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  • Datetime comparaison in CAML Query for Sharepoint

    - by Garcia Julien
    Hi, i'm trying to have some item from a sharepoint list, depends on date in a custom column. I've created my query with 2U2 Caml Builder, and that's worked but when I put it in my own code in my webpart, it always return to me all the items od the list. Here is my code: DateTime startDate = new DateTime(Int32.Parse(year), 1, 1); DateTime endDate = new DateTime(Int32.Parse(year), 12, 31); SPQuery q = new SPQuery(); q.Query = "<Query><Where><And><Geq><FieldRef Name='Publicate Date' /><Value IncludeTimeValue='FALSE' Type='DateTime'>" + SPUtility.CreateISO8601DateTimeFromSystemDateTime(startDate) + "</Value></Geq><Leq><FieldRef Name='Publicate_x0020_Date' /><Value IncludeTimeValue='FALSE' Type='DateTime'>" + SPUtility.CreateISO8601DateTimeFromSystemDateTime(endDate) + "</Value></Leq></And></Where></Query>"; SPListItemCollection allItem = library.GetItems(q);

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  • KeyPressed Event

    - by Asim Sajjad
    My Problem is that I want to check if the Arrow up or down key is press then I want to increment or decrement value in the textbox control. I have registered keyup event but I have to release the arrow up key in order to change the value, What I want is if User pressed up arrow key then it will increment the value until user release up arrow key and same for the down arrow key. Any idea?

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  • Get object from arraycollection

    - by Nll
    I have a problem about to get an object from arraycollection of objects with Id,so I do : protected $_rootObject; public function __construct(myClasse $rootObject) { $this->_rootObject= $rootObject; } public function getObjectById($id) { $value = null; foreach($this->_rootObject as $root) { if ($id == $root->getId()) { $value = $root; break; } } return $value; } Then the function return "NULL" so it's dosn't work...

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  • How to replace values in multi-valued ESE column?

    - by Soonts
    I have a multi-valued short ASCII text column in one of the tables in my ESE database, that holds the person's phone numbers. I have the new set of values, and I'd like to wipe the old values completely, and only use the new values. The JET_bitSetRevertToDefaultValue bit doesn't seem to work. While the MSDN documentation says "It causes the column to return the default column value on subsequent retrieve column operations. All existing column values are removed.", I found that it does nothing (no return value is returned). Or, is there an easy way to find out how many values does the column contain (this could be zero, e.g. when I'm doing an insertion, not update)? If it was, I could just run a loop from 'nValues' to 1, erasing the value by setting it to the null while providing the itagSequence value, to achieve what I want. I'm programming C#, and using the latest version of ManagedEsent library. Thanks in advance!

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  • How do you create a MANIFEST.MF that's available when you're testing and running from a jar in produ

    - by warvair
    I've spent far too much time trying to figure this out. This should be the simplest thing and everyone who distributes Java applications in jars must have to deal with it. I just want to know the proper way to add versioning to my Java app so that I can access the version information when I'm testing, e.g. debugging in Eclipse and running from a jar. Here's what I have in my build.xml: <target name="jar" depends = "compile"> <property name="version.num" value="1.0.0"/> <buildnumber file="build.num"/> <tstamp> <format property="TODAY" pattern="yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss" /> </tstamp> <manifest file="${build}/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"> <attribute name="Built-By" value="${user.name}" /> <attribute name="Built-Date" value="${TODAY}" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Title" value="MyApp" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Vendor" value="MyCompany" /> <attribute name="Implementation-Version" value="${version.num}-b${build.number}"/> </manifest> <jar destfile="${build}/myapp.jar" basedir="${build}" excludes="*.jar" /> </target> This creates /META-INF/MANIFEST.MF and I can read the values when I'm debugging in Eclipse thusly: public MyClass() { try { InputStream stream = getClass().getResourceAsStream("/META-INF/MANIFEST.MF"); Manifest manifest = new Manifest(stream); Attributes attributes = manifest.getMainAttributes(); String implementationTitle = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Title"); String implementationVersion = attributes.getValue("Implementation-Version"); String builtDate = attributes.getValue("Built-Date"); String builtBy = attributes.getValue("Built-By"); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error("Couldn't read manifest."); } } But, when I create the jar file, it loads the manifest of another jar (presumably the first jar loaded by the application - in my case, activation.jar). Also, the following code doesn't work either although all the proper values are in the manifest file. Package thisPackage = getClass().getPackage(); String implementationVersion = thisPackage.getImplementationVersion(); Any ideas?

