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  • GetIpAddrTable() leaks memory. How to resolve that?

    - by Stabledog
    On my Windows 7 box, this simple program causes the memory use of the application to creep up continuously, with no upper bound. I've stripped out everything non-essential, and it seems clear that the culprit is the Microsoft Iphlpapi function "GetIpAddrTable()". On each call, it leaks some memory. In a loop (e.g. checking for changes to the network interface list), it is unsustainable. There seems to be no async notification API which could do this job, so now I'm faced with possibly having to isolate this logic into a separate process and recycle the process periodically -- an ugly solution. Any ideas? // IphlpLeak.cpp - demonstrates that GetIpAddrTable leaks memory internally: run this and watch // the memory use of the app climb up continuously with no upper bound. #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include <assert.h> #include <Iphlpapi.h> #pragma comment(lib,"Iphlpapi.lib") void testLeak() { static unsigned char buf[16384]; DWORD dwSize(sizeof(buf)); if (GetIpAddrTable((PMIB_IPADDRTABLE)buf, &dwSize, false) == ERROR_INSUFFICIENT_BUFFER) { assert(0); // we never hit this branch. return; } } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { for ( int i = 0; true; i++ ) { testLeak(); printf("i=%d\n",i); Sleep(1000); } return 0; }

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  • .NET Web Serivce hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

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  • How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

    - by Bill_BsB
    I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I debug PEAR auth?

    - by croceldon
    I have a directory on my site that I've implemented PEAR's Auth to run my authentication. It is working great. However, I've tried to make a copy of my site (it's going to be translated to a different language), and on this new site, the Auth process doesn't seem to be working correctly. I can login properly, but every time I try to go to a different page in the same directory, and use Auth to authorize, it forces me to login again. Here's my logic: $auth_options = array( 'dsn' => mysql://user:password@server/db', 'table' => 'users', 'usernamecol' => 'username', 'passwordcol' => 'password', 'db_fields' => '*' ); $auth = new Auth("DB", $auth_options, "login_function"); $auth->setFailedLoginCallback('bad_login'); $auth->start(); if (!$auth->checkAuth()) { die('cannot succeed in checkAuth') exit; } else { include("nocache.php"); } This is part of a file that's included in every php page I that I desire to require authentication. I can login properly once, but whenever I then try to go to a different page that requires authentication, it makes me login again (and I see the 'cannot succeed' die message at the bottom of the page). Again, this solution works fine on my original site, I copied all the files, and only changed the db server/password - it still doesn't work. And I'm using the same webhost for both. What am I doing wrong here? Or how can I debug this further?

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  • How to structure this Symfony web project?

    - by James William
    I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

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  • Ajax response takes time and status is 503

    - by Suresh S
    guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

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  • A Delphi Custom Control: A TRichEdit with a TLabel Above It

    - by doubleu
    Hello, I want to create an custom control (descendant of TRichEdit). I simply want add some text above the editfield. I've created my own control and I override the constructor to create a TLabel for the caption. It works, but my problem: How is it possible to move the label above the richedit? When I set Top := -5 the label begins to disappaer. Here's the code of the constructor: constructor TDBRichEditExt.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; lblCaption := TLabel.Create(self); lblCaption.Parent := parent; lblCaption.Caption := 'Header'; lblCaption.Top := -5; end; I think it's logic that the label disappaers since the richedit is the parent. I've tried lblCaption.Parent := self.parent; To make the form which owns the richedit the parent - but this dosn't work... How could I achieve this? Thank you all!

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  • .NET binary serialization conditionally without ISerializable

    - by SillyWhy
    I got 2 classes, for example: public class A { private B b; ... } public class B { ... } I need to serialize an object A using BinaryFormatter. When remoting it shall include the field b, but not when serialize to file. Here is what I added: [Serializable] public class A : MarshalByRefObject { private B b; [OnSerializing] private void OnSerializing(StreamingContext context) { if (context.State == StreamingContextStates.File) { this.b = null; } } ... } [Serializable] public class B : MarshalByRefObject { ... } I think this is a bad design because if another class C also contains B, in class C we must add the duplicate OnSerializing() logic as in A. Class B should decide what to do, not class A or C. I don't want to use ISerializable interface because there are too many variables in class B have to be added to SerializationInfo. I can create a SerializationSurrogate for class B, which perform nothing in GetObjectData() & SetObjectData(), then use it when serializing to file. However the same maintenance issue because whoever modify class B can't notice what going to happen during serialization & the existence of SerializationSurrogate. Is there a better alternative?

