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  • current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

    - by sscirrus
    I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Working with Multiple Layers - KineticJS

    - by Bruno Sampaio
    I'm using KineticJS 4.0.5 and I'm currently trying to draw the contents of several layers but only the last one added to stage is drawn... If I understood the documentation correctly this should be possible, otherwise why would we need a layer? I have three different layers: a background layer with just a Kinectic.Rect object; a elements layer with several types of shapes; and a top layer with elements I want to be always on top of everything. I populate those layers inside a draw function I have inside a object I created, this object also has a shape attribute which refers to the background and a contents attribute with the elements to add to the elements layer. My code for the draw function is the following: this.draw = function() { var stage = E.game.stage, layers = E.game.layers; stage.clear(); // Add Background this.shape.setSize(stage.getWidth(), stage.getHeight()); layers.background.add(this.shape); // Iterate over contents for(var i = 0; i < this.contents.length; i++) { layers.elements.add(this.contents[i].shape); } // Draw Everything stage.add(layers.background); stage.add(layers.elements); stage.add(layers.top); // This one is currently empty stage.draw(); } After running this function, only layers.top is drawn in the canvas, and if I comment the line where it is added only layers.elements is drawn. However the stage has 3 childrens (I checked it with inspect element on chrome) and in the documentation it says the draw function draws all layers... Am I doing something wrong here? Or it isn't possible? And if it's not possible why would I need a layer and a stage? Wouldn't one be enough? Thank you in advance. Edit: I was able to solve the problem, I was applying a white background color with css to the canvas element and since each layer creates a new canvas element above the others I could only see the contents for the top most layer (in this case just white). However, I still have a problem related with multiple layers that I didn't have before with just one layer. When I use the clear function on the stage it should clear the layers right? But instead the layers remain exactly the same, even if I try to call clear on each individual layer they won't change... I'm also using the stage draw function after clearing them but still no changes at all... The only solution I found until now was by removing the layer from the stage and adding it again :s Is there a better way to reset the layers contents? Thank you again and sorry for the confusion with the first question.

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Change Label Control Property Based on Data from SqlDataSource Inside a Repeater

    - by Furqan Muhammad Khan
    I am using a repeater control to populate data from SqlDataSource into my custom designed display-box. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" OnDataBinding="Repeater_ItemDataBound"> <HeaderTemplate> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <div class="bubble-content"> <div style="float: left;"> <h2 class="bubble-content-title"><%# Eval("CommentTitle") %></h2> </div> <div style="text-align: right;"> <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %> </asp:Label> </div> <div style="float: left;"> <p><%# Eval("CommentContent") %></p> </div> </div> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="mySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:myConnectionString %>" SelectCommand="SELECT [CommentTitle],[CommentType],[CommentContent] FROM [Comments] WHERE ([PostId] = @PostId)"> <SelectParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter Name="PostId" QueryStringField="id" Type="String" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:SqlDataSource> Now, there can be three types of "CommentTypes" in the database. I want to change the CssClass property of "lbl_category" based on the value of [CommentType]. I tried doing this: <asp:Label ID="lbl_category" runat="server" CssClass="<%# Eval("CommentType") %>" Text=""><%# Eval("CommentType") %></asp:Label> But this gives an error: "The server control is not well formed" and haven't been able to find a way to achieve this in the code behind. Can someone please help?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 and Test Driven Development