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  • Error when trying to refer to a field by name

    - by raja
    I am getting an error (document.my_formm.fieldName.value is null or not an object) from the below code: <html> <head> <title>(Type a title for your page here)</title> <script language=JavaScript> function check_length(my_formm,fieldName) { alert(fieldName); alert(document.my_formm.fieldName.value); } </script> </head> <body> <form name=my_form method=post> <input type="text" onChange=check_length("my_form","my_text"); name=my_text rows=4 cols=30 value=""> <br> <input size=1 value=50 name=text_num> Characters Left </form> </body> </html>

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

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  • What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

    - by Benny Jobigan
    Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • Populate tableView with more than one array

    - by Ewoods
    The short version: Is there a way to populate one specific row in a tableView with one value from one array, then populate another row in that same tableView with one value from a different array? For example, cell 1 would have the first value from Array A, cell 2 would have the first value from Array B, cell 3 would have the first value from Array C, etc. The long version: I hope this isn't too confusing. I've got an array of names, and then three more arrays with actions associated with those people. For example, the names array has Jim, Bob, and Sue, and then there's an array for eating, reading, and sleeping that records every time each person does one of these things (all of these arrays are populated from a MySQL database). The names array is used to populate a root tableView. Tapping on one of the names brings up a detail view controller that has another tableView that only has three rows. This part is all working fine. What I want to happen is when I tap on a name, it moves to the detail view and the three cells would then show the last event for that person for each of the three activities. Tapping on one of those three events then moves to a new view controller with a tableView that shows every event for that category. For example, if I tapped on Bob, the second page would show the last time Bob ate, read, and slept. Tapping on the first row would bring up a table that showed every time Bob has eaten. So far I've only been able to populate the second tableView with all of the rows from one of the arrays. I need it the other way around (one row from all of the arrays).

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  • == Operator and operands

    - by rahul
    I want to check whether a value is equal to 1. Is there any difference in the following lines of code Evaluated value == 1 1 == evaluated value in terms of the compiler execution

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  • Lamda expression will not compile

    - by John Soer
    I am very confused I have this lamba expression tvPatientPrecriptionsEntities.Sort((p1, p2) => p1.MedicationStartDate.Value.CompareTo(p2.MedicationStartDate.Value)); Visual studio will not compile it and complains about syntax. I converted the lamba expression to an anonymous delegate as so tvPatientPrecriptionsEntities.Sort( delegate(PatientPrecriptionsEntity p1, PatientPrecriptionsEntity p2) { return p1.MedicationStartDate.Value.CompareTo(p2.MedicationStartDate.Value); } ); and it works fine. The project is uses the .net 3.5 framework and I have a reference to system.linq.

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  • My Ruby Code: How can I improve? (Java to Ruby guy)

    - by steve
    Greetings, I get the feeling that I'm using ruby in an ugly way and possibly missing out on tonnes of useful features. I was wondering if anyone could point out a cleaner better way to write my code which is pasted here. The code itself simply scrapes some data from yelp and processes it into a json format. The reason I'm not using hash.to_json is because it throws some sort of stack error which I can only assume is due to the hash being too large (It's not particularly large). Response object = a hash text = the output which saves to file Anyways guidance appreciated. def mineLocation client = Yelp::Client.new request = Yelp::Review::Request::GeoPoint.new(:latitude=>13.3125,:longitude => -6.2468,:yws_id => 'nicetry') response = client.search(request) response['businesses'].length.times do |businessEntry| text ="" response['businesses'][businessEntry].each { |key, value| if value.class == Array value.length.times { |arrayEntry| text+= "\"#{key}\":[" value[arrayEntry].each { |arrayKey,arrayValue| text+= "{\"#{arrayKey}\":\"#{arrayValue}\"}," } text+="]" } else text+="\"#{arrayKey}\":\"#{arrayValue}\"," end } end end

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  • Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

    - by Gabriele
    I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • How to pass data from selected rows using checkboxes from JSP to the server

    - by eddy
    Hi, I'd like to know if there's any way to send data to the server for the selected rows using the checkboxes I've put on those rows? I mean , how can I send only the data (in this case mileage ) of those selected rows (selected with the checkboxes) to the server ? see the image Here's the html code I use: <table> <thead> <tr class="tableheader"> <td width="10%"></td> <td width="30%">Vehicle</td> <td width="40%">Driver</td> <td width="10%">Mileage</td> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectedItems" value="c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>"/> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}" /></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> </table> I really hope you can give some guidance on this. Thanks in beforehand.

