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  • Why is Swing Parser's handleText not handling nested tags?

    - by Jim P
    I need to transform some HTML text that has nested tags to decorate 'matches' with a css attribute to highlight it (like firefox search). I can't just do a simple replace (think if user searched for "img" for example), so I'm trying to just do the replace within the body text (not on tag attributes). I have a pretty straightforward HTML parser that I think should do this: final Pattern pat = Pattern.compile(srch, Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE); Matcher m = pat.matcher(output); if (m.find()) { final StringBuffer ret = new StringBuffer(output.length()+100); lastPos=0; try { new ParserDelegator().parse(new StringReader(output.toString()), new HTMLEditorKit.ParserCallback () { public void handleText(char[] data, int pos) { ret.append(output.subSequence(lastPos, pos)); Matcher m = pat.matcher(new String(data)); ret.append(m.replaceAll("<span class=\"search\">$0</span>")); lastPos=pos+data.length; } }, false); ret.append(output.subSequence(lastPos, output.length())); return ret; } catch (Exception e) { return output; } } return output; My problem is, when I debug this, the handleText is getting called with text that includes tags! It's like it's only going one level deep. Anyone know why? Is there some simple thing I need to do to HTMLParser (haven't used it much) to enable 'proper' behavior of nested tags? PS - I figured it out myself - see answer below. Short answer is, it works fine if you pass it HTML, not pre-escaped HTML. Doh! Hope this helps someone else. <span>example with <a href="#">nested</a> <p>more nesting</p> </span> <!-- all this gets thrown together -->

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  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

    - by Joel
    Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

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  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

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  • Passing PaginatedList to ActionResult MVC C#

    - by Darcy
    Hi all, I wanted to create a simple paginated search for my project. I'm having trouble with my 'advanced search' page, where I have several textbox inputs that the user would fill with the appropriate data (basically just several filters). My view is strongly-typed with the paginatedList class similar to the NerdDinner tutorial. In my controller, I wanted to pass the PaginatedList as a parameter since my view contains several bits of info from the PaginatedList model. The PaginatedList was null (as parameter), then I changed added the route; the object itself is not null anymore, but the values are. View: <%= Html.TextBox("Manufacturers", Model.Manufacturers) %> <%= Html.TextBox("OtherFilters", Model.FilterX) %> //...etc etc Controller: public ActionResult AdvancedSearchResults(PaginatedList<MyModel> paginatedList) { //... } Any ideas? Am I even going about this correctly? Should I create a ViewModel that encapsulates the paginatedList info as well as the additional info I need instead?

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  • Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

    - by Dr. DOT
    I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); **alert('this makes it work');** } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> Thanks.

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  • Steps in creating a web service using Axis2 - The client code

    - by zengr
    I am trying to create a web service, my tools of trade are: ** Axis2, Eclipse, Tomcat, Ant ** I need to create a web service from Code, i.e. Write a basic java class which will have the methods to be declared in the WSDL. Then use java2WSDL.sh to create my WSDL. So, is this approach correct: Write my Java class with actual business logic package packageNamel; public class Hello{ public void World(String name) { SOP("Hello" + name); } } Now, when I pass this Hello.java to java2WSDL.sh, this will give me the WSDL. Finally, I will write the services.xml file, and create the Hello.aar with following dir structure: Hello.aar packageName Hello.class META-INF services.xml MANIFEST.MF Hello.WSDL Now, I assume, my service will be deployed when I put the aar in tomcat1/webapps/axis2/WEB-INF/services But, here comes my problem, HOW DO I ACCESS THE METHOD World(String name)???!!, i.e. I am clueless about the client code! Please enlighten me on making a very basic web service and calling the method. The above described 3 steps might be wrong. It's a community wiki, feel free to edit. Thanks

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  • Write a compiler for a language that looks ahead and multiple files?

    - by acidzombie24
    In my language I can use a class variable in my method when the definition appears below the method. It can also call methods below my method and etc. There are no 'headers'. Take this C# example. class A { public void callMethods() { print(); B b; b.notYetSeen(); public void print() { Console.Write("v = {0}", v); } int v=9; } class B { public void notYetSeen() { Console.Write("notYetSeen()\n"); } } How should I compile that? what i was thinking is: pass1: convert everything to an AST pass2: go through all classes and build a list of define classes/variable/etc pass3: go through code and check if there's any errors such as undefined variable, wrong use etc and create my output But it seems like for this to work I have to do pass 1 and 2 for ALL files before doing pass3. Also it feels like a lot of work to do until I find a syntax error (other than the obvious that can be done at parse time such as forgetting to close a brace or writing 0xLETTERS instead of a hex value). My gut says there is some other way. Note: I am using bison/flex to generate my compiler.

