Search Results

Search found 26297 results on 1052 pages for 'unit test'.

Page 317/1052 | < Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >

  • multiple inheritance

    - by hitech
    when we say "a member declated as protected is accessible to any class imediately derived from it" what does this mean. in the follwing example get_number function can be accessible by the result class , as per the statement it sould only be accessile to test class. class student { protected: int roll_number; public: void get_number(int){ cout<< "hello"; } void put_number(void) {cout<< "hello"; } }; class test : public student { protected : float sub1; float sub2; public: void get_marks(float, float) {cout<< "hello"; roll_number = 10; } void put_marks(void) {cout<< "hello"; cout << "roll_number = " << roll_number ; } }; class result :public test { float total; public: void display(){cout<< "hello"; roll_number = 10; } }; int main() { result student; student.get_marks(2.2, 2.2); student.put_marks(); return 0; } i changed the code as per the first statement the protected variable roll_number not be accessible upto the result class ?

    Read the article

  • Project Euler #119 Make Faster

    - by gangqinlaohu
    Trying to solve Project Euler problem 119: The number 512 is interesting because it is equal to the sum of its digits raised to some power: 5 + 1 + 2 = 8, and 8^3 = 512. Another example of a number with this property is 614656 = 28^4. We shall define an to be the nth term of this sequence and insist that a number must contain at least two digits to have a sum. You are given that a2 = 512 and a10 = 614656. Find a30. Question: Is there a more efficient way to find the answer than just checking every number until a30 is found? My Code int currentNum = 0; long value = 0; for (long a = 11; currentNum != 30; a++){ //maybe a++ is inefficient int test = Util.sumDigits(a); if (isPower(a, test)) { currentNum++; value = a; System.out.println(value + ":" + currentNum); } } System.out.println(value); isPower checks if a is a power of test. Util.sumDigits: public static int sumDigits(long n){ int sum = 0; String s = "" + n; while (!s.equals("")){ sum += Integer.parseInt("" + s.charAt(0)); s = s.substring(1); } return sum; } program has been running for about 30 minutes (might be overflow on the long). Output (so far): 81:1 512:2 2401:3 4913:4 5832:5 17576:6 19683:7 234256:8 390625:9 614656:10 1679616:11 17210368:12 34012224:13 52521875:14 60466176:15 205962976:16 612220032:17

    Read the article

  • How to encrypt a RSAKey using another RSAKey?

    - by Tom Brito
    I know its not the usual thing to do. But the specification I'm implementing is discribed this way, and I cannot run out. I was trying to encrypt the modulus and exponent of the private key, but the following test code raises an exception because the byte array is 1 byte larger then the maximum allowed by RSA block: import java.security.KeyPair; import java.security.KeyPairGenerator; import java.security.NoSuchAlgorithmException; import java.security.NoSuchProviderException; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPrivateKey; import java.security.interfaces.RSAPublicKey; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import org.apache.commons.lang.ArrayUtils; public class TEST { public static KeyPair generateKeyPair() throws NoSuchAlgorithmException, NoSuchProviderException { KeyPairGenerator keyPairGenerator = KeyPairGenerator.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); keyPairGenerator.initialize(1024); return keyPairGenerator.generateKeyPair(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { KeyPair keyPair = generateKeyPair(); RSAPrivateKey privateKey = (RSAPrivateKey) keyPair.getPrivate(); System.out.println("Priv modulus len = " + privateKey.getModulus().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv exponent len = " + privateKey.getPrivateExponent().bitLength()); System.out.println("Priv modulus toByteArray len = " + privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray().length); byte[] byteArray = privateKey.getModulus().toByteArray(); // the byte at index 0 have no value (in every generation it is always zero) byteArray = ArrayUtils.subarray(byteArray, 1, byteArray.length); System.out.println("byteArray size: " + byteArray.length); RSAPublicKey publicKey = (RSAPublicKey) keyPair.getPublic(); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("RSA", "BC"); cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, publicKey); byte[] encryptedBytes = cipher.doFinal(byteArray); System.out.println("Success!"); } } (obs. its just a test, i would never encrypt the private key with its pair public key) The byte array is 128 bytes, the exactly maximum allowed by a RSA block, so why the exception? And how to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Why does exec:java work and exec:exec fail?

