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• Really strange problem with jailbroken iPhone 4. Lags but fixes by running Cydia a second

  - by Charkel

  I have jailbreaked my iPhone 4 iOS 4.1 with both limera1n and greenpois0n and the outcome is the same. My phone is really slow opening apps. (including Phone.app an SMS.app) they take about 10-15seconds to load. BUT if I start Cydia for only one second everything goes back to normal. (Please note that I have to have 3G or WI-FI access to do this) Until I let my phone sit for about 15 minutes then it's the same again. Please note that if I don't exit the apps they seem to continue working but with a bit of lag. Cydia also seems to be the only app not affected by the delay. "Loding Data" appears as quick as normal. These issues did not start to appear until about 2 weeks after I jailbreaked my phone. I have tried running "speed test" while it's in its slow state. I start the app and the app loads for like 15 seconds and then the result shows everyhting is good. All green. Since Cydia seems for fix it temporarily i figured it's jailbreak-related and not hardware-related.

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• Problem with setjmp/longjmp

  - by user294732

  The code below is just not working. Can anybody point out why #define STACK_SIZE 1524 static void mt_allocate_stack(struct thread_struct *mythrd) { unsigned int sp = 0; void *stck; stck = (void *)malloc(STACK_SIZE); sp = (unsigned int)&((stck)); sp = sp + STACK_SIZE; while((sp % 8) != 0) sp--; #ifdef linux (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_BP] = (int)sp; (mythrd->saved_state[0]).__jmpbuf[JB_SP] = (int)sp-500; #endif } void mt_sched() { fprintf(stdout,"\n Inside the mt_sched"); fflush(stdout); if ( current_thread->state == NEW ) { if ( setjmp(current_thread->saved_state) == 0 ) { mt_allocate_stack(current_thread); fprintf(stdout,"\n Jumping to thread = %u",current_thread->thread_id); fflush(stdout); longjmp(current_thread->saved_state, 2); } else { new_fns(); } } } All I am trying to do is to run the new_fns() on a new stack. But is is showing segmentation fault at new_fns(). Can anybody point me out what's wrong.

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• Adding jQuery event handler to expand div when a link is clicked

  - by hollyb

  I'm using a bit of jQuery to expand/hide some divs. I need to add an event handler so that when a link is clicked, it opens a corrisponding div. Each toggled div will have a unique class assigned to it. I am looking for some advice about how to build the event handler. The jQuery $(document).ready(function(){ $(".toggle_container:not(:first)").hide(); $(".toggle_container:first").show(); $("h6.trigger:first").addClass("active"); $("h6.trigger").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("active"); $(this).next(".toggle_container").slideToggle(300); }); The css: // uses a background image with an on (+) and off (-) state stacked on top of each other h6.trigger { background: url(buttonBG.gif) no-repeat;height: 46px;line-height: 46px;width: 300px;font-size: 2em;font-weight: normal;} h6.trigger a {color: #fff;text-decoration: none; display: block;} h6.active {background-position: left bottom;} .toggle_container { overflow: hidden; } .toggle_container .block {padding: 20px;} The html has a list of links, such as: <a href="#">One</a> <a href="#">Two</a> and the coorisponding divs to open: <h6 class="trigger">Container one</h6> <div class="toggle_container"> div one </div> <h6 class="trigger">Container two</h6> <div class="toggle_container Open"> div one </div> As I mentioned, I will be assigning a unique class to facilitate this. Any advice? Thanks! To clarify, i'm looking for some advice to build an event handler to toggle open a specific div when a link is clicked from a different part of the page, from a nav for instance.

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• Google Analytics Script inside XML File

  - by mnml

  Hi, I would like to know If I can add my ecommerce analytics tags inside an xml formated file? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes" ?> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); _gaq.push(['_addTrans', '1234', // order ID - required 'Acme Clothing', // affiliation or store name '11.99', // total - required '1.29', // tax '5', // shipping 'San Jose', // city 'California', // state or province 'USA' // country ]); // add item might be called for every item in the shopping cart // where your ecommerce engine loops through each item in the cart and // prints out _addItem for each _gaq.push(['_addItem', '1234', // order ID - required 'DD44', // SKU/code 'T-Shirt', // product name 'Green Medium', // category or variation '11.99', // unit price - required '1' // quantity - required ]); _gaq.push(['_trackTrans']); //submits transaction to the Analytics servers (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script>

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• How can I change the VisualState in a View from the ViewModel?