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm making my first steps in Test Driven Development with Visual Studio. I have some questions regarding how to implement generic classes with VS 2010. First, let's say I want to implement my own version of an ArrayList. I start by creating the following test (I'm using in this case MSTest): [TestMethod] public void Add_10_Items_Remove_10_Items_Check_Size_Is_Zero() { var myArrayList = new MyArrayList<int>(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.Add(i); } for (int i = 0; i < 10; ++i) { myArrayList.RemoveAt(0); } int expected = 0; int actual = myArrayList.Size; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } I'm using VS 2010 ability to hit ctrl + . and have it implement classes/methods on the go. I have been getting some trouble when implementing generic classes. For example, when I define an .Add(10) method, VS doesn't know if I intend a generic method(as the class is generic) or an Add(int number) method. Is there any way to differentiate this? The same can happen with return types. Let's assume I'm implementing a MyStack stack and I want to test if after I push and element and pop it, the stack is still empty. We all know pop should return something, but usually, the code of this test shouldn't care for it. Visual Studio would then think that pop is a void method, which in fact is not what one would want. How to deal with this? For each method, should I start by making tests that are "very specific" such as is obvious the method should return something so I don't get this kind of ambiguity? Even if not using the result, should I have something like int popValue = myStack.Pop() ? How should I do tests to generic classes? Only test with one generic kind of type? I have been using ints, as they are easy to use, but should I also test with different kinds of objects? How do you usually approach this? I see there is a popular tool called TestDriven for .NET. With VS 2010 release, is it still useful, or a lot of its features are now part of VS 2010, rendering it kinda useless? Thanks

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  • I have to do two seemingly mutually exclusive things on leaving an asp:textbox. Please help me get

    - by aape
    This project has gone from being a simple '99 Ford F-150 to the Homer. I've got controls with a gridview with textboxes for data entry. All the user controls on the pages are in AJAX updatepanels. User types in a database column or budget entity or some other financial thing they want to include in the report. The textboxes in the gridview have autopostback = true set. overly long background info When the user leaves the textbox, during the postback (triggered by onTextChanged) I do some validation back on the server on their entry - regexs, do they have rights to that column, is that column locked, etc. If it fails, I put a error message next to the textbox. If it passes, I wipe out any title or error that used to be next to the code. Focus is getting lost from the postback if they're tabbing out of the box, rather than going to the next textbox in the gridview. So to fix that I need, if their leaving the tb via the tab key, to also figure out what textbox or gridviewrow they're on, if they're not on the last row, and after the validation and labeling, put the focus on the textbox in the next row. I can't figure out how, in ontextchanged, to find what caused me to leave the textbox, so I'm thinking use javascript onkeyup to test the key pressed and then find the next box etc, but the ontextchanged fires first and then the js never does, and also, since the control is all AJAXed, the javascript can't find the textboxes because when you enter the page everything is collapsed (the requirements people loooove to collapse and expand things), and so when it's expanded, all the 'new' textboxes are up in the viewstate stuff in the page source, and not down where javascript can see them. The questions So I'm wondering if I can have an onblur in the javascript that can trigger a postback where I can do my validation and such, and either 1) include the keypressed or pick it out of sender in the event or 2) followup the onblur with onkeyup and somehow figure out what textbox is next on the grid and throw focus there. Or, is there another .NET based approach that could work for this? In terms of tearing the whole thing down and starting from scratch, I couldn't sell that to the bosses, I'm past the point of no return as far as that goes.

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  • Is it any loose coupling mechanism in Objective-C + Cocoa like C# delegates or C++Qt signals+slots?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. For a large programs, the standard way to chalenge a complexity is to divide a program code into small objects. Most of the actual programming languages offer this functionality via classes, so is Objective-C. But after source code is separated into small object, the second challenge is to somehow connect them with each over. Standard approaches, supported by most languages are compositon (one object is a member field of another), inheritance, templates (generics) and callbacks. More cryptic techniques include method-level delagates (C#) and signals+slots (C++Qt). I like the delegates / signals idea, since while connecting two objects i can connect individual methods with each over, without objects knowing anything of each over. For C#, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); object1.SomethingHappened += object2.HandleSomething; In this code, is object1 calls it's SomethingHappened delegate (like a normal method call) the HandleSomething method of object2 will be called. For C++Qt, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); connect( object1, SIGNAL(SomethingHappened()), object2, SLOT(HandleSomething()) ); The result will be exactly the same. This technique has some advantages and disadvantages, but generally i like it more than interfaces since if program code base grows i can change connections and add new ones without creating tons of interfaces. After examination of Objective-C i havn't found any way to use this technique i like :(. It seems that Objective-C supports message passing perfectly well, but it requres for object1 to have a pointer to object2 in order to pass it a message. If some object needs to be connected to lots of other objects, in Objective-C i will be forced to give him pointers to each of the objects it must be connected. So, the question :). Is it any approach in Objective-C programming that will closely resemble delegate / signal+slot types of connection, not a 'give first object an entire pointer to second object so it can pass a message to it'. Method-level connections are a bit more preferable to me than object-level connection ^_^.

