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  • Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

    - by George
    I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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  • Looking for combinations of server and embedded database engines

    - by codeelegance
    I'm redesigning an application that will be run as both a single user and multiuser application. It is a .NET 2.0 application. I'm looking for server and embedded databases that work well together. I want to deploy the embedded database in the single user setup and of course, the server in the multiuser setup. Past releases have been based on MSDE but in the past year we've been having a lot of install issues: new installs hanging and leaving the system in an unknown state, upgrades disconnecting the database, etc. I migrated the application to SQL Server 2005 and the install is more reliable (as long as a user doesn't try to install over a broken MSDE installation). Since next year's release will be a complete redesign I figured now's the best time to address the database issue as well. The database has been abstracted from the rest of the application so I just need to choose which database(s) to use and write an implementation for each one. So far I've considered: SQL Server/ SQL Server Compact Edition Firebird (same DB engine is available in two different server modes and an embedded dll) Each has its own merits but I'm also interested in any other suggestions. This is a fairly simple program and its data requirements are simple as well. I don't expect it to strain whatever database I eventually choose. So easy configuration and deployment hold more weight than performance.

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  • Game architecture: modeling different steps/types of UI

    - by Sander
    I have not done any large game development projects, only messed around with little toy projects. However, I never found an intuitive answer to a specific design question. Namely, how are different types/states of UI modeled in games? E.g. how is a menu represented? How is it different from a "game world" state (let's use an FPS as an example). How is an overlaid menu on top of a "game world" modeled? Let's imagine the main loop of a game. Where do the game states come into play? It it a simple case-by-case approach? if (menu.IsEnabled) menu.Process(elapsedTime); if (world.IsEnabled) world.Process(elapsedTime); if (menu.IsVisible) menu.Draw(); if (world.IsVisible) world.Draw(); Or are menu and world represented somewhere in a different logic layer and not represented at this level? (E.g. a menu is just another high-level entity like e.g. player input or enemy manager, equal to all others) foreach (var entity in game.HighLevelEntities) entity.Process(elapsedTime); foreach (var entity in game.HighLevelEntities) entity.Draw(elapsedTime); Are there well-known design patterns for this? Come to think of it, I don't know any game-specific design patterns - I assume there are others, as well? Please tell me about them.

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  • Git: Create a branch from unstagged/uncommited changes on master

    - by knoopx
    Context: I'm working on master adding a simple feature. After a few minutes I realize it was not so simple and it should have been better to work into a new branch. This always happens to me and I have no idea how to switch to another branch and take all these uncommited changes with me leaving the master branch clean. I supposed git stash && git stash branch new_branch would simply accomplish that but this is what I get: ~/test $ git status # On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) ~/test $ echo "hello!" > testing ~/test $ git status # On branch master # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") ~/test $ git stash Saved working directory and index state WIP on master: 4402b8c testing HEAD is now at 4402b8c testing ~/test $ git status # On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) ~/test $ git stash branch new_branch Switched to a new branch 'new_branch' # On branch new_branch # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") Dropped refs/stash@{0} (db1b9a3391a82d86c9fdd26dab095ba9b820e35b) ~/test $ git s # On branch new_branch # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") ~/test $ git checkout master M testing Switched to branch 'master' ~/test $ git status # On branch master # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # modified: testing # no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") Do you know if there is any way of accomplishing this?

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  • TSQL Help (SQL Server 2005)

    - by Mick Walker
    I have been playing around with a quite complex SQL Statement for a few days, and have gotten most of it working correctly. I am having trouble with one last part, and was wondering if anyone could shed some light on the issue, as I have no idea why it isnt working: INSERT INTO ExistingClientsAccounts_IMPORT SELECT DISTINCT cca.AccountID, cca.SKBranch, cca.SKAccount, cca.SKName, cca.SKBase, cca.SyncStatus, cca.SKCCY, cca.ClientType, cca.GFCID, cca.GFPID, cca.SyncInput, cca.SyncUpdate, cca.LastUpdatedBy, cca.Deleted, cca.Branch_Account, cca.AccountTypeID FROM ClientsAccounts AS cca INNER JOIN (SELECT DISTINCT ClientAccount, SKAccount, SKDesc, SKBase, SKBranch, ClientType, SKStatus, GFCID, GFPID, Account_Open_Date, Account_Update FROM ClientsAccounts_IMPORT) AS ccai ON cca.Branch_Account = ccai.ClientAccount Table definitions follow: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ExistingClientsAccounts_IMPORT]( [AccountID] [int] NOT NULL, [SKBranch] [varchar](2) NOT NULL, [SKAccount] [varchar](12) NOT NULL, [SKName] [varchar](255) NULL, [SKBase] [varchar](16) NULL, [SyncStatus] [varchar](50) NULL, [SKCCY] [varchar](5) NULL, [ClientType] [varchar](50) NULL, [GFCID] [varchar](10) NULL, [GFPID] [varchar](10) NULL, [SyncInput] [smalldatetime] NULL, [SyncUpdate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [varchar](50) NOT NULL, [Deleted] [tinyint] NOT NULL, [Branch_Account] [varchar](16) NOT NULL, [AccountTypeID] [int] NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ClientsAccounts_IMPORT]( [NEWClientIndex] [bigint] NOT NULL, [ClientGroup] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [ClientAccount] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKAccount] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKDesc] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKBase] [varchar](10) NULL, [SKBranch] [varchar](2) NOT NULL, [ClientType] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [SKStatus] [varchar](255) NOT NULL, [GFCID] [varchar](255) NULL, [GFPID] [varchar](255) NULL, [Account_Open_Date] [smalldatetime] NULL, [Account_Update] [smalldatetime] NULL, [SKType] [varchar](255) NOT NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] The error message I get is: Msg 8152, Level 16, State 14, Line 1 String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