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  • WCF Certificates without Certificate Store

    - by Kane
    My team is developing a number of WPF plug-ins for a 3rd party thick client application. The WPF plug-ins use WCF to consume web services published by a number of TIBCO services. The thick client application maintains a separate central data store and uses a proprietary API to access the data store. The thick client and WPF plug-ins are due to be deployed onto 10,000 workstations. Our customer wants to keep the certificate used by the thick client in the central data store so that they don't need to worry about re-issuing the certificate (current re-issue cycle takes about 3 months) and also have the opportunity to authorise the use of the certificate. The proposed architecture offers a form of shared secret / authentication between the central data store and the TIBCO services. Whilst I don’t necessarily agree with the proposed architecture our team is not able to change it and must work with what’s been provided. Basically our client wants us to build into our WPF plug-ins a mechanism which retrieves the certificate from the central data store (which will be allowed or denied based on roles in that data store) into memory then use the certificate for creating the SSL connection to the TIBCO services. No use of the local machine's certificate store is allowed and the in memory version is to be discarded at the end of each session. So the question is does anyone know if it is possible to pass an in-memory certificate to a WCF (.NET 3.5) service for SSL transport level encryption? Note: I had asked a similar question (here) but have since deleted it and re-asked it with more information.

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  • Generic allocator class without variadic templates?

    - by rainer
    I am trying to write a generic allocator class that does not really release an object's memory when it is free()'d but holds it in a queue and returns a previously allocated object if a new one is requested. Now, what I can't wrap my head around is how to pass arguments to the object's constructor when using my allocator (at least without resorting to variadic templates, that is). The alloc() function i came up with looks like this: template <typename... T> inline T *alloc(const &T... args) { T *p; if (_free.empty()) { p = new T(args...); } else { p = _free.front(); _free.pop(); // to call the ctor of T, we need to first call its DTor p->~T(); p = new( p ) T(args...); } return p; } Still, I need the code to be compatible with today's C++ (and older versions of GCC that do not support variadic templates). Is there any other way to go about passing an arbitrary amount of arguments to the objects constructor?

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  • WPF/SL EventAggregator implementation with durable subscribers behavior?

    - by sha1dy
    Hi. Currently I'm building an application using latest Prism for Silverlight 4. I've a module and in that module I've two views with view models. Also I've a module view with two regions for each view. In module initialization I'm registering my views and view models in Unity container and also register views with corresponding regions. The problem is that views should display something similar to table-detail information - first view shows available entities ans the second view shows detail of selected entity. I need a way how to pass them initial selected entity. Newly created first view doesn't have any selected entity and newly created second view doesn't show any details. Currently I'm doing that this way: In module I create two view models and register them as instances in Unity container and then I register views as types for corresponding regions. Each view subscribes to EntitySelectedEvent from EventAggregator. Module initializer publish this event after initialization and this way two views are selecting the same entity. I know this looks ugly - I tried publishing this event from one of view models but the problems is that EventAggregator in Prism doesn't support durable subscribers - this means that if the second view model didn't subscribe to event before the first view model fired it, it won't receive and event. I know this is a normal behavior of EventAggregator, but I'm looking for a solution when view models can fire events without depending on initialization order of them - that is the first model can fire event before the second model was created and the second model will receive this 'queued' event after subscribing to it. Are there any other messaging implementations for WPF/SL which do support such behavior or using a mediator (in my example it's a module itself) isn't such a bad idea after all? One big problem with mediator is that models must be created right away in initialize and they can't be registered as types in container because this leads again to missing subscribers.

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  • WPF: How do I get a reference to a styled window control in code behind?

    - by Brad
    I have a window defined with a style: <Window x:Class="winBorderless" x:Name="winBorderless" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:Local="clr-namespace:WindowStyle" Style="{StaticResource Window_Cartesia}" WindowStartupLocation="CenterScreen" BorderThickness="1" BorderBrush="#FF9CAAC1" Margin="5" Title="[Document Title]"> and the style defined in an application level dictionary: <Style x:Key="Window_Cartesia" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="WindowStyle" Value="None"/> <Setter Property="AllowsTransparency" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Transparent"/> <EventSetter Event="Loaded" Handler="Loaded"/> <EventSetter Event="PreviewKeyDown" Handler="Preview_KeyDown"/> <EventSetter Event="MouseMove" Handler="FullScreen_MouseMove"/> <Setter Property="Template"> In code behind I have a reference to the Window instance set: Win = DirectCast(sender, winBorderless) This allows access to the window properties as the EventSetters pass references to the various controls. However, it doesn't provide for access to the controls defined in the style through the window reference as they don't exist there. So, what is the best way to reference a control through code behind that is defined in the style. I'd prefer not to iterate the trees to find them but ya gotta do....