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, just set up a simple project to test the functionality of the maven exec plugin. I have one class containing one "Hello World" main method. I've tested two configurations of the exec plugin. <goals> <goal>exec</goal> </goals> <configuration> <executable>java</executable> <arguments> <argument>-classpath</argument> <classpath/> <argument>test.exec.HelloWorldExec</argument> </arguments> </configuration> failed miserably, giving me a ClassNotFoundException, while <goals><goal>java</goal></goals> <configuration> <mainClass>test.exec.HelloWorldExec</mainClass> </configuration> worked. However I would like to be able to start my java main class in a separate process, so I'd like to understand whats different with exec:exec and how I can get it to work? Any help appreciated cheers Whizz

    Read the article

  • MVC JsonResult with the [Authorize] attribute going to Logon but not displaying the view

    - by likestoski
    I am seeing odd behavior with MVC 3 methods that return a JsonResult when used with the Authorize attribute. What looks like happens is the Authorize is correctly evaluated when I am not logged in but instead of redirecting to the logon form the Json response is the logon form. Is there an addition attribute that directs the response to not return a value but instead redirect the user to the logon form, preferebly with the correct returnUrl value? What I did as a demo was to setup a new MVC3 site and added AspNetMembership to my DB using the aspnet_regsql.exe command. All that is setup and logging me in correctly. The behavior of the JsonResult doesn't seem right and I'm hoping I have just missed an attribute to make it work properly. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance. Here is the Account Controller (leaving out the Post action which is not part of this question). public class AccountController : Controller { public ActionResult LogOn() { return View(); } [Authorize] public JsonResult AuthorizedAction() { return Json("Only returns if I am authorized"); } } Here is the Html markup: <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.11.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#btnTest").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Account/AuthorizedAction", data: {}, success: function (result) { $("#testMe").html(result); }, error: function (result) { $("#testMe").html('Something broke in the ajax request'); } }); }); }); </script> <input type="button" id="btnTest" value="Test me" /> <div id="testMe">I have initial text</div> The Result: 1) When logged in I get 'Only returns if I am authorized' in my test div 2) When not logged and I have a break point in my Logon() method I see this value Request["returnUrl"] "/Account/AuthorizedAction" The test div I have displays the logon form :) this seems like I'm just not handling this properly.

    Read the article

  • JLabel wont change color twice

    - by Aly
    Hi, I have the following code: public class Test extends JFrame implements ActionListener{ private static final Color TRANSP_WHITE = new Color(new Float(1), new Float(1), new Float(1), new Float(0.5)); private static final Color TRANSP_RED = new Color(new Float(1), new Float(0), new Float(0), new Float(0.1)); private static final Color[] COLORS = new Color[]{ TRANSP_RED, TRANSP_WHITE}; private int index = 0; private JLabel label; private JButton button; public Test(){ super(); setLayout(new BoxLayout(getContentPane(), BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); label = new JLabel("hello world"); label.setOpaque(true); label.setBackground(TRANSP_WHITE); getContentPane().add(label); button = new JButton("Click Me"); button.addActionListener(this); getContentPane().add(button); pack(); setVisible(true); } @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { if(e.getSource().equals(button)){ label.setBackground(COLORS[index % (COLORS.length - 1)]); } } public static void main(String[] args) { new Test(); } } When I run it I get the label with the TRANSP_WHITE background and then when I click the button this color changes to TRANSP_RED but when I click it again I see no change in color. Does anyone know why? Thanks