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  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • How come Java doesn't accept my LinkedList in a Generic, but accepts its own?

    - by master chief
    For a class assignment, we can't use any of the languages bultin types, so I'm stuck with my own list. Anyway, here's the situation: public class CrazyStructure <T extends Comparable<? super T>> { MyLinkedList<MyTree<T>> trees; //error: type parameter MyTree is not within its bound } However: public class CrazyStructure <T extends Comparable<? super T>> { LinkedList<MyTree<T>> trees; } Works. MyTree impleements the Comparable interface, but MyLinkedList doesn't. However, Java's LinkedList doesn't implement it either, according to this. So what's the problem and how do I fix it? MyLinkedList: public class MyLinkedList<T extends Comparable<? super T>> { private class Node<T> { private Node<T> next; private T data; protected Node(); protected Node(final T value); } Node<T> firstNode; public MyLinkedList(); public MyLinkedList(T value); //calls node1.value.compareTo(node2.value) private int compareElements(final Node<T> node1, final Node<T> node2); public void insert(T value); public void remove(T value); } MyTree: public class LeftistTree<T extends Comparable<? super T>> implements Comparable { private class Node<T> { private Node<T> left, right; private T data; private int dist; protected Node(); protected Node(final T value); } private Node<T> root; public LeftistTree(); public LeftistTree(final T value); public Node getRoot(); //calls node1.value.compareTo(node2.value) private int compareElements(final Node node1, final Node node2); private Node<T> merge(Node node1, Node node2); public void insert(final T value); public T extractMin(); public int compareTo(final Object param); }

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  • JNA array structure

    - by Burny
    I want to use a dll (IEC driver) in Java, for that I am using JNA. The problem in pseudo code: start the server allocate new memory for an array (JNA) client connect writing values from an array to the memory sending this array to the client client disconnect new client connect allocate new memory for an array (JNA) - JVM crash (EXCEPTION_ACCESS_VIOLATION) The JVM crash not by primitve data types and if the values will not writing from the array to the memory. the code in c: struct DataAttributeData CrvPtsArrayDAData = {0}; CrvPtsArrayDAData.ucType = DATATYPE_ARRAY; CrvPtsArrayDAData.pvData = XYValDAData; XYValDAData[0].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[0].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[0].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.xVal); XYValDAData[1].ucType = FLOAT; XYValDAData[1].uiBitLength = sizeof(Float32)*8; XYValDAData[1].pvData = &(inUpdateValue.yVal); Send(&CrvPtsArrayDAData, 1); the code in Java: DataAttributeData[] data_array = (DataAttributeData[]) new DataAttributeData() .toArray(d.bitLength); for (DataAttributeData d_temp : data_array) { d_temp.data = new Memory(size / 8); d_temp.type = type_iec; d_temp.bitLength = size; d_temp.write(); } d.data = data_array[0].getPointer(); And then writing values whith this code: for (int i = 0; i < arraySize; i++) { DataAttributeData dataAttr = new DataAttributeData(d.data.share(i * d.size())); dataAttr.read(); dataAttr.data.setFloat(0, f[i]); dataAttr.write(); } the struct in c: struct DataAttributeData{ unsigned char ucType; int iArrayIndex; unsigned int uiBitLength; void * pvData;}; the struct in java: public static class DataAttributeData extends Structure { public DataAttributeData(Pointer p) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(p); } public DataAttributeData() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub super(); } public byte type; public int iArrayIndex; public int bitLength; public Pointer data; @Override protected List<String> getFieldOrder() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return Arrays.asList(new String[] { "type", "iArrayIndex", "bitLength", "data" }); } } Can anybody help me?