  - by Decker

  I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I think this is a simple question. My ViewModel is performing an asynch call to obtain data for a DataGrid which is bound to an ObservableCollection in the ViewModel. When the data is loaded, I set the proper ViewModel property and the DataGrid displays the data with no problem. However, I want to introduce a visual cue for the user that the data is loading. So, using Blend, I added this to my markup: <VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <VisualStateGroup x:Name="LoadingStateGroup"> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoading"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="HistoryGrid"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> <VisualState x:Name="HistoryLoaded"> <Storyboard> <ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.Visibility)" Storyboard.TargetName="WorkingStackPanel"> <DiscreteObjectKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="{x:Static Visibility.Hidden}"/> </ObjectAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </VisualState> </VisualStateGroup> </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> I think I know how to change the state in my code-behind (something similar to this): VisualStateManager.GoToElementState(LayoutRoot, "HistoryLoaded", true); However, the place where I want to do this is in the I/O completion method of my ViewModel which does not have a reference to it's corresponding View. How would I accomplish this using the MVVM pattern?

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• Game architecture: modeling different steps/types of UI

  - by Sander

  I have not done any large game development projects, only messed around with little toy projects. However, I never found an intuitive answer to a specific design question. Namely, how are different types/states of UI modeled in games? E.g. how is a menu represented? How is it different from a "game world" state (let's use an FPS as an example). How is an overlaid menu on top of a "game world" modeled? Let's imagine the main loop of a game. Where do the game states come into play? It it a simple case-by-case approach? if (menu.IsEnabled) menu.Process(elapsedTime); if (world.IsEnabled) world.Process(elapsedTime); if (menu.IsVisible) menu.Draw(); if (world.IsVisible) world.Draw(); Or are menu and world represented somewhere in a different logic layer and not represented at this level? (E.g. a menu is just another high-level entity like e.g. player input or enemy manager, equal to all others) foreach (var entity in game.HighLevelEntities) entity.Process(elapsedTime); foreach (var entity in game.HighLevelEntities) entity.Draw(elapsedTime); Are there well-known design patterns for this? Come to think of it, I don't know any game-specific design patterns - I assume there are others, as well? Please tell me about them.

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• FQL query using stream table doesn't accept app access token

  - by tougher

  I've searched stackoverflow all day long to find an answer without luck, so here we go. I'm trying to fetch data from the stream table like this: FQL: SELECT post_id, message, created_time FROM stream WHERE source_id = 131559313586863 URL: http:// graph.facebook.com/fql?q=SELECT+post_id%2C+message%2C+created_time+FROM+stream+WHERE+source_id+%3D+131559313586863&access_token=10669xxxxx74470|PF-7GSdBx0Nxxxxxkdi1KwSQG-w But I get a 400 Bad Request as response with the error message: "An access token is required to request this resource.". I'm fetching an application access token with this url: https:// graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=FACEBOOK_APP_ID&client_secret=FACEBOOK_APP_SECRET&grant_type=client_credentials Facebook state in this blog post that "You will need to pass a valid app or user access token to access this functionality.". Functionality refers to /feed and /posts (the stream table). Futhermore this wiki tells the same story about using the stream table, "From June 3 2011 a token is required to query this table. You can use any application or user token to make the query.". Does anyone see my hopefully obvious flaw? Please note: The profile in the FQL query is public. I need this to run userless though a cronjob. No user interaction is possible. The request works if I replace the app access token with my own user token from https:// developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer Sorry for breaking the URL's. I need more reputation to post more than 2 links :-/

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• Float addition promoted to double?

