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  • UITextField inside of UITableViewCell will not activate on iPad but works on iPhone

    - by cfihelp
    I have a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell. It will not activate on the iPad (but it works fine on the iPhone) no matter what I try. Tapping on it and telling it to become the firstResponder both fail. The odd thing is that if I take the exact same code and move it to another view controller in my app it executes just fine. This makes it seem as if there is likely a problem in the parent UITableViewController but I can't find anything obvious. I'm hoping that someone out there has experienced a similar problem and can point me in the right direction. Below is the sample code that works fine when I move it to a new project or put it in a new view controller launched immediately by my app delegate: // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.row == 0) { UITextField *nameText = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, 5, cell.contentView.frame.size.width, cell.contentView.frame.size.height)]; nameText.delegate = self; nameText.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; [cell.contentView addSubview:nameText]; [nameText becomeFirstResponder]; [nameText release]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } Help!

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  • Trying to use an Xslt for an xml in asp.net

    - by Josemalive
    Hello, i have the following xslt sheet: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:variable name="nhits" select="Answer[@nhits]"></xsl:variable> <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <xsl:call-template name="resultsnumbertemplate"/> </div> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="resultsnumbertemplate"> <xsl:value-of select="$nhits"/> matches found </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> And this is the xml that im trying to mix with the previous xslt: <Answer xmlns="exa:com.exalead.search.v10" context="n%3Dsl-ocu%26q%3Dlavadoras" last="9" estimated="false" nmatches="219" nslices="0" nhits="219" start="0"> <time> <Time interrupted="false" overall="32348" parse="0" spell="0" exec="1241" synthesis="15302" cats="14061" kwds="14061"> <sliceTimes>15272 </sliceTimes> </Time> </time> </Answer> Im using a xslcompiledtransform and that's working fine: XslCompiledTransform transformer = new XslCompiledTransform(); transformer.Load(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("xslt\\" + requestvariables["xslsheet"].ToString())); transformer.Transform(xmlreader, null, writer); My problems comes when im trying to put into a variable the "nhits" attribute value placed on the Answer element, but i'm not rendering anything using my xslt sheet. Do you know what could be the cause? Could be the xmlns attribute in my xml file? Thanks in advance. Best Regards. Jose

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  • Asp.net web forms, Asp Identity - how to store claims from Facebook, Twitter, etc

    - by user2959352
    This request is based upon the new Visual Studio 2013 integration of Asp.net Identity stuff. I have seen some of the posts regarding this question for MVC, but for the life of me cannot get it to work for standard Web Forms. What I'm trying to do is populate the AspNetUserClaims table from the claims that I get back from Facebook (or other service). I actually can see the values coming back in the OnAuthenticated below, but cannot for the life of me figure out how to add these claims to the context of the currently logged in user? There are literally hundreds of MVC examples surrounding this, but alas no Web Forms examples. This should be completely straightforward, but for some reason I cannot match up the context of the currently logged in user to the claims and credentials coming back from Facebook. Currently after the OnAuthenticated fires, it obviously returns me to the page (RegisterExternalLogin.aspx) as the built-in example provides. However, the claims are gone, the context of the login to Facebook is gone, and I can't do anything else at this point. So the ultimate question is, HOW does one populate the claims FROM Facebook into the AspNetUserClaims table based upon the context of the currently logged in user WITHOUT using MVC? var fboptions = new FacebookAuthenticationOptions(); fboptions.AppId = "xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"; fboptions.AppSecret = "yyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy"; fboptions.Scope.Add("email"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_about_me"); fboptions.Scope.Add("friends_photos"); fboptions.Provider = new FacebookAuthenticationProvider() { OnAuthenticated = (context) => { foreach (var v in context.User) { context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim(v.Key, v.Value.ToString())); } context.Identity.AddClaim(new System.Security.Claims.Claim("FacebookAccessToken", context.AccessToken)); return Task.FromResult(0); }, }; app.UseFacebookAuthentication(fboptions);

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  • EC2 SSH access from fedora

    - by Randika Rathugama
    I'm trying to connect to existing instance of EC2 with a new PEM. But I get this error when I try to connect. Here is what I did so far. I created the PEM on EC2 and saved it to ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem and ran this command; is there anything else I should do? [randika@localhost ~]$ ssh -v -i ~/.ssh/my-fedora.pem [email protected] OpenSSH_5.3p1, OpenSSL 1.0.0-fips-beta4 10 Nov 2009 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com [xx-xx-xx-xx] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_4.7 debug1: match: OpenSSH_4.7 pat OpenSSH_4* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.3 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'ec2-xx-xxx-xxx-xx.compute-1.amazonaws.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /home/randika/.ssh/known_hosts:5 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Next authentication method: gssapi-with-mic debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_500' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Offering public key: [email protected] debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Trying private key: /home/randika/.ssh/saberion-fedora.pem debug1: read PEM private key done: type RSA debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-with-mic debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-with-mic).