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  • c# video equivalent to image.fromstream? Or changing the scope of the following script to allow vide

    - by Daniel
    The following is a part of an upload class in a c# script. I'm a php programmer, I've never messed with c# much but I'm trying to learn. This upload script will not handle anything except images, I need to adapt this class to handle other types of media also, or rewrite it all together. If I'm correct, I realize that using (Image image = Image.FromStream(file.InputStream)) basically says that the scope of the following is Image, only an image can be used or the object is discarded? And also that the variable image is being created from an Image from the file stream, which I understand to be, like... the $_FILES array in php? I dunno, I don't really care about making thumbnails right now either way, so if this can be taken out and still process the upload I'm totally cool with that, I just haven't had any luck getting this thing to take anything but images, even when commenting out that whole part of the class... protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string dir = Path.Combine(Request.PhysicalApplicationPath, "files"); if (Request.Files.Count == 0) { // No files were posted Response.StatusCode = 500; } else { try { // Only one file at a time is posted HttpPostedFile file = Request.Files[0]; // Size limit 100MB if (file.ContentLength > 102400000) { // File too large Response.StatusCode = 500; } else { string id = Request.QueryString["userId"]; string[] folders = userDir(id); foreach (string folder in folders) { dir = Path.Combine(dir, folder); if (!Directory.Exists(dir)) Directory.CreateDirectory(dir); } string path = Path.Combine(dir, String.Concat(Request.QueryString["batchId"], "_", file.FileName)); file.SaveAs(path); // Create thumbnail int dot = path.LastIndexOf('.'); string thumbpath = String.Concat(path.Substring(0, dot), "_thumb", path.Substring(dot)); using (Image image = Image.FromStream(file.InputStream)) { // Find the ratio that will create maximum height or width of 100px. double ratio = Math.Max(image.Width / 100.0, image.Height / 100.0); using (Image thumb = new Bitmap(image, new Size((int)Math.Round(image.Width / ratio), (int)Math.Round(image.Height / ratio)))) { using (Graphics graphic = Graphics.FromImage(thumb)) { // Make sure thumbnail is not crappy graphic.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; graphic.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.High; graphic.CompositingQuality = CompositingQuality.HighQuality; // JPEG ImageCodecInfo codec = ImageCodecInfo.GetImageEncoders()[1]; // 90% quality EncoderParameters encode = new EncoderParameters(1); encode.Param[0] = new EncoderParameter(Encoder.Quality, 90L); // Resize graphic.DrawImage(image, new Rectangle(0, 0, thumb.Width, thumb.Height)); // Save thumb.Save(thumbpath, codec, encode); } } } // Success Response.StatusCode = 200; } } catch { // Something went wrong Response.StatusCode = 500; } } }

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  • C Named pipe (fifo). Parent process gets stuck

    - by Blitzkr1eg
    I want to make a simple program, that fork, and the child writes into the named pipe and the parent reads and displays from the named pipe. The problem is that it enters the parent, does the first printf and then it gets weird, it doesn't do anything else, does not get to the second printf, it just ways for input in the console. #include <string.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/stat.h> #include <fcntl.h> void main() { char t[100]; mkfifo("myfifo",777); pid_t pid; pid = fork(); if (pid==0) { //execl("fifo2","fifo2",(char*)0); char r[100]; printf("scrie2->"); scanf("%s",r); int fp; fp = open("myfifo",O_WRONLY); write(fp,r,99); close(fp); printf("exit kid \n"); exit(0); } else { wait(0); printf("entered parent \n"); // <- this it prints // whats below this line apparently its not being executed int fz; printf("1"); fz = open("myfifo",O_RDONLY); printf("2"); printf("fd: %d",fz); char p[100]; int size; printf("------"); //struct stat *info; //stat("myfifo",info); printf("%d",(*info).st_size); read(fz,p,99); close(fz); printf("%s",p); printf("exit"); exit(0); } }

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  • Is typeid of type name always evaluated at compile time in c++ ?