  - by Andreas Brinck

  I had a small WTF moment this morning. Ths WTF can be summarized with this: float x = 0.2f; float y = 0.1f; float z = x + y; assert(z == x + y); //This assert is triggered! (Atleast with visual studio 2008) The reason seems to be that the expression x + y is promoted to double and compared with the truncated version in z. (If i change z to double the assert isn't triggered). I can see that for precision reasons it would make sense to perform all floating point arithmetics in double precision before converting the result to single precision. I found the following paragraph in the standard (which I guess I sort of already knew, but not in this context): 4.6.1. "An rvalue of type float can be converted to an rvalue of type double. The value is unchanged" My question is, is x + y guaranteed to be promoted to double or is at the compiler's discretion? UPDATE: Since many people has claimed that one shouldn't use == for floating point, I just wanted to state that in the specific case I'm working with, an exact comparison is justified. Floating point comparision is tricky, here's an interesting link on the subject which I think hasn't been mentioned.

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• Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

  - by Superstringcheese

  I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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• Close TCP connection when owner process is already killed

  - by Otiel

  I have a Windows service that - when it starts - opens some WCF services to listen on the 8000 port. It happens that this service crashes sometimes. When it does, the TCP connection is not released, thus causing my service to throw an exception if I try to start it again: AddressAlreadyInUseException: There is already a listener on IP endpoint 0.0.0.0:8000 Some observations: When running CurrPorts or netstat -ano, I can see that the 8000 port is still in use (in LISTENING state) and is owned by the Process ID XXX that corresponded to my service process ID. But my service has already crashed, and does not appear in the Task Manager anymore. Thus I can't kill the process to free the port! Of course, running taskkill /PID XXX returns: ERROR: The process "XXX" not found. When running CurrPorts or netstat -b, I can see that the process name involved in creating the listening port is System, and not as MyService.exe (whereas it is MyService.exe when my service is running). I tried to use CurrPorts to close the connection, but I always get the following error message: Failed to close one or more TCP connections. Be aware that you must run this tool as admin in order to close TCP connections. (Useless to say, I do run CurrPorts as Administrator...) TCPView is not much help either: the process name associated to the 8000 port is <non-existent>, and doing "End process" or "Close connection" has no effect. I tried to see if there was not a child process associated with the PID XXX using Process Explorer, but no luck here. If I close my service properly (before it crashes), the TCP connection is correctly released. This is normal, as I close the WCF service hosts in the OnStop() event of my service. The only way I found to release the connection is to restart the server (which is not convenient in a production environment as you can guess). Waiting does not help, the TCP connection is never released. How can I close the connection without restarting the Windows server? PS: found some questions extremely similar to mine.

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• accessing a method from a button within a class?

  - by flo

  #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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• Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

  - by Tomas Lycken

  I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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• NSPredicate cause update editing to return NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not NSFetchedResultsChangeUp

  - by Matthew Weiss

  I have predicate inside of - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController in a standard way starting from the CoreDataBook example. NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"state=%@ && date = %@ && date < %@", @"1",fromDate,toDate]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; This works fine however when editing an item, it returns with NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete not Update. When the main view returns, it is missing the item. If I restart the simulator the delete was not saved and the correct editing result is shown the the predicate working correctly. case NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete: [tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; break; I can confirm the behavior by commenting out the two predicate lines ONLY and then all works as it should correctly returning with the full set after editing and calling NSFetchedResultsChangeUpdate instead of NSFetchedResultsChangeDelete. I have read http://matteocaldari.it/2009/11/multiple-contexts-controllers-delegates-and-coredata-bug who reports similar behavior but I have not found a work around to my problem. I can

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• WCF webHttpBinding with jQuery AJAX - removing/working around same origin policy

  - by csauve

  So I'm trying to create a C# WCF REST service that is called by jQuery. I've discovered that jQuery requires that AJAX calls are made under the same origin policy. I have a few questions for how I might proceed. I am already aware of; 1. The hacky solution of JSONP with a server callback 2. The way too much server overhead of having a cross-domain proxy. 3. Using Flash in the browser to make the call and setting up crossdomain.xml at my WCF server root. I'd rather not use these because; 1. I don't want to use JSON, or at least I don't want to be restricted to using it 2. I would like to separate the server that serves static pages from the one that serves application state. 3. Flash in this day in age is out of the question. What I'm thinking: is there anything like Flash's crossdomain.xml file that works for jQuery? Is this "same-origin" policy a part of jQuery or is it a restriction in specific browsers? If it's just a part of jQuery, maybe I'll try digging in the code to work around it.