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  • Close TCP connection when owner process is already killed

    - by Otiel
    I have a Windows service that - when it starts - opens some WCF services to listen on the 8000 port. It happens that this service crashes sometimes. When it does, the TCP connection is not released, thus causing my service to throw an exception if I try to start it again: AddressAlreadyInUseException: There is already a listener on IP endpoint 0.0.0.0:8000 Some observations: When running CurrPorts or netstat -ano, I can see that the 8000 port is still in use (in LISTENING state) and is owned by the Process ID XXX that corresponded to my service process ID. But my service has already crashed, and does not appear in the Task Manager anymore. Thus I can't kill the process to free the port! Of course, running taskkill /PID XXX returns: ERROR: The process "XXX" not found. When running CurrPorts or netstat -b, I can see that the process name involved in creating the listening port is System, and not as MyService.exe (whereas it is MyService.exe when my service is running). I tried to use CurrPorts to close the connection, but I always get the following error message: Failed to close one or more TCP connections. Be aware that you must run this tool as admin in order to close TCP connections. (Useless to say, I do run CurrPorts as Administrator...) TCPView is not much help either: the process name associated to the 8000 port is <non-existent>, and doing "End process" or "Close connection" has no effect. I tried to see if there was not a child process associated with the PID XXX using Process Explorer, but no luck here. If I close my service properly (before it crashes), the TCP connection is correctly released. This is normal, as I close the WCF service hosts in the OnStop() event of my service. The only way I found to release the connection is to restart the server (which is not convenient in a production environment as you can guess). Waiting does not help, the TCP connection is never released. How can I close the connection without restarting the Windows server? PS: found some questions extremely similar to mine.

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  • Really strange problem with jailbroken iPhone 4. Lags but fixes by running Cydia a second

    - by Charkel
    I have jailbreaked my iPhone 4 iOS 4.1 with both limera1n and greenpois0n and the outcome is the same. My phone is really slow opening apps. (including Phone.app an SMS.app) they take about 10-15seconds to load. BUT if I start Cydia for only one second everything goes back to normal. (Please note that I have to have 3G or WI-FI access to do this) Until I let my phone sit for about 15 minutes then it's the same again. Please note that if I don't exit the apps they seem to continue working but with a bit of lag. Cydia also seems to be the only app not affected by the delay. "Loding Data" appears as quick as normal. These issues did not start to appear until about 2 weeks after I jailbreaked my phone. I have tried running "speed test" while it's in its slow state. I start the app and the app loads for like 15 seconds and then the result shows everyhting is good. All green. Since Cydia seems for fix it temporarily i figured it's jailbreak-related and not hardware-related.

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  • Problem with setjmp/longjmp

    - by user294732
    The code below is just not working. Can anybody point out why #define STACK_SIZE 1524 static void mt_allocate_stack(struct thread_struct *mythrd) { unsigned int sp = 0; void *stck; stck = (void *)malloc(STACK_SIZE); sp = (unsigned int)&((stck)); sp = sp + STACK_SIZE; while((sp % 8) != 0) sp--; #ifdef linux (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_BP] = (int)sp; (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_SP] = (int)sp-500; #endif } void mt_sched() { fprintf(stdout,"\n Inside the mt_sched"); fflush(stdout); if ( current_thread->state == NEW ) { if ( setjmp(current_thread->saved_state) == 0 ) { mt_allocate_stack(current_thread); fprintf(stdout,"\n Jumping to thread = %u",current_thread->thread_id); fflush(stdout); longjmp(current_thread->saved_state, 2); } else { new_fns(); } } } All I am trying to do is to run the new_fns() on a new stack. But is is showing segmentation fault at new_fns(). Can anybody point me out what's wrong.