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  • Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

    - by Rachel
    Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

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  • How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

    - by Ben
    I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

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  • what is the best practice approach for n-tier application development with entity framework?

    - by samsur
    I am building an application using entity framework. I am using the T4 template to generate self tracking entities. Currently, I am thinking of creating the entity framework code in a separate project. In this same project, I would have partial classes with additional methods for the entities. I am thinking of creating a separate project for a service layer (WCF) with methods for the upper/presentation tier. The WCF layer will reference the entity framework project. The methods in the WCF layer will return the entities or accept the entities as the parameters. I am thinkg of creating a third project for the presentation layer (ASP.net), this will make calls to the WCF service but will also need to reference the entities as the WCF methods take these types as the parameters/return types. In short, i want to use the STE entities generated by the T4 template as a DTO to be used in all layers. I was originally thinking of creating a business logic layer that maps to each entities. Example: If i have a customer class, the Business Layer would have a CustomerBLL class and then methods in the customerBLL will be used by the service layer. I was also trying to create a DTO in this business layer. I however found that this approach is very time consuming and i do not see a major benefit as it would create more maintenance work. What is the best practice for n-tier application development using entity framework 4?

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • How to extract data from F# list

    - by David White
    Following up my previous question, I'm slowly getting the hang of FParsec (though I do find it particularly hard to grok). My next newbie F# question is, how do I extract data from the list the parser creates? For example, I loaded the sample code from the previous question into a module called Parser.fs, and added a very simple unit test in a separate module (with the appropriate references). I'm using XUnit: open Xunit [<Fact>] let Parse_1_ShouldReturnListContaining1 () = let interim = Parser.parse("1") Assert.False(List.isEmpty(interim)) let head = interim.Head // I realise that I have only one item in the list this time Assert.Equal("1", ???) Interactively, when I execute parse "1" the response is: val it : Element list = [Number "1"] and by tweaking the list of valid operators, I can run parse "1+1" to get: val it : Element list = [Number "1"; Operator "+"; Number "1"] What do I need to put in place of my ??? in the snippet above? And how do I check that it is a Number, rather than an Operator, etc.?

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  • perl - universal operator overload

    - by Todd Freed
    I have an idea for perl, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to implement it. The idea is to have new versions of every operator which consider the undefined value as the identity of that operation. For example: $a = undef + 5; # undef treated as 0, so $a = 5 $a = undef . "foo"; # undef treated as '', so $a = foo $a = undef && 1; # undef treated as false, $a = true and so forth. ideally, this would be in the language as a pragma, or something. use operators::awesome; However, I would be satisfied if I could implement this special logic myself, and then invoke it where needed: use My::Operators; The problem is that if I say "use overload" inside My::Operators only affects objects blessed into My::Operators. So the question is: is there a way (with "use overoad" or otherwise) to do a "universal operator overload" - which would be called for all operations, not just operations on blessed scalars. If not - who thinks this would be a great idea !? It would save me a TON of this kind of code if($object && $object{value} && $object{value} == 15) replace with if($object{value} == 15) ## the special "is-equal-to" operator

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  • jQuery tokeninput plugin + passing id to another tokeninput url

    - by Elson Solano
    I am using a jquery plugin called jQuery Tokeninput http://loopj.com/jquery-tokeninput/ and I am having a logic issue. var country_id = ""; jQuery("#demo-input-prevent-duplicates").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=country", { theme: "facebook", hintText: "Enter a Country...", placeholder: "Enter a Country...", preventDuplicates: true, onAdd: function(item) { country_id = item.id; }, onDelete: function(){ hideElements(); }, tokenDelimiter: "|", }); My question here is how would I pass the value of country_id to the parameter of the below code. I'm not seeing how to do this one on the jquery tokeninput documentation. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id, { theme: "facebook", preventDuplicates: true, hintText: "Enter a State or Province...", placeholder: "Enter a State or Province..." }); If you'll look on this part of the code, I am passing the country_id that was generated above on the "onAdd". This doesn't work though. jQuery("#targ_state").tokenInput(host+"/forms/campaign_location.php?action=stateorprovince&cid="+country_id .... How would I do that one? Your help would be greatly appreciated and of course, rewarded! Thanks! :-)