    - by cyril42e
    I wanted to check that typeid is evaluated at compile time when used with a type name (ie typeid(int), typeid(std::string)...). To do so, I repeated in a loop the comparison of two typeid calls, and compiled it with optimizations enabled, in order to see if the compiler simplified the loop (by looking at the execution time which is 1us when it simplifies instead of 160ms when it does not). And I get strange results, because sometimes the compiler simplifies the code, and sometimes it does not. I use g++ (I tried different 4.x versions), and here is the program: #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> #include <time.h> class DisplayData {}; class RobotDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class SensorDisplay: public DisplayData {}; class RobotQt {}; class SensorQt {}; timespec tp1, tp2; const int n = 1000000000; int main() { int avg = 0; clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp1); for(int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { // if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay)) // (1) compile time // if (typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (2) compile time if (typeid(RobotQt) == typeid(RobotDisplay) || typeid(SensorQt) == typeid(SensorDisplay)) // (3) not compile time ???!!! avg++; else avg--; } clock_gettime(CLOCK_REALTIME, &tp2); std::cout << "time (" << avg << "): " << (tp2.tv_sec-tp1.tv_sec)*1000000000+(tp2.tv_nsec-tp1.tv_nsec) << " ns" << std::endl; } The conditions in which this problem appear are not clear, but: - if there is no inheritance involved, no problem (always compile time) - if I do only one comparison, no problem - the problem only appears only with a disjunction of comparisons if all the terms are false So is there something I didn't get with how typeid works (is it always supposed to be evaluated at compilation time when used with type names?) or may this be a gcc bug in evaluation or optimization? About the context, I tracked down the problem to this very simplified example, but my goal is to use typeid with template types (as partial function template specialization is not possible). Thanks for your help!

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  • This code appears to achieve the return of a null reference in C++

    - by Chuck
    Hi folks, My C++ knowledge is somewhat piecemeal. I was reworking some code at work. I changed a function to return a reference to a type. Inside, I look up an object based on an identifier passed in, then return a reference to the object if found. Of course I ran into the issue of what to return if I don't find the object, and in looking around the web, many people claim that returning a "null reference" in C++ is impossible. Based on this advice, I tried the trick of returning a success/fail boolean, and making the object reference an out parameter. However, I ran into the roadblock of needing to initialize the references I would pass as actual parameters, and of course there is no way to do this. I retreated to the usual approach of just returning a pointer. I asked a colleague about it. He uses the following trick quite often, which is accepted by both a recent version of the Sun compiler and by gcc: MyType& someFunc(int id) { // successful case here: // ... // fail case: return *static_cast<MyType*>(0); } // Use: ... MyType& mt = somefunc(myIdNum); if (&mt) // test for "null reference" { // whatever } ... I have been maintaining this code base for a while, but I find that I don't have as much time to look up the small details about the language as I would like. I've been digging through my reference book but the answer to this one eludes me. Now, I had a C++ course a few years ago, and therein we emphasized that in C++ everything is types, so I try to keep that in mind when thinking things through. Deconstructing the expression: "*static_cast(0);", it indeed seems to me that we take a literal zero, cast it to a pointer to MyType (which makes it a null pointer), and then apply the dereferencing operator in the context of assigning to a reference type (the return type), which should give me a reference to the same object pointed to by the pointer. This sure looks like returning a null reference to me. Any advice in explaining why this works (or why it shouldn't) would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Chuck

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  • How to send a Java integer in four bytes to another application?