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  • What kind of storage with two-way replication for multi site C# application?

    - by twk
    Hi I have a web-based system written using asp.net backed by mssql. A synchronized replica of this system is to be run on mobile locations and must be available regardless of the state of the connection to the main system (few hours long interruptions happens). For now I am using a copy of the main web application and a copy of the mssql server with merge replication to the main system. This works unreliably, and setting the replication is a pain. The amount of data the system contains is not huge, so I can migrate to different storage type. For the new version of this system I would like to implement a new replication system. I am considering migration to db4o for storage with it's replication support. I am thinking about other possible solutions like couchdb which had native replication support. I would like to stay with C#. Could you recommend a way to go for such a distributed environment? PS. Master-Slave replication is not an option: any side must be allowed to add/update data.

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  • Google Analytics Script inside XML File

    - by mnml
    Hi, I would like to know If I can add my ecommerce analytics tags inside an xml formated file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); _gaq.push(['_addTrans', '1234', // order ID - required 'Acme Clothing', // affiliation or store name '11.99', // total - required '1.29', // tax '5', // shipping 'San Jose', // city 'California', // state or province 'USA' // country ]); // add item might be called for every item in the shopping cart // where your ecommerce engine loops through each item in the cart and // prints out _addItem for each _gaq.push(['_addItem', '1234', // order ID - required 'DD44', // SKU/code 'T-Shirt', // product name 'Green Medium', // category or variation '11.99', // unit price - required '1' // quantity - required ]); _gaq.push(['_trackTrans']); //submits transaction to the Analytics servers (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script>

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  • NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

    - by Matthew Weiss
    I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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  • Adding jQuery event handler to expand div when a link is clicked

    - by hollyb
    I'm using a bit of jQuery to expand/hide some divs. I need to add an event handler so that when a link is clicked, it opens a corrisponding div. Each toggled div will have a unique class assigned to it. I am looking for some advice about how to build the event handler. The jQuery $(document).ready(function(){ $(".toggle_container:not(:first)").hide(); $(".toggle_container:first").show(); $("h6.trigger:first").addClass("active"); $("h6.trigger").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("active"); $(this).next(".toggle_container").slideToggle(300); }); The css: // uses a background image with an on (+) and off (-) state stacked on top of each other h6.trigger { background: url(buttonBG.gif) no-repeat;height: 46px;line-height: 46px;width: 300px;font-size: 2em;font-weight: normal;} h6.trigger a {color: #fff;text-decoration: none; display: block;} h6.active {background-position: left bottom;} .toggle_container { overflow: hidden; } .toggle_container .block {padding: 20px;} The html has a list of links, such as: <a href="#">One</a> <a href="#">Two</a> and the coorisponding divs to open: <h6 class="trigger">Container one</h6> <div class="toggle_container"> div one </div> <h6 class="trigger">Container two</h6> <div class="toggle_container Open"> div one </div> As I mentioned, I will be assigning a unique class to facilitate this. Any advice? Thanks! To clarify, i'm looking for some advice to build an event handler to toggle open a specific div when a link is clicked from a different part of the page, from a nav for instance.

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  • use awk to identify multi-line record and filtering

    - by nanshi
    I need to process a big data file that contains multi-line records, example input: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 1 City xxx city 1 State yyy 1 Phone 123-456-7890 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 2 City xxx city 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor 3 Like Golf 4 Name 4 Title Trainer 4 Likes Running Note that the first integer field is unique and really identifies a whole record. So in the above input I really have 4 records although I dont know how many lines of attributes each records may have. I need to: - identify valid record (must have "Name" and "Title" field) - output the available attributes for each valid record, say "Name", "Title", "Address" are needed fields. Example output: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor So in the output file, record 4 is removed since it doen't have the "Name" field. Record 3 doesn't have Address field but still being print to the output since it is a valid record that has "Name" and "Title". Can I do this with awk? But how do i identify a whole record using the first "id" field on each line? Thanks a lot to the unix shell script expert for helping me out! :)

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  • How to determine values saved on the stack?

    - by Brian
    I'm doing some experimenting and would like to be able to see what is saved on the stack during a system call (the saved state of the user land process). According to http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.30.1/arch/x86/kernel/entry_32.S it shows that the various values of registers are saved at those particular offsets to the stack pointer. Here is the code I have been trying to use to examine what is saved on the stack (this is in a custom system call I have created): asm("movl 0x1C(%esp), %ecx"); asm("movl %%ecx, %0" : "=r" (value)); where value is an unsigned long. As of right now, this value is not what is expected (it is showing a 0 is saved for the user value of ds). Am I correctly accessing the offset of the stack pointer? Another possibility might be could I use a debugger such as GDB to examine the stack contents while in the kernel? I don't have much extensive use with debugging and am not sure of how to debug code inside the kernel. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • accessing a method from a button within a class?