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  • How to invalidate layout of listbox from custom children

    - by Stephen Price
    I have a custom panel for a listbox <ItemsPanelTemplate x:Key="FloatPanelTemplate"> <Controls:FloatPanel x:Name="CardPanel" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> The panel lays out its children using its X and Y dependency properties. This all works nicely when the FloatPanel is used by itself - I'm using FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsArrange | FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsMeasure on the dependency properties of the child items to tell the FloatPanel to redraw its layout. When I use it in a Listbox (code above) then it draws fine the first time, but when I drag the children (which modifies the item's X and Y) it is not notifying the Listbox that it needs to redraw the FloatPanel's children. I think the issue is related to the fact that each item in the bound collection is wrapped with a ListBoxItem. Hopefully I've described what i'm doing well enough that someone can tell me how to make the panel (or its children) tell it needs to do the Layout routines again. As I said it works once (initial draw) but then dragging items doesn't work (Listbox isnt aware that its children have changed and needs to relayout.) If I drag an item and then resize the window, the listbox does a layout and the items are drawn in their new locations. How do I notify the ListBox (or more importantly the FloatPanel in the ItemsPanelTemplate) that it needs to do a Layout pass?

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  • Sybase: how can I remove non-printable characters from CHAR or VARCHAR fields with SQL?

    - by Kenny Drobnack
    I'm working with a Sybase database that seems to have non-printable characters in some of the string fields and this is throwing off some of our processing code. At first glance, it seemed to only be newlines and carriage returns, but we also have an ASCII code 27 in there - an ESC character, some accented characters, and some other oddities in there. I have no direct access to change the database, so changing the bad data isn't an option, yet. For now I have to make do with just filtering it out. We're trying to export the table data from one database and load it into a database used by another application in a nightly batch process. Ideally, I'd like to have a function that I can pass a list of characters and just have Sybase return the data with those characters removed. I'd like to keep it something we could do in plain SQL if possible. Something like this to remove characters that are ASCII 0 - 31. select str_replace(FIELD1, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD1, str_replace(FIELD2, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD2 from TABLE So far, str_replace is the nearest I can find, but it only allows replacing one string with another. No support for character ranges and won't let me do the above. We're running on Sybase ASE 12.5 on Unix servers.

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  • Place Query Results into Array then Implode?

    - by jason
    Basically I pull an Id from table1, use that id to find a site id in table2, then need to use the site ids in an array, implode, and query table3 for site names. I cannot implode the array correctly first I got an error, then used a while loop. With the while loop the output simply says: Array $mysqli = mysqli_connect("server", "login", "pass", "db"); $sql = "SELECT MarketID FROM marketdates WHERE Date = '2010-04-04 00:00:00' AND VenueID = '2'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); $dates_id = mysqli_fetch_assoc ( $result ); $comma_separated = implode(",", $dates_id); echo $comma_separated; //This Returns 79, which is correct. $sql = "SELECT SIteID FROM bookings WHERE BSH_ID = '1' AND MarketID = '$comma_separated'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); // This is where my problems start $SIteID = array(); while ($newArray = mysqli_fetch_array($result, MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { $SIteID[] = $newArray[SIteID]; } $locationList = implode(",",$SIteID); ?> Basically what I need to do is correctly move the query results to an array that I can implode and use in a 3rd query to pull names from table3.