    Read the article

  • g++ fails mysteriously only if a .h is in a certain directory

    - by ggambett
    I'm experiencing an extremely weird problem in a fresh OSX 10.4.11 + Xcode 2.5 installation. I've reduced it to a minimal test case. Here's test.cpp: #include "macros.h" int main (void) { return 1; } And here's macros.h: #ifndef __JUST_TESTING__ #define __JUST_TESTING__ template<typename T> void swap (T& pT1, T& pT2) { T pTmp = pT1; pT1 = pT2; pT2 = pTmp; } #endif //__JUST_TESTING__ This compiles and works just fine if both files are in the same directory. HOWEVER, if I put macros.h in /usr/include/gfc2 (it's part of a custom library I use) and change the #include in test.cpp, compilation fails with this error : /usr/include/gfc2/macros.h:4: error: template with C linkage I researched that error and most of the comments point to a "dangling extern C", which doesn't seem to be the case at all. I'm at a complete loss here. Is g++ for some reason assuming everything in /usr/include/gfc2 is C even though it's included from a .cpp file that doesn't say extern "C" anywhere? Any ideas? EDIT : It does compile if I use the full path in the #include, ie #include "/usr/include/gfc2/macros.h" EDIT2 : It's not including the wrong header. I've verified this using cpp, g++ -E, and renaming macros.h to foobarmacros.h

    Read the article

  • Delay PHP execution until JavaScript cookie set?

    - by Adam184
    I am trying to delay PHP execution until a cookie is set through JavaScript. The code is below, I trimmed the createCookie JavaScript function for simplicity (I've tested the function itself and it works). <?php if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { ?> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // createCookie script createCookie("test", 1, 3600); }); </script> <?php // Reload the page to ensure cookie was set if(!isset($_COOKIE["test"])) { header("Location: http://localhost/asdf.php/"); } } ?> At first I had no idea why this didn't work, however after using microtime() I figured out that the PHP after the <script> was executing before the jQuery ready function. I reduced my code significantly to show a simple version that is answerable, I am well aware that I am able to use setcookie() in PHP, the requirements for the cookie are client-side. I understand mixing PHP and JavaScript is incorrect, but any help on how to make this work (is there a PHP delay? - I tried sleep(), didn't work and didn't think it would work, since the scripts would be delayed as well) would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax response not operating correctly

    - by mmarceau
    Ok this is frustrating... The code below works "correctly" as far as sending the email address to the SaveEmail URL and it gets saved correctly each time I change the drop down. However it only outputs the "Successful" message once, no matter how many times I change the value in the drop down. The "data" that is returned is "Successful". I would like to show the message for a couple seconds, then fade it out. It works correctly the first time I change the drop down, after that the change happens and the value gets saved, but the "Successful" message doesn't display. jQuery code: $('#AgentEmails').change(function() { var NewAddress = $('#AgentEmails').val(); $.post('SaveEmail.aspx', { email: NewAddress }, function(data) { $('#SelectMsg').html("<b>" + data + "</b>").fadeOut(); }); }); HTML code: <select ID='AgentEmails' runat='server'> <option value="[email protected]">TEST</option> </select><span id='SelectMsg'></span> What needs to be changed in my code to make this operate correctly? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • IIS6 throws error for jquery.

    - by user309557
    Hi, on my master page, I have referenced jquery file. I am doing simple hover function. When mouse hover, I change the css and when hover out, change the css back to originial. Nothing fancy. but my page throws jquery error when I run in IIS6 on server 2003. When I run on IIS5.1 on local xp machine, it works perfectly fine. Any idea? I access both pages from my machine so IE settings is not the problem. I opened the both js file and the error line is nothing but the end of the file ( i.e last line of the js file) Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3) Timestamp: Mon, 5 Apr 2010 21:59:18 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 4377 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Syntax error Line: 6183 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Object expected Line: 189 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://server-test/myapplication/