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  • Strange Ruby String Selection

    - by Daniel
    The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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  • Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Perform Grouping of Resultsets in Code, not on Database Level

    - by NinjaBomb
    Stackoverflowers, I have a resultset from a SQL query in the form of: Category Column2 Column3 A 2 3.50 A 3 2 B 3 2 B 1 5 ... I need to group the resultset based on the Category column and sum the values for Column2 and Column3. I have to do it in code because I cannot perform the grouping in the SQL query that gets the data due to the complexity of the query (long story). This grouped data will then be displayed in a table. I have it working for specific set of values in the Category column, but I would like a solution that would handle any possible values that appear in the Category column. I know there has to be a straightforward, efficient way to do it but I cannot wrap my head around it right now. How would you accomplish it? EDIT I have attempted to group the result in SQL using the exact same grouping query suggested by Thomas Levesque and both times our entire RDBMS crashed trying to process the query. I was under the impression that Linq was not available until .NET 3.5. This is a .NET 2.0 web application so I did not think it was an option. Am I wrong in thinking that? EDIT Starting a bounty because I believe this would be a good technique to have in the toolbox to use no matter where the different resultsets are coming from. I believe knowing the most concise way to group any 2 somewhat similar sets of data in code (without .NET LINQ) would be beneficial to more people than just me.

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  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Chrome/Firefox (live demo included)?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

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  • HOWTO - Compare a date string to datetime in SQL Server?

    - by Guy
    In SQL Server I have a DATETIME column which includes a time element. Example: '14 AUG 2008 14:23:019' What is the best method to only select the records for a particular day, ignoring the time part? Example: (Not safe, as it does not match the time part and returns no rows) DECLARE @p_date DATETIME SET @p_date = CONVERT( DATETIME, '14 AUG 2008', 106 ) SELECT * FROM table1 WHERE column_datetime = @p_date Note: Given this site is also about jotting down notes and techniques you pick up and then forget, I'm going to post my own answer to this question as DATETIME stuff in MSSQL is probably the topic I lookup most in SQLBOL. Update Clarified example to be more specific. Edit Sorry, But I've had to down-mod WRONG answers (answers that return wrong results). @Jorrit: WHERE (date>'20080813' AND date<'20080815') will return the 13th and the 14th. @wearejimbo: Close, but no cigar! badge awarded to you. You missed out records written at 14/08/2008 23:59:001 to 23:59:999 (i.e. Less than 1 second before midnight.)

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  • C++ Serialization Clean XML Similar to XSTREAM

    - by disown
    I need to write a linux c++ app which saves it settings in XML format (for easy hand editing) and also communicates with existing apps through XML messages over sockets and HTTP. Problem is that I haven't been able to find any intelligent libs to help me, I don't particular feel like writing DOM or SAX code just to write and read some very simple messages. Boost Serialization was almost a match, but it adds a lot of boost-specific data to the xml it generates. This obviously doesn't work well for interchange formats. I'm wondering if it is possible to make Boost Serialization or some other c++ serialization library generate clean xml. I don't mind if there are some required extra attributes - like a version attribute, but I'd really like to be able to control their naming and also get rid of 'features' that I don't use - tracking_level and class_id for instance. Ideally I would just like to have something similar to xstream in Java. I am aware of the fact that c++ lacks introspection and that it is therefore necessary to do some manual coding - but it would be nice if there was a clean solution to just read and write simple XML without kludges! If this cannot be done I am also interested in tools where the XML schema is the canonical resource (contract first) - a good JAXB alternative to C++. So far I have only found commercial solutions like CodeSynthesis XSD. I would prefer open source solutions. I have tried gSoap - but it generates really ugly code and it is also SOAP-specific. In desperation I also started looking at alternative serialization formats for protobuffers. This exists - but only for Java! It really surprises me that protocol buffers seems to be a better supported data interchange format than XML. I'm going mad just finding libs for this app and I really need some new ideas. Anyone?