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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • Pulling name value pair from a structured adsense code block contained in a txt file

    - by Scott B
    I have a txt file which contains a google adsense code block and I'm trying to pull in the file via file_get_contents to extract the values of the google_ad_client and google_ad_slot variables. In the examples below, I want to return to my calling function: $google_ad_client = 'pub-1234567890987654'; $google_ad_slot = '1234567890' The file may contain one of either of these two formats and I wont know which the user has chosen: Newer Ad Unit Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; //--> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="path-to-google-script"></script> Classic Style <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "pub-1234567890987654"; /* 336x280, created 8/6/09 */ google_ad_slot = "1234567890"; google_ad_width = 336; google_ad_height = 280; google_ad_format="336x280_as"; google_ad_type="text_image"; google_color_border="FFFFFF"; google_color_bg="FFFFFF"; google_color_link="2200CC"; google_color_url="000000"; google_color_text="777777"; //--> </script>

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  • Source folders for a maven project in eclipse

    - by 4NDR01D3
    Hello all, I have a that uses maven... and I want to put it in my working environment with eclipse(Galileo)... the project is in a svn server, and I can create check out the project and everything looks OK. I even can run the unit test and everything is working there. However, now that everything is there I wanted to work in the code, and oh surprise there are no packages in my project... I mean all the source code is in the src folder and browsing through it i can see all my files, ut if I open the files from there, the files are opened as text files with no coloring, but worst no help at all about errors in compilation. I don't know what im I doing wrong now, because I had the same project in other machine and it was working well. So here is what I did, please let me know if you notice if I did something wrong, miss any steps or anything that can help me: In the SVN Repository (Using subclipse 1.6.10) I added my SVN Repository Browsed to the folder where I have the pom file Right Click Check out as a Maven project...(Using m2eclipse 0.10.020100209) Used the default options and finish. The projects were created with no problem. I said projects because this maven project has modules, and each module became a project in eclipse. Back in the java perspective, Right click in the project, Run as maven test(Using JWebUnitTest, because I am testing a servlet) BUILD SUCCESS!! But as I said there is not packages so I can't really develop in this environment. Any help?? Thanks!

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  • Split UInt32 (audio frame) into two SInt16s (left and right)?

    - by morgancodes
    Total noob to anything lower-level than Java, diving into iPhone audio, and realing from all of the casting/pointers/raw memory access. I'm working with some example code wich reads a WAV file from disc and returns stereo samples as single UInt32 values. If I understand correctly, this is just a convenient way to return the 32 bits of memory required to create two 16 bit samples. Eventually this data gets written to a buffer, and an audio unit picks it up down the road. Even though the data is written in UInt32-sized chunks, it eventually is interpreted as pairs of 16-bit samples. What I need help with is splitting these UInt32 frames into left and right samples. I'm assuming I'll want to convert each UInt32 into an SInt16, since an audio sample is a signed value. It seems to me that for efficiency's sake, I ought to be able to simply point to the same blocks in memory, and avoid any copying. So, in pseudo-code, it would be something like this: UInt32 myStereoFrame = getFramefromFilePlayer; SInt16* leftChannel = getFirst16Bits(myStereoFrame); SInt16* rightChannel = getSecond16Bits(myStereoFrame); Can anyone help me turn my pseudo into real code?

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  • Do you ever make a code change and just test rather than trying to fully understand the change you'v

    - by Clay Nichols
    I'm working in a 12 year old code base which I have been the only developer on. There are times that I'll make a a very small change based on an intuition (or quantum leap in logic ;-). Usually I try to deconstruct that change and make sure I read thoroughly the code. However sometimes, (more and more these days) I just test and make sure it had the effect I wanted. (I'm a pretty thorough tester and would test even if I read the code). This works for me and we have surprisingly (compared to most software I see) few bugs escape into the wild. But what I'm wondering is whether this is just the "art" side of coding. Yes, in an ideal world you would exhaustively read every bit of code that your change modified, but I in practice, if you're confident that it only affects a small section of code, is this a common practice? I can obviously see where this would be a disastrous approach in the hands of a poor programmer. But then, I've seen programmers who ostensibly are reading the code and break stuff left and right (in their own code based which only they have been working on).