    Read the article

  • Error when using jquery webservice call to populate dropdownlist

    - by bugz
    For some reason when i tested parsing a json string to a dropdownlist it worked doing this var json = [{ "Id": "12345", "WorkUnitId": "SR0001954", "Description": "Test Service Request From Serena", "WorkUnitCategory": "ServiceRequest" }, { "Id": "12355", "WorkUnitId": "WOR001854", "Description": "Test Work Order From Serena", "WorkUnitCategory": "ServiceRequest" }, { "Id": "12365", "WorkUnitId": "DBR001274", "Description": "Test Database Related Service Request From Serena", "WorkUnitCategory": "ServiceRequest"}]; $(json).each(function() { comboboxWorkUnit.append($('<option>').val(this.Id).text(this.WorkUnitId)); }); However when i tryed taking the json from my webservice and placing it into the dropdownlist i get an error saying the dropdownlist doesnt support this metod. $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Services/WorkUnitService.asmx/WorkUnit", data: "{'Number' : '" + Number.text() + "','Id': '" + combobox.val() + "','workerType': '" + EmployeeType + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(json) { $(json).each(function() { comboboxWorkUnit.append($('<option>').val(this.Id).text(this.WorkUnitId)); }); } }); I also tried which called the webservice method but through an error $.postJSON("Services/WorkUnitService.asmx/WorkUnitsForParAndPhase", "{'parNumber' : '" + parNumber + "','phaseId': '" + combobox.val() + "','workerType': '" + EmployeeType + "'}", function(data) { alert(data.toString()); }); And i tryed this which never called the webservice $.getJSON('Services/WorkUnitService.asmx/WorkUnitsForParAndPhase' + parNumber + '/' + combobox.val() + '/' + EmployeeType, function(myData) { alert(myData.toString()); });

    Read the article

  • Faster or more memory-efficient solution in Python for this Codejam problem.

    - by jeroen.vangoey
    I tried my hand at this Google Codejam Africa problem (the contest is already finished, I just did it to improve my programming skills). The Problem: You are hosting a party with G guests and notice that there is an odd number of guests! When planning the party you deliberately invited only couples and gave each couple a unique number C on their invitation. You would like to single out whoever came alone by asking all of the guests for their invitation numbers. The Input: The first line of input gives the number of cases, N. N test cases follow. For each test case there will be: One line containing the value G the number of guests. One line containing a space-separated list of G integers. Each integer C indicates the invitation code of a guest. Output For each test case, output one line containing "Case #x: " followed by the number C of the guest who is alone. The Limits: 1 = N = 50 0 < C = 2147483647 Small dataset 3 = G < 100 Large dataset 3 = G < 1000 Sample Input: 3 3 1 2147483647 2147483647 5 3 4 7 4 3 5 2 10 2 10 5 Sample Output: Case #1: 1 Case #2: 7 Case #3: 5 This is the solution that I came up with: with open('A-large-practice.in') as f: lines = f.readlines() with open('A-large-practice.out', 'w') as output: N = int(lines[0]) for testcase, i in enumerate(range(1,2*N,2)): G = int(lines[i]) for guest in range(G): codes = map(int, lines[i+1].split(' ')) alone = (c for c in codes if codes.count(c)==1) output.write("Case #%d: %d\n" % (testcase+1, alone.next())) It runs in 12 seconds on my machine with the large input. Now, my question is, can this solution be improved in Python to run in a shorter time or use less memory? The analysis of the problem gives some pointers on how to do this in Java and C++ but I can't translate those solutions back to Python.

    Read the article

  • Weird Rails database errors

    - by Jason Swett
    I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

    Read the article

  • MS 70-536 .NET Framework Foundation - info on Exam? Especially regex?

    - by Sebastian P.R. Gingter
    Hi, I know there are already some questions about this, but not that specific. I have the self-paced training kit and worked through the test exam tool that is on the CD coming with the book. I constantly fail on the test tool, mostly on the regex questions. I'm not a regex guru. In fact my regex-fu is more than weak. I know what regex'es are, how I can use them and where my 'Regular expressions - kurz und gut' book is in my drawer in case I really need them. And to be honest I feel like learning regex is a total waste of time, because if I need them I have either a colleague that is fit and can do them in just a few seconds or I need my book and get them right in a still fair amount of time. And from my experience I can tell that I need regex like once in two or three years. So just putting in a lot of time into learning just the expressions to pass the exam is.. something I like not to have to do. Can you tell me something about the real exam vs. the test exam tool on the book and about the need to know regex for passing it? Thank you for your time. Marked as Community Wiki. Hope that fits?