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  • Reordering arguments using recursion (pro, cons, alternatives)

    - by polygenelubricants
    I find that I often make a recursive call just to reorder arguments. For example, here's my solution for endOther from codingbat.com: Given two strings, return true if either of the strings appears at the very end of the other string, ignoring upper/lower case differences (in other words, the computation should not be "case sensitive"). Note: str.toLowerCase() returns the lowercase version of a string. public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return a.length() < b.length() ? endOther(b, a) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } I'm very comfortable with recursions, but I can certainly understand why some perhaps would object to it. There are two obvious alternatives to this recursion technique: Swap a and b traditionally public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { if (a.length() < b.length()) { String t = a; a = b; b = t; } return a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Not convenient in a language like Java that doesn't pass by reference Lots of code just to do a simple operation An extra if statement breaks the "flow" Repeat code public boolean endOther(String a, String b) { return (a.length() < b.length()) ? b.toLowerCase().endsWith(a.toLowerCase()) : a.toLowerCase().endsWith(b.toLowerCase()); } Explicit symmetry may be a nice thing (or not?) Bad idea unless the repeated code is very simple ...though in this case you can get rid of the ternary and just || the two expressions So my questions are: Is there a name for these 3 techniques? (Are there more?) Is there a name for what they achieve? (e.g. "parameter normalization", perhaps?) Are there official recommendations on which technique to use (when)? What are other pros/cons that I may have missed?

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  • Convert string to decimal retaining the exact input format

    - by Brett
    Hi All, I'm sure this is a piece of cake but I'm really struggling with something that seems trivial. I need to check the inputted text of a textbox on the form submit and check to see if it's within a desired range (I've tried a Range Validator but it doesn't work for some reason so I'm trying to do this server-side). What I want to do is: Get the value inputted (eg. 0.02), replace the commas and periods, convert that to a decimal (or double or equivalent) and check to see if it's between 0.10 and 35000.00. Here's what I have so far: string s = txtTransactionValue.Text.Replace(",", string.Empty).Replace(".", string.Empty); decimal transactionValue = Decimal.Parse(s); if (transactionValue >= 0.10M && transactionValue <= 35000.00M) // do something If I pass 0.02 into the above, transactionValue is 2. I want to retain the value as 0.02 (ie. do no format changes to it - 100.00 is 100.00, 999.99 is 999.99) Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Brett

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  • Passing VB Callback function to C dll - noob is stuck.

    - by WaveyDavey
    Callbacks in VB (from C dll). I need to pass a vb function as a callback to a c function in a dll. I know I need to use addressof for the function but I'm getting more and more confused as to how to do it. Details: The function in the dll that I'm passing the address of a callback to is defined in C as : PaError Pa_OpenStream( PaStream** stream, const PaStreamParameters *inputParameters, const PaStreamParameters *outputParameters, double sampleRate, unsigned long framesPerBuffer, PaStreamFlags streamFlags, PaStreamCallback *streamCallback, void *userData ); where the function is parameter 7, *streamCallback. The type PaStreamCallback is defines thusly: typedef int PaStreamCallback( const void *input, void *output, unsigned long frameCount, const PaStreamCallbackTimeInfo* timeInfo, PaStreamCallbackFlags statusFlags, void *userData ); In my vb project I have: Private Declare Function Pa_OpenStream Lib "portaudio_x86.dll" _ ( ByVal stream As IntPtr _ , ByVal inputParameters As IntPtr _ , ByVal outputParameters As PaStreamParameters _ , ByVal samprate As Double _ , ByVal fpb As Double _ , ByVal paClipoff As Long _ , ByVal patestCallBack As IntPtr _ , ByVal data As IntPtr) As Integer (don't worry if I've mistyped some of the other parameters, I'll get to them later! Let's concentrate on the callback for now.) In module1.vb I have defined the callback function: Function MyCallback( ByVal inp As Byte, _ ByVal outp As Byte, _ ByVal framecount As Long, _ ByVal pastreamcallbacktimeinfo As Byte, _ ByVal pastreamcallbackflags As Byte, _ ByVal userdata As Byte) As Integer ' do clever things here End Function The external function in the dll is called with err = Pa_OpenStream( ptr, _ nulthing, _ outputParameters, _ SAMPLE_RATE, _ FRAMES_PER_BUFFER, _ clipoff, _ AddressOf MyCallback, _ dataptr) This is broken in the declaration of the external function - it doesn't like the type IntPtr as a function pointer for AddressOf. Can anyone show me how to implement passing this callback function please ? Many thanks David

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  • Building simple Reddit scraper

    - by Bazant Fundator
    Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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  • jQuery .animate() not animating backgroundPosition in IE