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• use awk to identify multi-line record and filtering

  - by nanshi

  I need to process a big data file that contains multi-line records, example input: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 1 City xxx city 1 State yyy 1 Phone 123-456-7890 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 2 City xxx city 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor 3 Like Golf 4 Name 4 Title Trainer 4 Likes Running Note that the first integer field is unique and really identifies a whole record. So in the above input I really have 4 records although I dont know how many lines of attributes each records may have. I need to: - identify valid record (must have "Name" and "Title" field) - output the available attributes for each valid record, say "Name", "Title", "Address" are needed fields. Example output: 1 Name Dan 1 Title Professor 1 Address aaa street 2 Name Luke 2 Title Professor 2 Address bbb street 3 Name Tom 3 Title Associate Professor So in the output file, record 4 is removed since it doen't have the "Name" field. Record 3 doesn't have Address field but still being print to the output since it is a valid record that has "Name" and "Title". Can I do this with awk? But how do i identify a whole record using the first "id" field on each line? Thanks a lot to the unix shell script expert for helping me out! :)

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• How to tell what account my webservice is running under in Visual Studio 2005

  - by John Galt

  I'm going a little nuts trying to understand the doc on impersonation and delegation and the question has come up what account my webservice is running under. I am logged as myDomainName\johna on my development workstation called JOHNXP. From Vstudio2005 I start my webservice via Debug and the wsdl page comes up in my browser. From Task Manager, I see the following while sitting at a breakpoint in my .asmx code: aspnet_wp.exe pid=1316 UserName=ASPNET devenv.exe pid=3304 UserName=johna The IIS Directory Security tab for the Virtual Directory that hosts my ws.asmx code has "Enable Anonymous access" UNCHECKED and has "Integrated Windows Authentication" CHECKED. So when the MSDN people state "you must configure the user account under which the server process runs", what would they be refering to in the case of my little webservice described above? I am quoting from: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa302400.aspx Ultimately, I want this webservice of mine to impersonate whatever authenticated domain user browses through to an invoke of my webservice. My webservice in turn consumes another ASMX webservice on a different server (but same domain). I need this remote webservice to use the impersonated domain user credentials (not those of my webservice on JOHNXP). So its getting a little snarly for me to understand this and I see I am unclear about the account my web service uses. I think it is ASPNET in IIS 5.1 on WinXP but not sure.

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• Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

  - by swmi

  Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

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• Handling selection and deselection of objects in a user interface

  - by Dennis

  I'm writing a small audio application (in Silverlight, but that's not really relevant I suppose), and I'm a struggling with a problem I've faced before and never solved properly. This time I want to get it right. In the application there is one Arrangement control, which contains several Track controls, and every Track can contain AudioObject controls (these are all custom user controls). The user needs to be able to select audio objects, and when these objects are selected they are rendered differently. I can make this happen by hooking into the MouseDown event of the AudioObject control and setting state accordingly. So far so good, but when an audio object is selected, all other audio objects need to be deselected (well, unless the user holds the shift key). Audio objects don't know about other audio objects though, so they have no way to tell the rest to deselect themselves. Now if I would approach this problem like I did the last time I would pass a reference to the Arrangement control in the constructor of the AudioObject control and give the Arrangement control a DeselectAll() method or something like that, which would tell all Track controls to deselect all their AudioObject controls. This feels wrong, and if I apply this strategy to similar issues I'm afraid I will soon end up with every object having a reference to every other object, creating one big tightly coupled mess. It feels like opening the floodgates for poorly designed code. Is there a better way to handle this?

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• Strategy for WCF server with .Net clients and Android clients?

  - by D.H.