    Read the article

  • Not Understanding Basics Of Dynamic DataBinding (bindPropety) In Flex

    - by Joshua
    I need to dynamically bind properties of components created at runtime. In this particular case please assume I need to use bindProperty. I don't quite understand why the following simplistic test is failing (see code). When I click the button, the label text does not change. I realize that there are simpler ways to go about this particular example using traditional non-dynamic binding, but I need to understand it in terms of using bindProperty. Can someone please help me understand what I'm missing? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" xmlns:ns1="Tools.*" minWidth="684" minHeight="484" xmlns:ns2="*" creationComplete="Init();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.binding.utils.*; public var Available:ArrayCollection=new ArrayCollection(); public function get Value():String { return (Available.getItemAt(0).toString()); } public function Init():void { Available.addItemAt('Before', 0); BindingUtils.bindProperty(Lab, 'text', this, 'Value'); } public function Test():void { Available.setItemAt('After', 0); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Label x="142" y="51" id="Lab"/> <mx:Button x="142" y="157" label="Button" click="Test();"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Deprecated functions not spotted if using "System::Threading::ThreadState" (and others!) C++ VS2005/

    - by Fishboy
    Hi, I'm facing an issue with c++ on vs2005 and also vs2008... here's how you can reproduce the issue.... create a new (c++) project called 'test' (file|new|project) select "Windows Forms Application" and add the 'stdio.h' include and the code fragment below into the test.cpp source file..... -------------------start of snippet-------------------- #include <stdio.h> ... int main(array<System::String ^> ^args) { int i; System::Threading::ThreadState state; char str[20]; sprintf (str, "%s", "test string"); ... -------------------end of snippet-------------------- If you compile the code as above (you'll have to 'buildall' first), you'll get two warnings about 'i' and 'state' being unreferenced (nothing about sprintf being deprecated). If you comment out "System::Threading :Thread state;", you'll get one warning about 'i' being unreferenced and another warning (C4996) for the 'deprecated' sprintf statement.... This issue also occurs for "System::Windows::Forms::MessageBoxIcon", "System::Base64FormattingOptions" (and perhap all 'enum class' types!) Anyone know of the cause and workaround to the issue demonstrated here ( i have other files that demonstate this issue..). (I had started a thread on msdn, but then found this site! see link below) Visual Studio 2005 has stopped warning about deprecated functions

    Read the article

  • Why won't my code segfault on Windows 7?

    - by Trevor
    This is an unusual question to ask but here goes: In my code, I accidentally dereference NULL somewhere. But instead of the application crashing with a segfault, it seems to stop execution of the current function and just return control back to the UI. This makes debugging difficult because I would normally like to be alerted to the crash so I can attach a debugger. What could be causing this? Specifically, my code is an ODBC Driver (ie. a DLL). My test application is ODBC Test (odbct32w.exe) which allows me to explicitly call the ODBC API functions in my DLL. When I call one of the functions which has a known segfault, instead of crashing the application, ODBC Test simply returns control to the UI without printing the result of the function call. I can then call any function in my driver again. I do know that technically the application calls the ODBC driver manager which loads and calls the functions in my driver. But that is beside the point as my segfault (or whatever is happening) causes the driver manager function to not return either (as evidenced by the application not printing a result). One of my co-workers with a similar machine experiences this same problem while another does not but we have not been able to determine any specific differences.

    Read the article

  • Rails exit controller after rendering

    - by codysehl
    I have an action in my controller that I am having trouble with. This is my first rails app, so I'm not sure of the best practices surrounding rails. I have a model called Group and a few actions that go in it's controller. I have written a test that should cause the controller to render an error in JSON because of an invalid Group ID. Instead of rendering and exiting, it looks like the controller is rendering and continuing to execute. Test test 'should not remove group because of invalid group id' do post(:remove, {'group_id' => '3333'}) response = JSON.parse(@response.body) assert_response :success assert_equal 'Success', response['message'] end Controller action # Post remove # group_id def remove if((@group = Group.find_by_id(params[:group_id])) == nil) render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } end @group.destroy if(!Group.exists?(@group)) render :json => { :message => "Success" } else render :json => { :errors => @group.errors.full_messages } end end In the controller, the first if statement executes: render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } but @group.destroy is still being executed. This seems counter-intuitive to me, I would think that the render method should exit the controller. Why is the controller not exiting after render is called? The purpose of this block of code is to recover gracefully when no record can be found with the passed in ID. Is this the correct way of doing something like this?