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  • Query MySQL data from Excel (or vice-versa)

    - by Charles
    I'm trying to automate a tedious problem. I get large Excel (.xls or .csv, whatever's more convenient) files with lists of people. I want to compare these against my MySQL database.* At the moment I'm exporting MySQL tables and reading them from an Excel spreadsheet. At that point it's not difficult to use =LOOKUP() and such commands to do the work I need, and of course the various text processing I need to do is easy enough to do in Excel. But I can't help but think that this is more work than it needs to be. Is there some way to get at the MySQL data directly from Excel? Alternately, is there a way I could access a reasonably large (~10k records) csv file in a sql script? This seems to be rather basic, but I haven't managed to make it work so far. I found an ODBC connection for MySQL but that doesn't seem to do what I need. In particular, I'm testing whether the name matches or whether any of four email addresses match. I also return information on what matched for the benefit of the next person to use the data, something like "Name 'Bob Smith' not found, but 'Robert Smith' matches on email address robert.smith@foo".

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  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending whether test is run in iso

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

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  • How to I display results of phpcs in VIM?

    - by Matt
    I am presently trying to use PHP Codesniffer (PEAR) in vim for PHP Files. I have found 2 sites that give code to add into the $HOME/.vim/plugin/phpcs.vim file. I have added the code and I "think" it is working, but I cannot see the results, I only see one line at the very bottom of vim that says (1 of 32) but I cannot see any of the 32 errors. Here is my .vimrc file " Backup Options -> Some People may not want this... it generates extra files set backup " Enable Backups set backupext=.bak " Add .bak extention to modified files set patchmode=.orig " Copy original file to with .orig extention Before saving. " Set Tabs and spacing for PHP as recomended by PEAR and Zend set expandtab set shiftwidth=4 set softtabstop=4 set tabstop=4 " Set Auto-indent options set cindent set smartindent set autoindent " Show lines that exceed 80 characters match ErrorMsg '\%80v.\+' " Set Colors set background=dark " Show a status bar set ruler set laststatus=2 " Set Search options highlight, and wrap search set hls is set wrapscan " File Type detection filetype on filetype plugin on " Enable Spell Checking set spell " Enable Code Folding set foldenable set foldmethod=syntax " PHP Specific options let php_sql_query=1 " Highlight sql in php strings let php_htmlInStrings=1 " Highlight HTML in php strings let php_noShortTags=1 " Disable PHP Short Tags let php_folding=1 " Enable Ability to FOLD html Code I have tried 2 different versions of phpcs.vim, and I get the same results for both: Version 1 (found at: VIM an a PHP IDE) function! RunPhpcs() let l:filename=@% let l:phpcs_output=system('phpcs --report=csv --standard=YMC '.l:filename) " echo l:phpcs_output let l:phpcs_list=split(l:phpcs_output, "\n") unlet l:phpcs_list[0] cexpr l:phpcs_list cwindow endfunction set errorformat+=\"%f\"\\,%l\\,%c\\,%t%*[a-zA-Z]\\,\"%m\" command! Phpcs execute RunPhpcs() Version 2: (found at Integrated PHP Codesniffer in VIM ) function! RunPhpcs() let l:filename=@% let l:phpcs_output=system('phpcs --report=csv --standard=YMC '.l:filename) let l:phpcs_list=split(l:phpcs_output, "\n") unlet l:phpcs_list[0] cexpr l:phpcs_list cwindow endfunction set errorformat+="%f"\\,%l\\,%c\\,%t%*[a-zA-Z]\\,"%m" command! Phpcs execute RunPhpcs() Both of these produce identical results. phpcs is installed on my system, and I am able to generate results outside of vim. Any help would be appreciated I am just learning more about vim...

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  • C# ErrorProvider Want to know if any are Active

    - by RcK
    I want to know if any ErrorProvider are active in my form. being able to find this out might help reduce my code.. I did find this thing here Counting ErrorProvider but incase someone knows a better way... so here goes. Ok so basically I have a WinForm which has many TextBoxes Now when user enters values I use Validating to perform validation and if it does not match Regex I set the ErrorProvider ON for that Control.. similarly if the user changes the value to a acceptable one I switch ErrorProvider OFF for that Control.. but when SAVE is clicked i have to do another check anyways incase the user did not listen to me and change the thing like he was supposed to and still clicked SAVE.. I dont want the thing crashing.. soo mm is there like a thing where I could say if ErrorProviders is not active then proceed with save else message box saying change it. [ANOTHER QUESTION] Umm When Validating it only Validates when the Control loses Focus... I kinda of want it to do validation when user stops typing.. I hope you get what I mean Like Email Address(textbox) when user is typing his/her name in I [DON'T] want it to do validation yet, but when user has finished entering is waiting for ErrorProvider to disappear(But it doesn't coz it only does that when control loses focus) 2 odd seconds after typing can i make the validation take place?