    - by mikemike
    I'm trying to animate a background image to move down a set amount of pixels but remain in the center of the page. Upon another click of an element I need it to move back to the top, but still remain in the center. Below is the current code: $(document).ready(function() { $('#email_campaigns').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; if($('#email_campaigns_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#email_campaigns_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#client_login_box').slideUp("slow"); }); $('#client_login').click(function(){ var width = $(window).width(); width = (width / 2) - 700; alert(width); if($('#client_login_box').css('display') == 'none'){ //$('body').css('background-position','center 119px'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 119px") }, {duration:500}); } else { //$('body').css('background-position','center top'); $('body').animate({ backgroundPosition: (width + "px 0px") }, {duration:500}); } $('#client_login_box').slideToggle("slow"); $('#email_campaigns_box').slideUp("slow"); }); }); I cannot pass 'center', as it will onyl accept numeric values. My goal is to calulate the center of the page in pixels (width = (width / 2) - 700;), and then animate to this rough position (it's normally out by a few pixels due to scrollbars, and then force to the center using a .css() call. The problem is that IE does not want to play ball. IE will not animate at all. Firefox/Safari/Chrome all work as expected. Below is a live example: http://recklessnewmedia.com/new/# (click 'email campaigns' at the top). Thanks

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  • how to extend a protocol for a delegate in objective C, then subclass an object to require a conform

    - by fess .
    I want to subclass UITextView, and send a new message to the delegate. So, I want to extend the delegate protocol, What's the correct way to do this? I started out with this: interface: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @class MySubClass; @protocol MySubClassDelegate <UITextViewDelegate> - (void) MySubClassMessage: (MySubClass *) subclass; @end @interface MySubClass : UITextView { } @end implementation: #import "MySubClass.h" @implementation MySubClass - (void) SomeMethod; { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector: @selector (MySubClassMessage:)]) { [self.delegate MySubClassMessage: self]; } } @end however with that I get the warning: '-MySubClassMessage:' not found in protocol(s). I had one way working where I created my own ivar to store the delegate, then also stored the delegate using [super setDelegate] but that seemed wrong. perhaps it's not. I know I can just pass id's around and get by, but My goal is to make sure that the compiler checks that any delegate supplied to MySubClass conforms to MySubClassDelegate protocol. To further clairfy: @interface MySubClassTester : NSObject { } @implementation MySubClassTester - (void) one { MySubClass *subclass = [[MySubClass alloc] init]; subclass.delegate = self; } @end will produce the warning: class 'MySubClassTester' does not implement the 'UITextViewDelegate' protocol I want it to produce the warning about not implementing 'MySubClassDelegate' protocol instead. Thanks, a bunch. (thanks brad)

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  • c - strncpy issue

    - by Joe
    Hi there, I am getting segmentation fault when using strncpy and (pointer-to-struct)-(member) notation: I have simplified my code. I initialise a struct and set all of it's tokens to an empty string. Then a declare a pointer to a struct and assign the address of the struct to it. I pass the pointer to a function. I can print out the contents of the struct at the beginning of the function, but if I try to use the tp - mnemonic in a strncpy function, I get seg fault. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? typedef struct tok { char* label; char* mnem; char* operand; }Tokens; Tokens* tokenise(Tokens* tp, char* line) { // This prints fine printf("Print this - %s\n", tp -> mnem); // This function gives me segmentation fault strncpy(tp -> mnem, line, 4); return tp; } int main() { char* line = "This is a line"; Tokens tokens; tokens.label = ""; tokens.mnem = "load"; tokens.operand = ""; Tokens* tp = &tokens; tp = tokenise(tp, line); return 0; } I have used printf statements to confirm that the code definitely stops executing at the strncpy function. Can anyone tell me where I am going wrong? Many thanks Joe

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  • How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

    - by markerikson
    I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

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  • Help to understand the issue with protected method

    - by zeroed
    I'm reading Sybex Complete Java 2 Certification Study Guide April 2005 (ISBN0782144195). This book is for java developers who wants to pass java certification. After a chapter about access modifiers (along with other modifiers) I found the following question (#17): True or false: If class Y extends class X, the two classes are in different packages, and class X has a protected method called abby(), then any instance of Y may call the abby() method of any other instance of Y. This question confused me a little. As far as I know you can call protected method on any variable of the same class (or subclasses). You cannot call it on variables, that higher in the hierarchy than you (e.g. interfaces that you implement). For example, you cannot clone any object just because you inherit it. But the questions says nothing about variable type, only about instance type. I was confused a little and answered "true". The answer in the book is False. An object that inherits a protected method from a superclass in a different package may call that method on itself but not on other instances of the same class. There is nothing here about variable type, only about instance type. This is very strange, I do not understand it. Can anybody explain what is going on here?

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