    Read the article

  • How do I repeat function over several row.

    - by ChrisBD
    I'll admit that I'm not an Excel guru so maybe someone here can help me. On my worksheet I have several blocks of data. I calculate the sum of all items within column D of that block. Within each block I am checking the value of the cell in column C and if it contains the letter "y" and the value in column D of that row is equal to zero I must exclude the total sum of column D. Currently I am doing this by multiplying the sum value by either 1 or 0 which is produced by running a test over the cell contents. Below is an example of what I am using to test rows 23 to row 25 inclusively for data in Column D. I am also performing the same on Column E and G, but the "y" character is always in column C, hence the absolut column reference. =IF(AND($C23="y",D23=0),0,1)*IF(AND($C24="y",D24=0),0,1)*IF(AND($C25="y",D25=0),0,1) There must be a more efficient way to do this. Ideally I would like to write a function that I can paste into a cell and then select the rows or cells over which I run the test. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • C read X bytes from a file, padding if needed

    - by Hunter McMillen
    I am trying to read in an input file 64 bits at a time, then do some calculations on those 64 bits, the problem is I need to convert the ascii text to hexadecimal characters. I have searched around but none of the answers posted seem to work for my situation. Here is what I have: int main(int argc, int * argv) { char buffer[9]; FILE *f; unsigned long long test; if(f = fopen("input2.txt", "r")) { while( fread(buffer, 8, 1, f) != 0) //while not EOF read 8 bytes at a time { buffer[8] = '\0'; test = strtoull(buffer, NULL, 16); //interpret as hex printf("%llu\n", test); printf("%s\n", buffer); } fclose(f); } } For an input like this: "testing string to hex conversion" I get results like this: 0 testing 0 string t 0 o hex co 0 nversion Where I would expect: 74 65 73 74 69 6e 67 20 <- "testing" in hex testing 73 74 72 69 6e 67 20 74 <- "string t" in hex string t 6f 20 68 65 78 20 63 6f <- "o hex co" in hex o hex co 6e 76 65 72 73 69 6f 6e <- "nversion" in hex nversion Can anyone see where I misstepped?

    Read the article

  • Core Data to-many relationship in code

    - by Jan Bezemer
    I have three entities: Session, User and Test. A session has 0-many users and a user can perform 0-6 tests. (I say 0 but in the real application always at least 1 is required, at least 1 user for a session and at least 1 test for a user. But I say 0 to express an empty start.) All entities have their own specific data attributes too. A user has a name, A session has a name, a test has six values to be filled in by the user, and so on. But my issue is with the relationships. How do I set multiple users and have them added to one session (same goes for multiple tests for one user). How do I show the content in a right way? How do I show a session that has multiple users and these users having completed multiple tests? Here's my code so far with regard to issue 1: Session *session = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; session.name = @"Session 1"; User *users = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:context]; users.age = [NSNumber numberWithInt:28]; users.session = session; //sessie.users = users; [sessie addUserObject:users]; With regard to issue 2: I can log the session, but I can't get the user(s) logged from a session. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Session" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSArray *fetchedObjects = [context executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; for (Session *info in fetchedObjects) { NSLog(@"Name: %@", info.name); NSLog(@"Having problems with this: %@",info.user); //User *details = info.user; //NSLog(@"User: %@", details.age); }

    Read the article

  • Is this an error in "More Effective C++" in Item28?