    - by user1468729
    public void routeMessage(byte[] data, int mode) { logger.debug(mode); logger.debug(Integer.toBinaryString(mode)); byte[] message = new byte[8]; ByteBuffer byteBuffer = ByteBuffer.allocate(4); ByteArrayOutputStream baoStream = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); DataOutputStream doStream = new DataOutputStream(baoStream); try { doStream.writeInt(mode); } catch (IOException e) { logger.debug("Error converting mode from integer to bytes.", e); return; } byte [] bytes = baoStream.toByteArray(); bytes[0] = (byte)((mode >>> 24) & 0x000000ff); bytes[1] = (byte)((mode >>> 16) & 0x000000ff); bytes[2] = (byte)((mode >>> 8) & 0x00000ff); bytes[3] = (byte)(mode & 0x000000ff); //bytes = byteBuffer.array(); for (byte b : bytes) { logger.debug(b); } for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { //byte tmp = (byte)(mode >> (32 - ((i + 1) * 8))); message[i] = bytes[i]; logger.debug("mode, " + i + ": " + Integer.toBinaryString(message[i])); message[i + 4] = data[i]; } broker.routeMessage(message); } I've tried different ways (as you can see from the commented code) to convert the mode to four bytes to send it via a socket to another application. It works well with integers up to 127 and then again with integers over 256. I believe it has something to do with Java types being signed but don't seem to get it to work. Here are some examples of what the program prints. 127 1111111 0 0 0 127 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 1111111 128 10000000 0 0 0 -128 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111110000000 211 11010011 0 0 0 -45 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 0 mode, 3: 11111111111111111111111111010011 306 100110010 0 0 1 50 mode, 0: 0 mode, 1: 0 mode, 2: 1 mode, 3: 110010 How is it suddenly possible for a byte to store 32 bits? How could I fix this?

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  • [c++] upload image to imageshack

    - by cinek1lol
    Hi. I would like to send pictures via a program written in C + + I wrote such a thing using curl.exe WinExec("C:\\curl\\curl.exe -H Expect: -F \"fileupload=@C:\\curl\\ok.jpg\" -F \"xml=yes\" -# \"http://www.imageshack.us/index.php\" -o data.txt -A \"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.1) Gecko/20061204 Firefox/2.0.0.1\" -e \"http://www.imageshack.us\"", NULL); This only works that I would like to send pictures to a variable pre-loaded char (you know what I mean? first reads the pictures into a variable and then send that variable), because now I have to specify the path to the images on disk I wanted to make this program was written in C + + using the curl library, and not the exe. I found it such a program (which some have modified) #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <iostream> #include <curl/curl.h> #include <curl/types.h> #include <curl/easy.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { CURL *curl; CURLcode res; struct curl_httppost *formpost=NULL; struct curl_httppost *lastptr=NULL; struct curl_slist *headerlist=NULL; static const char buf[] = "Expect:"; curl_global_init(CURL_GLOBAL_ALL); /* Fill in the file upload field */ curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "send", CURLFORM_FILE, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "nowy.jpg", CURLFORM_END); curl_formadd(&formpost, &lastptr, CURLFORM_COPYNAME, "submit", CURLFORM_COPYCONTENTS, "send", CURLFORM_END); curl = curl_easy_init(); headerlist = curl_slist_append(headerlist, buf); if(curl) { curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.imageshack.us/index.php"); if ( (argc == 2) && (!strcmp(argv[1], "xml=yes")) ) curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, headerlist); curl_easy_setopt(curl, CURLOPT_HTTPPOST, formpost); res = curl_easy_perform(curl); curl_easy_cleanup(curl); curl_formfree(formpost); curl_slist_free_all (headerlist); } system("pause"); return 0; } I will be grateful for any help

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Contact form with php-script does not work