  I am using WCF to write a server that should be able to communicate with .Net clients, Android clients and possibly other types of clients. The main type of client is a desktop application that will be written in .Net. This client will usually be on the same intranet as the server. It will make an initial call to the server to get the current state of the system and will then receive updates from the server whenever a value changes. These updates are frequent, perhaps once a second. The Android clients will connect over the Internet. This client is also interested in updates, but it is not as critical as for the desktop client so a (less frequent) polling scenario might be acceptable. All clients will have to login to use the services, and when connecting over the Internet the connection should be secure. I am familiar with WCF but I am not sure what bindings are most appropriate for the scenario and what security solution to use. Also, I have not used Android, but I would like to make it as simple as possible for the person implementing the Android client to consume my services. So, what is my strategy?

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• [F#] Parallelize code in nested loops

  - by Juliet

  You always hear that functional code is inherently easier to parallelize than non-functional code, so I decided to write a function which does the following: Given a input of strings, total up the number of unique characters for each string. So, given the input [ "aaaaa"; "bbb"; "ccccccc"; "abbbc" ], our method will returns a: 6; b: 6; c: 8. Here's what I've written: (* seq<#seq<char>> -> Map<char,int> *) let wordFrequency input = input |> Seq.fold (fun acc text -> (* This inner loop can be processed on its own thread *) text |> Seq.choose (fun char -> if Char.IsLetter char then Some(char) else None) |> Seq.fold (fun (acc : Map<_,_>) item -> match acc.TryFind(item) with | Some(count) -> acc.Add(item, count + 1) | None -> acc.Add(item, 1)) acc ) Map.empty This code is ideally parallelizable, because each string in input can be processed on its own thread. Its not as straightforward as it looks since the innerloop adds items to a Map shared between all of the inputs. I'd like the inner loop factored out into its own thread, and I don't want to use any mutable state. How would I re-write this function using an Async workflow?

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• Hide table rows if Cookie is there

  - by kuswantin

  Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• a question related to URL

  - by Robert

  Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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• jquery - array problem help pls.

  - by russp

  Sorry folks, I really need help with posting an array problem. I would imaging it's quite simple, but beyond me. I have this JQuery function (using sortables) $(function() { $("#col1, #col2, #col3, #col4").sortable({ connectWith: '.column', items: '.portlet:not(.ui-state-disabled)', stop : function () { serial_1 = $('#col1').sortable('serialize'); serial_2 = $('#col2').sortable('serialize'); serial_3 = $('#col3').sortable('serialize'); serial_4 = $('#col4').sortable('serialize'); } }); }); Now I can post it to a database like this, and I can loop this ajax through all 4 "serials" $.ajax({ url: "test.php", type: "post", data: serial_1, error: function(){ alert(testit); } }); But that is not what I want to do as it creates 4 rows in the DB table. I want/need to create a single "nested array" from the 4 serials so that it enters the DB as 1 (one) row. My "base" database data looks like this: a:4:{s:4:"col1";a:3:{i:1;s:6:"forums";i:2;s:4:"chat";i:3;s:5:"blogs";}s:4:"col2";a:2:{i:1;s:5:"pages";i:2;s:7:"members";}s:4:"col3";a:2:{i:1;s:9:"galleries";i:2;s:4:"shop";}s:4:"col4";a:1:{i:1;s:4:"news";}} Therefore the JQuery array should "replicate" and create it (obviously will change on sorting) Help please thanks in advance

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• How to determine values saved on the stack?

  - by Brian

  I'm doing some experimenting and would like to be able to see what is saved on the stack during a system call (the saved state of the user land process). According to http://lxr.linux.no/#linux+v2.6.30.1/arch/x86/kernel/entry_32.S it shows that the various values of registers are saved at those particular offsets to the stack pointer. Here is the code I have been trying to use to examine what is saved on the stack (this is in a custom system call I have created): asm("movl 0x1C(%esp), %ecx"); asm("movl %%ecx, %0" : "=r" (value)); where value is an unsigned long. As of right now, this value is not what is expected (it is showing a 0 is saved for the user value of ds). Am I correctly accessing the offset of the stack pointer? Another possibility might be could I use a debugger such as GDB to examine the stack contents while in the kernel? I don't have much extensive use with debugging and am not sure of how to debug code inside the kernel. Any help is much appreciated.

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• memcache is not storing data accross requests

  - by morpheous

  I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

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