    - by particle128
    I encountered a question when I was reading the item28 in More Effective C++ .In this item, the author shows to us that we can use member template in SmartPtr such that the SmartPtr<Cassette> can be converted to SmartPtr<MusicProduct>. The following code is not the same as in the book,but has the same effect. #include <iostream> class Base{}; class Derived:public Base{}; template<typename T> class smart{ public: smart(T* ptr):ptr(ptr){} template<typename U> operator smart<U>() { return smart<U>(ptr); } ~smart(){delete ptr;} private: T* ptr; }; void test(const smart<Base>& ) {} int main() { smart<Derived> sd(new Derived); test(sd); return 0; } It indeed can be compiled without compilation error. But when I ran the executable file, I got a core dump. I think that's because the member function of the conversion operator makes a temporary smart, which has a pointer to the same ptr in sd (its type is smart<Derived>). So the delete directive operates twice. What's more, after calling test, we can never use sd any more, since ptr in sd has already been delete. Now my questions are : Is my thought right? Or my code is not the same as the original code in the book? If my thought is right, is there any method to do this? Thanks very much for your help.

    Read the article

  • how to trigger a script located on a machine in one domain from a machine on another domain

    - by user326814
    Hi, I am basically from QA. What we testers do each day is 1. Open a web browser. Type in http://11.12.13.27.8080/cruisecontrol (since we are in a particular network, only we can access this) 2. Check if the latest nightly build has been successful. If it is successful, deploy it on a test environment by clicking on 'Deploy this build' link. This deploying takes around 1-1.5 hours. During this time we cannot use our machines to work on anything else. Only after this deploying can we begin to test. Now, i wanted to know if its possible to do the below. When at home in the morning, i use something which will trigger a script (which will be on my machine at workplace). This script will inturn automatically deploy the build. I already have such a similar script. What i want to know is how is it possible to trigger this script from my home machine? Is it even possible? For e.g the external trigger will say "Deploy xxx branch on yyy test environment". So the script on my workplace machine will be invoked and it will automatically deploy it before i actually come to my desk. Please help. I am from QA and have no idea about all this.

    Read the article

  • Issues with an image link

    - by user1462362
    Two days ago I spontaneously bought myself a domain. The day before that, I hardly even knew what a domain really was. Since then, I've been trying to teach myself HTML for the very first time. Basically what I'm trying to say is, I'm very new - and will probably be poor in my explanations. I just succeeded in making an 'image-button', sorta. It's where I make a button-like image and then use it as navigation on my website (just like a regular link). My issue is that the link 'border' itself is bigger than the image, so you can press an inch outside the image itself and it will work. How do I make the invisible link 'border' the same size as the button? This is my site: http://www.djeveln.com On the test page (djeveln.com/test) is where I test things. There's the button I'm talking about, in case you can't understand my explanation very well. Here's my HTML: Here is the CSS I use for the image position and size: img.TestButton { /* Dette linker til selve størrelsen av knappen (bildet)*/ position: absolute; width: 100px; height: 75px; top: 400px; right: 250px; } Hope you can help me! :P

    Read the article

  • Powershell wait for file to delete, then copy a folder

    - by user3317623
    Morning guys, I have a couple of scripts that have to sync a folder from the network server, to the local terminal server, and lastly into the %LOCALAPPDATA%. I need to first check if a folder is being synced (this is done by creating a temporary COPYING.TXT on the server), and wait until that is removed, THEN copy to %LOCALAPPDATA%. Something like this: Server-side script executes, which syncs my folder to all of my terminal servers. It creates a COPYING.TXT temporary file, which indicates the sync is in progress. Once the sync is finished, the script removes the COPYING.TXT If someone logs on during the sync, I need a script to wait until the COPYING.TXT is deleted I.E the sync is finished, then resume the local sync into their %LOCALAPPDATA%. do{cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA} while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)) (So that copies the folder while the file DOESN'T exist, but I don't think that exits cleanly) I cannot format the above as code for some reason I'm sorry? Or: while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)){ cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA\ -recurse -force if (!(test-path c:\folder\program)){return} } But that script quits if the COPYING.TXT exists. I think I need to create a function and insert that function within itself, or a nested while loop, but that is starting to make my head hurt. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks guys.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320 321 322 323 324  | Next Page >