    - by elajjas
    I'm new to the forum and I have been trying to find a thread that could be helpful but nothing have been working out so far. I recently uploaded my site via FTP, and it works fine. Except for one thing, my contact form. The contact form is crucial and it is almost the whole point of the website. I don't get any emails "from the form", either in my spam-folder or inbox. Please have a look at the website which is: http://www.adspot.se The contact form is situated on: http://www.adspot.se/contact.html The php script looks like this: <?php if (isset($_REQUEST['email'])) //if "email" is filled out, send email { //send email $name = $_REQUEST['name'] ; $email = $_REQUEST['email'] ; $message = $_REQUEST['message'] ; mail("[email protected]", $name, $message, "From:" . $email); } ?> I've already tried different types of php-scripts, but it still doesn't seem to work. UPDATE: Changed the form code to: <form method="POST" action="email.php"> <div class="row half"> <div class="6u"> <input name="name" placeholder="Name" type="text" class="text" /> </div> <div class="6u"> <input name="email" placeholder="Email" type="text" class="text" /> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <textarea name="message" placeholder="Message"></textarea> </div> </div> <div class="row half"> <div class="12u"> <ul class="action"> <input type="submit" class="action"> </ul> </div> </div> </form> Now it redirects me to www.adspot.se/email.php but still no emails received...

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  • execl doesn't work in a while(1) cicle, server side; C script

    - by Possa
    Hi guys, I have a problem with a little C script who should run as a server and launch a popup for every message arriving. The execl syntax is correct because if I try a little script with main() { execl(...); } it works. When I put it in a while(1) cicle it doesn't work. Everything else is working, like printf or string operation, but not the execl. Even if I fork it doesn't work. I really don't know what I can do ... can anyone help me? Thanks in advice for your help and sorry for my bad english. Here's the complete server C code. #include <arpa/inet.h> #include <netinet/in.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <sys/socket.h> #include <unistd.h> #include <string.h> #define BUFLEN 512 #define PORT 9930 void diep(char *s) { perror(s); exit(1); } int main() { struct sockaddr_in si_me, si_other; int s, i, slen=sizeof(si_other), broadcastPermission; char buf[100], zeni[BUFLEN]; if ((s=socket(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_UDP))==-1) diep("socket"); broadcastPermission = 1; if (setsockopt(s, SOL_SOCKET, SO_BROADCAST, (void *) &broadcastPermission, sizeof(broadcastPermission)) < 0) diep("setsockopt() failed"); memset((char *) &si_me, 0, sizeof(si_me)); si_me.sin_family = AF_INET; si_me.sin_port = htons(PORT); si_me.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(INADDR_ANY); if (bind(s, &si_me, sizeof(si_me))==-1) diep("bind"); while (1) { if (recvfrom(s, buf, BUFLEN, 0, &si_other, &slen)==-1) diep("recvfrom()"); //printf("Received packet from %s:%d\nData: %s\n", inet_ntoa(si_other.sin_addr), ntohs(si_other.sin_port), buf); strcpy(zeni, ""); strcat(zeni, "zenity --warning --title Hack!! --text "); strcat(zeni, buf); printf("cmd: %s\n", zeni); //system (zeni); execl("/usr/bin/zenity", "/usr/bin/zenity", "--warning", "--title", "Warn!", "--text", buf, (char *) NULL); } close(s); return 0; }

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  • Javascript question

    - by Craig
    I am supposed to make this simple program. It produces a multiplication problem, and when the user types the correct answer, it is supposed to produce another question. Instead it goes into an infinite loop and never stops, the answer field and the button go away. Also, I am supposed to make the comment about the users answer, one of 4 different sayings. Without using Arrays how would I do that? My professor is no help, really getting aggravated as I have no where else to turn. <html> <title>HW 9.27 and 9.28</title> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var number1; var number2; var answer3; var answer2; function problem() { number1 = Math.floor(1 + Math.random() * 9); number2 = Math.floor(1 + Math.random() * 9); document.writeln("How much is " + number1 + " times " + number2 + " ?"); answer2 = (number1 * number2); } function answer1() { var statusDiv = document.getElementById("status"); answer3 = document.getElementById("answer").value; if (answer3 != answer2) statusDiv.innerHTML = "No. Please try again"; else if (answer3 == answer2) { statusDiv.innerHTML = "Very good!"; problem(); } } problem(); </script> </head> <body> <form> <input id="answer" type="text" /> <input type="button" value="Solve!" onclick="answer1()" /> <div id ="status">Click the Solve button to Solve the problem</div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

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  • Java template classes using generator or similar?

