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  • Pros and Cons of using internal or external domain name for Active Directory

    - by MadBoy
    I was always thought to use internal domain name (company.local or company.corp) for Active Directory instead of (company.com or company.pl). Recently we were thinking that by using external domain name we can get some advantages for stuff like certificates for Exchange, Sharepoint and alike where internal and external name would be exactly the same making it unnecessary to buy special certificates. What are advantages and disadvantages for both? What could be potential problem when doing so and what could be a big advantage?

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  • Domain user cannot connect to Exchange

    - by Jeff
    I can login to the local PC and connect to Exchange server - on the same physical network if i log into the domain i cannot connect to the Exchange server. DNS / DHCP all functioning as expected. User has AD account with Domain Admin rights. Quite confusing!

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  • Active Directory - Join domain in specific OU when its a workstation

    - by Jonathan Rioux
    I would like to know how can I accomplish the following: When I join a workstation (with Windows 7) in the domain, I want that computer to be put into a specific OU. Only when its a workstation with Windows 7. This is because I have GPOs that must apply to all workstations in the domain. Can I only accomplish this using a script? Or can I set a rule like if the computers has Windows 7, put that computer into this specific OU.

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  • Make website reachable through domain?

    - by Msmit1993
    I'm learning to use IIS 7 but I don't understand how I can make my website available through a domain. I have a domain as example I will call it www.test.com I have made a website in IIS, running on port 80 and can be viewed by typing the IP of the server in the address bar of my browser. So if I type www.test.com in the address bar how do I make my IIS website show up, without a redirect of course, I don't want users to see the IP in the address bar.

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  • How to unjoin the computer from domain in XP

    - by Master
    Initially i had joined my XP to domain. Now i have removed the OS with Domain COntroller. Now i want to join my xp to workgroup and when i do that it ask me for username and passowrd and then it says specified module does not exist Now how can i manually unjoin

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  • Workstation "joining" a domain

    - by ekamtaj
    I have a question about domain joining workstations. We just upgraded Exchange and AD to a new server. I want to know how I join these old workstations to the new domain controller and preserve all the users documents etc. In other words I don't want to create another user account on the workstations. Thanks for all your help.

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  • Log onto a domain elsewhere

    - by Lars
    I am wondering if an user can log onto my domain outside the office, or are you only able to do this locally? (in the office) Can you be outside the town or even country login onto a company's domain? (windows server 2008)

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  • Time server for Windows 2003 domain

    - by Dave
    Am I correct that the NET TIME command should return the time from the PDC for the domain? If so, the issue we are contending with is that NET TIME command returns \randomfileserver. How do I reset time server for domain to be the PDC?

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  • DNS: forward part of a managed domain to one host, but sub domain services to another (Google Apps)

    - by Paul Zee
    I was going to post this as a comment against DNS: Forward domain to another host, but I don't seem able to do that. I'm in a similar situation. I have a DNS registered/managed by enom, except with the slight twist that the domain was originally registered with enom through a Google Apps account creation. The domain currently supports a Google Apps site/account. I now want to direct the bare primary domain and www entries to a hosting provider for the website component, but leave the Google Apps setup intact for its services such as calendar, mail etc. For now, I'm leaving the domain managed by enom. Also note that when I registered my account with the hosting provider, I gave the same domain name as the existing domain (e.g. example.com), so at their end I'm working with the same domain name in cpanel, etc. In my case, the existing enom DNS entries don't have an A record for the www.example.com, or the bare example.com domain. Instead, there are 4 x @ records with the Google Apps IP Address, 2 x TXT records with what I assume are Google Apps site verification strings/tokens, and a bunch of CNAME records for the various features of Google Apps (mail, calendar, docs, sites, etc). So, my questions: How do I point the www.example.com and example.com DNS entries at enom to my web site hosting provider, while leaving the domain managed by enom, and the Google Apps services working as they are now (with the obvious exception of Google Sites)? How do I setup the example.com mail-related DNS records (MX, etc) at the web site hosting provider, so that outbound email to [email protected] gets correctly sent to the google apps mail account, and doesn't get trapped inside the pseudo domain within the hosting providers servers?

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  • How Does Domain Know Where Your Web Host Is Located [closed]

    - by icu222much
    Possible Duplicate: How Does Domain Know Where Your Web Host Is Located? I just purchased a domain name from RapidNames, and a hosting plan at JustHost. I was told to enter JustHost's name server (ns1.justhost.com) in my domain name's name server field and wait for 24 hours for the process to be complete. I do not understand how RapidNames can find my account on JustHost's server as I am sure I am not JustHost's only customer. I have read the article How DNS Works that John Conde has posted, but I still do not understand the issue. After reading several other articles, I am beginning to understand how it works, but I would still like someone to confirm if I am correct or not. From my understanding, linking your domain name to your web host is a two step process. First, you need to tell your domain name who your web host is. This is done by providing the two DNS server addresses. Secondly, you need to tell your web host which domain names you own by entering your domain names into the domain name manager. As a result, when someone queries your domain name, they will be forwarded to your web host. The web host will look in their database to match the domain name the account's owner, and then serve the appropriate website. I want to confirm if my understanding of how a domain knows where your web host is located is accurate?