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  • how should i create my own 'now' / DateTime.Now ?

    - by Michel
    Hi all, i'm starting to build a part of a system which will hold a lot of DateTime validations, and a lot of 'if it was done before now' or 'if it will start in an hour etc'. Usual way to go is to use DateTime.Now to get the actual time. I predict however, that during unit test that will give me a real headache because i will have to setup my testdata for the time when the test will run in stead of use a default set of test data. So i thought: why not use my own 'now' so i can set the current datetime to any moment in time. As i don't want to set the testservers internal clock i was thinking about this solution, and i was wondering what you think of it. Base thought is that i use my own DateTime class. That class gives you the current datetime, but you can also set your own time from outside. public static class MyDateTime { private static TimeSpan _TimeDifference = TimeSpan.Zero; public static DateTime Now { get { return DateTime.Now + _TimeDifference; } } public static void SetNewNow(DateTime newNow) { _TimeDifference = newNow - DateTime.Now; } public static void AddToRealTime(TimeSpan timeSpan ) { _TimeDifference = timeSpan; } public static void SubtractFromRealTime(TimeSpan timeSpan) { _TimeDifference = - timeSpan; } }

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  • Initializing AngularJS service factory style

    - by wisemanIV
    I have a service that retrieves data via REST. I want to store the resulting data in service level variable for use in multiple controllers. When I put all the REST logic directly into controllers everything works fine but when I attempt to move the retrieval / storing of data into a service the controller is not being updated when the data comes back. I've tried lots of different ways of maintain the binding between service and controller. Controller: myApp.controller('SiteConfigCtrl', ['$scope', '$rootScope', '$route', 'SiteConfigService', function ($scope, $rootScope, $route, SiteConfigService) { $scope.init = function() { console.log("SiteConfigCtrl init"); $scope.site = SiteConfigService.getConfig(); } } ]); Service: myApp.factory('SiteConfigService', ['$http', '$rootScope', '$timeout', 'RESTService', function ($http, $rootScope, $timeout, RESTService) { var siteConfig = {} ; RESTService.get("https://domain/incentiveconfig", function(data) { siteConfig = data; }); return { getConfig:function () { console.debug("SiteConfigService getConfig:"); console.debug(siteConfig); return siteConfig; } }; } ]);

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  • Decimal To Octal Converter, last digit issue

    - by Srishan Supertramp
    I tried making a C program to convert a user entered decimal number to octal. I wrote the C code with my own logic without any research of how other users try to do it. It works fine for the number 601 and some other numbers but for most numbers it returns the octal equivalent with the last digit being 1 less than it should be. For 75 it returns 112 instead of 113. I realize using printf with %o gets the job done but it's kind of defeating the purpose of learning to program. Here's my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <math.h> /* converting decimal to octal */ int main() { int n,x,y,p,s; printf("Enter a decimal number "); scanf("%d",&x); s=0;p=0; while (x!=0) { y=x%8; s=s+y*pow(10,p); x=(x-y)/8; p=p+1; } printf("the octal equivalent is: %d\n",s); getch(); return 0; }

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  • Where to translate message strings - in the view or in the model?

    - by GrGr
    We have a multilingual (PHP) application and use gettext for i18n. There are a few classes in the backend/model that return messages or message formats for printf(). We use xgettext to extract the strings that we want to translate. We apply the gettext function T_() in the frontend/view - this seems to be where it belongs. So far we kept the backend clean from T_() calls, this way we can also unit-test messages. So in the frontend we have something like echo T_($mymodel->getMessage()); or printf(T_($mymodel->getMessageFormat()), $mymodel->getValue()); This makes it impossible to apply xgettext to extract the strings, unless we put some dummy T_("my message %s to translate") call in the MyModel class. So this leads to the more general question: Do you apply translation in the backend classes, resp. where do you apply translation and how do you keep track of the strings which you have to translate? (I am aware of Question: poedit workaround for dynamic gettext.)

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