    - by Hugh Perkins
    Is there some library or generator that I can use to generate multiple templated java classes from a single template? Obviously Java does have a generics implementation itself, but since it uses type-erasure, there are lots of situations where it is less than adequate. For example, if I want to make a self-growing array like this: class EasyArray { T[] backingarray; } (where T is a primitive type), then this isn't possible. This is true for anything which needs an array, for example high-performance templated matrix and vector classes. It should probably be possible to write a code generator which takes a templated class and generates multiple instantiations, for different types, eg for 'double' and 'float' and 'int' and 'String'. Is there something that already exists that does this? Edit: note that using an array of Object is not what I'm looking for, since it's no longer an array of primitives. An array of primitives is very fast, and uses only as much space a sizeof(primitive) * length-of-array. An array of object is an array of pointers/references, that points to Double objects, or similar, which could be scattered all over the place in memory, require garbage collection, allocation, and imply a double-indirection for access. Edit2: good god, voted down for asking for something that probably doesn't currently exist, but is technically possible and feasible? Does that mean that people looking for ways to improve things have already left the java community? Edit3: Here is code to show the difference in performance between primitive and boxed arrays: int N = 10*1000*1000; double[]primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } Object[] objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } tic(); primArray = new double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { primArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); tic(); objArray = new Double[N]; for( int i = 0; i < N; i++ ) { objArray[i] = 123.0; } toc(); Results: double[] array: 148 ms Double[] array: 4614 ms Not even close!

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  • Not seeing Sync Block in Object Layout

    - by bob-bedell
    It's my understanding the all .NET object instances begin with an 8 byte 'object header': a synch block (4 byte pointer into a SynchTableEntry table), and a type handle (4 byte pointer into the types method table). I'm not seeing this in VS 2010 RC's (CLR 4.0) debugger memory windows. Here's a simple class that will generate a 16 byte instance, less the object header. class Program { short myInt = 2; // 4 bytes long myLong = 3; // 8 bytes string myString = "aString"; // 4 byte object reference // 16 byte instance static void Main(string[] args) { new Program(); return; } } An SOS object dump tells me that the total object size is 24 bytes. That makes sense. My 16 byte instance plus an 8 byte object header. !DumpObj 0205b660 Name: Offset_Test.Program MethodTable: 000d383c EEClass: 000d13f8 Size: 24(0x18) bytes File: C:\Users\Bob\Desktop\Offset_Test\Offset_Test\bin\Debug\Offset_Test.exe Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 632020fc 4000001 10 System.Int16 1 instance 2 myInt 632050d8 4000002 4 System.Int64 1 instance 3 myLong 631fd2b8 4000003 c System.String 0 instance 0205b678 myString Here's the raw memory: 0x0205B660 000d383c 00000003 00000000 0205b678 00000002 ... And here are some annotations: offset 0 000d383c ;TypeHandle (pointer to MethodTable), 4 bytes offset 4 00000003 00000000 ;myLong, 8 bytes offset 12 0205b678 ;myString, 4 byte reference to address of "myString" on GC Heap offset 16 00000002 ;myInt, 4 bytes My object begins a address 0x0205B660. But I can only account for 20 bytes of it, the type handle and the instance fields. There is no sign of a synch block pointer. The object size is reported as 24 bytes, but the debugger is showing that it only occupies 20 bytes of memory. I'm reading Drill Into .NET Framework Internals to See How the CLR Creates Runtime Objects, and expected the first 4 bytes of my object to be a zeroed synch block pointer, as shown in Figure 8 of that article. Granted, this is an article about CLR 1.1. I'm just wondering if the difference between what I'm seeing and what this early article reports is a change in either the debugger's display of object layout, or in the way the CLR lays out objects in versions later than 1.1. Anyway, can anyone account for my 4 missing bytes?

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