAM, and a much faster hard disk. situation One day, we have a huge surge in traffic. The transaction log growth on SQL Server freezes the server for 10's of seconds, allowing only a few requests through in minutes. So we load up the new server with ASPState with very large data and log files and point all of our applications to the new server. It chugs along fine for about 5 minutes, and then the CPU usage jumps up to 50% of the 16 cores that Standard Edition can use and freezes for 10's of seconds at a time. The files do not record any autogrowth events. The disk queue is nice and low. RAM usage is low. CPU usage on our old server has never been higher than 5%. What happened on the new server? Alternatively, I would like to hear success stories with ASP.NET session state server running on SQL Server 2008 R2 with an average write load of 30MB/sec with bursts up to 200MB/sec.

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  • User authentication -- username mismatch in IIS in ASP.NET application

    - by Cory Larson
    Last week, an employee's Active Directory username was changed (or a new one was created for them). For the purposes of this example, let's assume these usernames: Old: Domain\11111 New: Domain\22222 When this user now logs in using their new username, and attempts to browse to any one of a number of ASP.NET applications using only Windows Authentication (no Anonymous enabled), the system authenticates but our next layer of database-driven permissions prevents them from being authorized. We tracked it down to a mismatch of usernames between their logon account and who IIS thinks they are. Below are the outputs of several ASP.NET variables from apps running in a Windows 2008 IIS7.5 environment: Request.ServerVariables["AUTH_TYPE"]: Negotiate Request.ServerVariables["AUTH_USER"]: Domain\11111 Request.ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"]: Domain\22222 Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_USER"]: Domain\11111 HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name: Domain\11111 System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name: Domain\11111 From the above, I can see that only the LOGON_USER server variable has the correct value, which is the account the user used to log on to their machine. However, we use the "AUTH_USER" variable for looking up the database permissions. In a separate testing environment (completely different server: Windows 2003, IIS6), all of the above variables show "Domain\22222". So this seems to be a server-specific issue, like the credentials are somehow getting cached either on their machine or on the server (the former seems more plausible). So the question is: how do I confirm whether it's the user's machine or the server that is botching the request? How should I go about fixing this? I looked at the following two resources and will be giving the first one a try shortly: http://www.interworks.com/blogs/jvalente/2010/02/02/removing-saved-credentials-passwords-windows-xp-windows-vista-or-windows-7 http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2325005/classic-asp-request-servervariableslogon-user-returning-wrong-username/5299080#5299080 Thanks.

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  • Connection between Asp.Net and Oracle 10g Express Edition

    - by l3gion
    Hello, I'm struggling to find a way to connect my Asp .Net + C# application with my Oracle 10g Express Edition. Here's my scenario, I'm at Mac OS and I have 2 Virtual machines, one for Win 7 (VS 2010 app) and another with a Parallels Virtual Appliance with Oracle 10g Express Edition 1.1. Which provider (Oledb, ODP.NET, etc..) should I use? How to make the connection to the server in C#? Right now I have this: <appSettings> <add key="conn" value="Data Source=10.211.55.11;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=l3gion;Password=l3gion;" /> </appSettings> And at the .cs file: SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("insert_thing", new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["conn"])); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; *insert_thing is a stored procedure Using this I got this error: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I've searched for some possible solutions. Tried some, including: firewall disabled, allow remote connection at oracle express edition using this cmd line ("EXEC DBMS_XDB.SETLISTENERLOCALACCESS(FALSE);").. The error persists. Can anyone guide me into the right direction? I'm a newbie with this type of things. Thank you for your patience. regards

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  • Windows 7 logon script net use fails

    - by Bryan
    Our network PCs currently consists of Windows XP Professional on a mixed 2008/2003 domain, with exception to one machine, which is a new Windows 7 PC we have bought for testing before we deploy the operating system. But we have discovered a problem with our logon script which automatically maps network drives for our users. The logon scripts are done via User GPOs, but the script itself is just a .cmd file using net use. The permissions are perfectly fine, as the same user can log on to a Windows XP machine and get their drives mapped without problem, but this one drive mapping constantly fails. This is repeatable using the net use command, and fails every time - it actually prompts the user for a username and password when executed interactively, yet if we enter \\server\share from a run dialog, the contents of the network share appear and are accessible without any further authentication. The Windows 7 PC (just like the XP systems) are domain members and the account being used is a domain account, which does have access to the share (as stated, it works fine on XP). I fail to understand what is happening here, as other shares on the server get mapped on the Windows 7 system. More info: The effective permissions of the share in question only grant the user 'list' permission on the root directory, the share permissions are 'everyone,full control'. I've created a new share with the same permissions just to test if it was down to the 'list' permissions on the root directory, but the Windows 7 machine maps this one fine.

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  • Core Data managed object context thread synchronisation

    - by Ben Reeves
    I'm have an issue where i'm updating a many-to-many relationship in a background thread, which works fine in that threa, but when I send the object back to the main thread the changes do not show. If I close the app and reopen the data is saved fine and the changes show on the main thread. Also using [context lock] instead of a different managed object context works fine. I have tried NSManagedObjectContext: - (BOOL)save:(NSError **)error; - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag; at different stages throughout the process but it doesn't seem to help. My core data code uses the following getter to ensure any operations are thread safe: - (NSManagedObjectContext *) managedObjectContext { NSThread * thisThread = [NSThread currentThread]; if (thisThread == [NSThread mainThread]) { //Main thread just return default context return managedObjectContext; } else { //Thread safe trickery NSManagedObjectContext * threadManagedObjectContext = [[thisThread threadDictionary] objectForKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; if (threadManagedObjectContext == nil) { threadManagedObjectContext = [[[NSManagedObjectContext alloc] init] autorelease]; [threadManagedObjectContext setPersistentStoreCoordinator: [self persistentStoreCoordinator]]; [[thisThread threadDictionary] setObject:threadManagedObjectContext forKey:CONTEXT_KEY]; } return threadManagedObjectContext; } } and when I pass object between threads i'm using -(NSManagedObject*)makeSafe:(NSManagedObject*)object { if ([object managedObjectContext] != [self managedObjectContext]) { NSError * error = nil; object = [[self managedObjectContext] existingObjectWithID:[object objectID] error:&error]; if (error) { NSLog(@"Error makeSafe: %@", error); } } return object; } Any help appreciated

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