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  • Deployments and TFS, general questions

    - by Velika
    SOX requires that we have a separate group deploy our ASP.NET web to production. Currently, that group has access to our current code repository in VSS and uses VSS to deploy code that has been checked into VSS. How are deployments typically done for web applications? As a developer, I have used the Deploy function in Visual Studio to deploy code to a network share which corresponds to a IS virtual folder, but I don't think we can expect that the deployment group will be purchasing a copy of Visual Studio just to do deployments. We could check the code into TFS, but what is the minimum software that that group would need to perform the deployment? Would a Team Explorer Client Access suffice? I am aware that Team System has functionality to automate the building of an application. Do people typically deploy to Production by copying aspx and dlls files from the QA environment to production or do you normally deploy from TFS or even VS directly? It seems to me that the preferred approach would be to deploy from the QA environment, since that is the environment that must have been approved for release or that those files should be checked into TFS and the deployed from TFS, assuming you can deploy from TFS. What confuses me is whether bin (binary) files that are local to the project-do they go into TFS? Is so, doesn't this create problems for other developers in that only 1 developers-the one with the binary checked - can actually debug because debugging requires write access to the binaries? Does this mean that the binaries shouldn't be checked into TFS? But eventually, if you deploy from TFS, the binaries HAVE to be added to TFS. Are they added as a separate (compiled) application node? If so,m this sounds real ugly. I would assume not. How does one ensure that the binaries match the source code that we mark with a particular version number? Obviously, I'm clueless. Can someone give me a general idea of how you handle version control and deployments in particular using TFS?

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Signal "0" error while scrolling a tableview with images

    - by Amitkumar
    Hi, I have a problem while scrolling images on tableview. I am getting a Signal "0" error. I think it is due to some memory issues but I am not able to find out the exact error. The code is as follows, - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [travelSummeryPhotosTable dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier]autorelease]; } //Photo ImageView UIImageView *photoTag = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5.0, 5.0, 85.0, 85.0)]; NSString *rowPath =[[imagePathsDictionary valueForKey:[summaryTableViewDataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; photoTag.image = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:rowPath]; [cell.contentView addSubview:photoTag]; [photoTag release]; // Image Caption UILabel *labelImageCaption = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(110.0, 15.0, 190.0, 50.0)]; labelImageCaption.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentLeft; NSString *imageCaptionText =[ [imageCaptionsDictionary valueForKey:[summaryTableViewDataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; labelImageCaption.text = imageCaptionText; [cell.contentView addSubview:labelImageCaption]; [labelImageCaption release]; return cell; } Thanks in advance.

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  • Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

    - by Russ
    [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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  • Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

    - by Gordon Worley
    In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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  • jQuery capture all changes to named inpt on a form

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    I'm trying to determine when any of a set of named input/select/radio/checked/hidden fields in a form change. In particular, I'd like to capture when any changes are made to fields matching jQuery's selector $("form :input"), and where that input is has a name attribute. However, the form isn't static i.e. some of the fields are dynamically added later. My initial thought is to keep track of when new named elements matching :input are added, and then add an event handler, like this: function on_change() { alert("The form element with name " + $(this).attr("name") + " has changed"); } function reg_new_e_handler(input_element) { input_element.change(on_change); } However, I'm quite hopeful I can avoid this with some jQuery magic. In particular, is there a way to register an event handler in jQuery that would handle input elements that match the following: $("form :input").filter( function () { $(this).attr("name") } ).change(on_change); However, have this event set update whenever new input elements are added. I've thought that it may be possible to capture keyup event on the form node with $("form").keyup(on_change), but I'm not so sure how one could capture change events. I'd also like this to capture keyup events. Thank you for reading. Brian

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  • git workflow incorporating many, but not all commits from many forks

    - by becomingGuru
    I have a git repo. It has been forked several times and many independent commits are made on top of it. Everything normal, like what happens in many github hosted projects. Now, what exact workflow should I follow, if I want to see all that commits individually and apply the ones I like. The workflow I followed, which is not the optimal is to create a branch of the name github-username and merge the changes into my master and undo any changes in the commit I dont need manually (there are not many, so it worked). What I want is the ability to see all commits from different forks individually and cherry pick and apply them on top of my master. What is the workflow to follow for that? And what gui (gitk?) enables me to see all different individual commits. I realize that merge should be a primary part of the workflow and not cherry-pick as it creates a different commit (from git's point of view). Even rebasing other's changes on top of mine might not preserve the history on the graph to indicate that it is his commits I have rebased. So then, How do I ignore just a few commits from a lot of them? I think github should have a "apply this commit on top of my master" thing in their graph after each commit node; so I can just pull it, after doing all that.