    - by flo
    #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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  • How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

    - by Decker
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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  • Float addition promoted to double?

    - by Andreas Brinck
    I had a small WTF moment this morning. Ths WTF can be summarized with this: float x = 0.2f; float y = 0.1f; float z = x + y; assert(z == x + y); //This assert is triggered! (Atleast with visual studio 2008) The reason seems to be that the expression x + y is promoted to double and compared with the truncated version in z. (If i change z to double the assert isn't triggered). I can see that for precision reasons it would make sense to perform all floating point arithmetics in double precision before converting the result to single precision. I found the following paragraph in the standard (which I guess I sort of already knew, but not in this context): 4.6.1. "An rvalue of type float can be converted to an rvalue of type double. The value is unchanged" My question is, is x + y guaranteed to be promoted to double or is at the compiler's discretion? UPDATE: Since many people has claimed that one shouldn't use == for floating point, I just wanted to state that in the specific case I'm working with, an exact comparison is justified. Floating point comparision is tricky, here's an interesting link on the subject which I think hasn't been mentioned.

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  • a question related to URL

    - by Robert
    Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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  • Handling selection and deselection of objects in a user interface

    - by Dennis
    I'm writing a small audio application (in Silverlight, but that's not really relevant I suppose), and I'm a struggling with a problem I've faced before and never solved properly. This time I want to get it right. In the application there is one Arrangement control, which contains several Track controls, and every Track can contain AudioObject controls (these are all custom user controls). The user needs to be able to select audio objects, and when these objects are selected they are rendered differently. I can make this happen by hooking into the MouseDown event of the AudioObject control and setting state accordingly. So far so good, but when an audio object is selected, all other audio objects need to be deselected (well, unless the user holds the shift key). Audio objects don't know about other audio objects though, so they have no way to tell the rest to deselect themselves. Now if I would approach this problem like I did the last time I would pass a reference to the Arrangement control in the constructor of the AudioObject control and give the Arrangement control a DeselectAll() method or something like that, which would tell all Track controls to deselect all their AudioObject controls. This feels wrong, and if I apply this strategy to similar issues I'm afraid I will soon end up with every object having a reference to every other object, creating one big tightly coupled mess. It feels like opening the floodgates for poorly designed code. Is there a better way to handle this?

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • Cheap cloning/local branching in Mercurial

    - by Zack
    Hi, Just started working with Mercurial a few days ago and there's something I don't understand. I have an experimental thing I want to do, so the normal thing to do would be to clone my repository, work on the clone and if eventually I want to keep those changes, I'll push them to my main repository. Problem is cloning my repository takes alot of time (we have alot of code) and just compiling the cloned copy would take up to an hour. So I need to somehow work on a different repository but still in my original working copy. Enter local branches. Problem is just creating a local branch takes forever, and working with them isn't all that fun either. Because when moving between local branches doesn't "revert" to the target branch state, I have to issue a hg purge (to remove files that were added in the moved from branch) and then hg update -c (to revert modified files in the moved from branch). (note: I did try PK11 fork of local branch extension, it a simple local branch creation crashes with an exception) At the end of the day, this is just too complex. What are my options?

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  • Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

    - by Ken Downs
    EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

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  • How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

    - by John Galt
    I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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  • Google App Engine how to get an object from the servlet ?

    - by Frank
    I have the following class objects in Google App Engine's dadastore, I can see them from the "Datastore Viewer " : import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.IdentityType; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; @PersistenceCapable(identityType=IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class Contact_Info_Entry implements Serializable { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy=IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) Long Id; public static final long serialVersionUID=26362862L; String Contact_Id="",First_Name="",Last_Name="",Company_Name="",Branch_Name="",Address_1="",Address_2="",City="",State="",Zip="",Country=""; double D_1,D_2; boolean B_1,B_2; Vector<String> A_Vector=new Vector<String>(); public Contact_Info_Entry() { } ...... } How can my java applications get the object from a servlet url ? For instance if have an instance of Contact_Info_Entry who's Contact_Id is "ABC-123", and my App Id is : nm-java When my java program accesses the url : "http://nm-java.appspot.com/Check_Contact_Info?Contact_Id=ABC-123 How will the Check_Contact_Info servlet get the object from datastore and return it to my app ? public class Check_Contact_Info_Servlet extends HttpServlet { static boolean Debug=true; public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException { } ... protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request,HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException,IOException { doGet(request,response); } } Frank

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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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