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  • ajax and servlet

    - by kawtousse
    Hi everyone I am using ajax to send a value to a servlet with that parameter value I must display a table HTML. from my JSP when sending with following: xhr.open("POST","ServletImputOPC",true); xhr.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); var unit =document.getElementById('unit').value; xhr.send("t[0]="+t[0]); it returns the clause in my servlet correctly witch is: parameter received:Nameof my parameter. that is improve that the servlet receive the parameter. But when using it in the servlet it return a null value. So the problem that the servlet return the parameter received but did not able to use it. What should I do to resolve it. Many thinks.

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  • HTML Form input textbox not accepting special characters

    - by karthi89
    Hello, There seems to be a problem, where i can't display the complete value in a html form text input box. When I echo $ title, I get output as "Stacey's Mom" This is the html code I used to show the value. -- This returns the value in textbox as "Stacey". Samething happens when "," or "'" or "/" occurs in the text. How can I show the entire text in the textbox. Help would be much appreciated.

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  • jQuery Show a Textbox When an Option is Selected

    - by Cameron
    I have the following code: <select> <option value="Type 1">Type 1</option> <option value="Type 2">Type 2</option> <option value="Type 3">Type 3</option> <option value="Other">Other</option> </select> <input type="text" id="other" /> What I want to do is using jQuery make the textbox below hidden by default, and then show it if a user selects the other option from the dropdown.

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  • XSL Grouping Problem

    - by Wail
    I have the following xml and I an trying to perform the following 1- Group By the first Field where id="1923" if the value attribute is the same 2- and average all the fields with id="3095" using the value attribute 3- and average all the fields with id="3095" using the value attribute Trying to produce the following: Test 1 5.33 5.33 Test 2 3 4 Test 3 4 4

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  • How do I modify this jQuery :submit selector example?

    - by Tommy
    Looking at this jQuery example, how can I modify the code so that it only changes the color of the cell if the value of the submit button in that cell is a certain value. i.e.- var submitEl = $("td :submit") //Only do the below if the submit buttons value is "XYZ" .parent('td') .css({background:"yellow", border:"3px red solid"})

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  • PHP form processing - how to capture text from field that has variable Name/ID

    - by user80151
    I have a form that has a field pulled from the database as a dropdown. I need to get the text selected in the dropdown but I don't know in advance what the field ID will be. This is basically just a form that has already been generated. I don't need to pull anything from the database, it's already on this page. All I need to do is get the form information and email it, no writing to the database. I know how to do the _Request for the other fields based on the ID but I'm not sure how to do this one. The ID changes. It can be ID=1, ID-2, etc. I need to do something like: _REQUEST form element where ID is LIKE "ID[*]" or something similar. Any suggestions or links to tutorials? Here are a couple samples of what the dropdown renders on the page: <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib- 1">Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[1]" id="attrib-1"> <option value="45">VC3-4C</option> <option value="1">VC3-4PG</option> <option value="3">VC3-4SG</option> <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib-14">SPK Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[14]" id="attrib-14"> <option value="43">SPK-4</option> <option value="44">SPK-8</option> </select> TIA

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  • sql server 2005 - return single row when 2 records in right table

    - by Peanut
    Hi, I have two related sql server tables ... TableA and TableB. ***TableA - Columns*** TableA_ID INT VALUE VARCHAR(100) ***TableB - Columns*** TableB_ID INT TableA_ID INT VALUE VARCHAR(100) For every single record in TableA there are always 2 records in TableB. Therefore TableA has a one-to-many relationship with TableB. How could I write a single sql statement to join these tables and return a single row for each row in TableA that includes: a column for the VALUE column in the first related row in table B a column for the VALUE column in the second related row in table B? Thanks.

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  • Express highest floating point quantity that is less than 1

    - by edA-qa mort-ora-y
    I was doing some rounding calculations and happened upon a question. How can I express the highest quantity less than 1 for a given floating point type? That is, how I write/represent value x such that x < 1, x + y >= 1 for any y > 0. In fractions this would be x = (q-1)/q where q is the precision of the type. For example, if you are counting in 1/999 increments then x = 998/999. For a given type (float, double, long double), how could one express the value x in code? I also wonder if such a value actually exists for all values of y. That is, as y's exponent gets smaller perhaps the relation doesn't hold anymore. So an answer with some range restriction on y is also acceptable. (The value of x I want still does exist, the relationship may just not properly express it.)

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