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  • Castle Windsor, Fluent Nhibernate, and Automapping Isession closed problem

    - by SImon
    I'm new to the whole castle Windsor, Nhibernate, Fluent and Automapping stack so excuse my ignorance here. I didn't want to post another question on this as it seems there are already a huge number of questions that try to get a solution the Windsor nhib Isession management problem, but none of them have solved my problem so far. I am still getting a ISession is closed exception when I'm trying to call to the Db from my Repositories,Here is my container setup code. container.AddFacility<FactorySupportFacility>() .Register( Component.For<ISessionFactory>() .LifeStyle.Singleton .UsingFactoryMethod(() => Fluently.Configure() .Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005. ConnectionString( c => c.Database("DbSchema").Server("Server").Username("UserName").Password("password"))) .Mappings ( m => m.AutoMappings.Add ( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Message>(cfg) .Override<Client>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.SICCodes).Table("SICRefDataToClient"); }) .IgnoreBase<BaseEntity>() .Conventions.Add(DefaultCascade.SaveUpdate()) .Conventions.Add(new StringColumnLengthConvention(),new EnumConvention()) .Conventions.Add(new EnumConvention()) .Conventions.Add(DefaultLazy.Never()) ) ) .ExposeConfiguration(ConfigureValidator) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildDatabase) .BuildSessionFactory() as SessionFactoryImpl), Component.For<ISession>().LifeStyle.PerWebRequest.UsingFactoryMethod(kernel => kernel.Resolve<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession() )); In my repositories i inject private readonly ISession session; and use it as followes public User GetUser(int id) { User u; u = session.Get<User>(id); if (u != null && u.Id > 0) { NHibernateUtil.Initialize(u.UserDocuments); } return u; in my web.config inside <httpModules>. i have also added this line <add name="PerRequestLifestyle" type="Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule, Castle.Windsor"/> I'm i still missing part of the puzzle here, i can't believe that this is such a complex thing to configure for a basic need of any web application development with nHibernate and castle Windsor. I have been trying to follow the code here windsor-nhibernate-isession-mvc and i posted my question there as they seemed to have the exact same issue but mine is not resolved.

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  • SimpleModal -- Open OnLoad

    - by Bill Griffith
    I'm new to JQuery -- not new to javascript. Was able to open the OSX STYLE DIALOG using the hyperlink button provided in the demo index.html page, but would like to open it on the page load. I read a couple links on StackOverflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1611727/how-do-i-invoke-a-simplemodal-osx-dialog-on-page-load), but still could not get it to work in the exact same index.html page. I finally resorted to a stopgap measure by programmatically invoking the button click of a hidden button element -- see following fragment: onLoad="document.getElementById('load_OSX_Example').click();"> <input type="hidden" id="load_OSX_Example" value="" class='osx'> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> //#### open the OSX Modal ########## $(document).ready(function(){ $("#osx-modal-content").modal(); }); </script> So I have two questions: How can you invoke the class='osx' using javascript/html programmatically? Why won't this work using the $("#osx-modal-content").modal(); call in javascript (see fragment above)? I tried this in multiple browsers, and the only content that displayed on the screen was content of this tag: "div id="osx-modal-title", and there was no error in the jscript console.

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  • Problem executing script using Python and subprocces.call yet works in Bash

    - by Antoine Benkemoun
    Hello, For the first time, I am asking a little bit of help over here as I am more of a ServerFault person. I am doing some scripting in Python and I've been loving the language so far yet I have this little problem which is keeping my script from working. Here is the code line in question : subprocess.call('xen-create-image --hostname '+nom+' --memory '+memory+' --partitions=/root/scripts/part.tmp --ip '+ip+' --netmask '+netmask+' --gateway '+gateway+' --passwd',shell=True) I have tried the same thing with os.popen. All the variables are correctly set. When I execute the command in question in my regular Linux shell, it works perfectly fine but when I execute it using my Python scripts, I get bizarre errors. I even replaced subprocess.call() by the print function to make sure I am using the exact output of the command. I went looking into environment variables of my shell but they are pretty much the same... I'll post the error I am getting but I'm not sure it's relevant to my problem. Use of uninitialized value $lines[0] in substitution (s///) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 614. Use of uninitialized value $_ in pattern match (m//) at /usr/share/perl5/Config/IniFiles.pm line 628. I am not a Python expert so I'm most likely missing something here. Thank you in advance for your help, Antoine

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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