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  • polymorphism, inheritance in c# - base class calling overridden method?

    - by Andrew Johns
    This code doesn't work, but hopefully you'll get what I'm trying to achieve here. I've got a Money class, which I've taken from http://www.noticeablydifferent.com/CodeSamples/Money.aspx, and extended it a little to include currency conversion. The implementation for the actual conversion rate could be different in each project, so I decided to move the actual method for retrieving a conversion rate (GetCurrencyConversionRate) into a derived class, but the ConvertTo method contains code that would work for any implementation assuming the derived class has overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate so it made sense to me to keep it in the parent class? So what I'm trying to do is get an instance of SubMoney, and be able to call the .ConvertTo() method, which would in turn use the overriden GetCurrencyConversionRate, and return a new instance of SubMoney. The problem is, I'm not really understanding some concepts of polymorphism and inheritance yet, so not quite sure what I'm trying to do is even possible in the way I think it is, as what is currently happening is that I end up with an Exception where it has used the base GetCurrencyConversionRate method instead of the derived one. Something tells me I need to move the ConvertTo method down to the derived class, but this seems like I'll be duplicating code in multiple implementations, so surely there's a better way? public class Money { public CurrencyConversionRate { get { return GetCurrencyConversionRate(_regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); } } public static decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { throw new Exception("Must override this method if you wish to use it."); } public Money ConvertTo(string cultureName) { // convert to base USD first by dividing current amount by it's exchange rate. Money someMoney = this; decimal conversionRate = this.CurrencyConversionRate; decimal convertedUSDAmount = Money.Divide(someMoney, conversionRate).Amount; // now convert to new currency CultureInfo cultureInfo = new CultureInfo(cultureName); RegionInfo regionInfo = new RegionInfo(cultureInfo.LCID); conversionRate = GetCurrencyConversionRate(regionInfo.ISOCurrencySymbol); decimal convertedAmount = convertedUSDAmount * conversionRate; Money convertedMoney = new Money(convertedAmount, cultureName); return convertedMoney; } } public class SubMoney { public SubMoney(decimal amount, string cultureName) : base(amount, cultureName) {} public static new decimal GetCurrencyConversionRate(string isoCurrencySymbol) { // This would get the conversion rate from some web or database source decimal result = new Decimal(2); return result; } }

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  • jQuery only firing last class in multiple-class click

    - by user1134644
    I have a set of links like so: <a href="#internalLink1" class="classA">This has Class A</a> <a href="#internalLink2" class="classB">This has Class B</a> <a href="#internalLink3" class="classA classB">This has Class A and Class B</a> And here's the corresponding jQuery: $('.classA').click(function(){ // do class A stuff }); $('.classB').click(function(){ // do class B stuff }); Currently, when I click on the first link with Class A, it does the Class A stuff like it's supposed to. Similarly, when I click on the second link with Class B, it does the Class B stuff like it's supposed to. No worries there. My issue is, when I click on the third link with BOTH classes, it only fires the function for whichever class comes last (in this case, class B. If I put class A at the end instead, it performs class A's function). I want it to fire both. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance. EDIT: To those posting fiddles, nearly all of them work, so as many have said, it's most likely not my code, but the way it displays in my file. For a little more clarification, I was teaching myself some jQuery and decided to try making a (very) simple "Choose Your Own Adventure" type game. Here's a jsfiddle containing the opening of my bare-bones-please-don't-laugh game. Click on "Hide in the bushes", then "Examine the victim", then "Take any valuables and leave, he's dead already" <-- THIS is where the issue is. It's supposed to add 98 gold ("hawks") to your inventory, AND tell you that your alignment has shifted 1 point towards Chaotic. At the moment, it only does the chaotic alert, and no gold gets added to your inventory. The other option (refresh the fiddle to restart) that adds money to your inventory, but DOES NOT make you chaotic, works just fine (if you select "Search him for identification" instead of "take the money and run") Sorry this is so long!

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  • Ajax call from a form rendered as Ajax response (jQuery + Grails: chaining ajax requests)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was expecting the below scenario common, but couldn't find much help online. I have a form loaded through Ajax (say, create entity form). It is loaded through a button click (load) event $("#bt-create").click(function(){ $ ('#pid').load('/controller/vehicleModel/create3'); return false; }); the response (a form) is written in to the pid element. The name and id of the form is ajax-form, and the submit event is attached to an ajax post request $(function() { $("#ajax-form").submit(function(){ // do something... var url = "/app/controller/save" $.post(url, $(this).serialize(), function(data) { alert( data ) ; /// alert data from server }); I could make the above ajax operations individually. That is the ajax post operation succeeds if it calls from a static html file. But if I chain the requests (after completing the first), so that it calls from the output form generated by the first request, nothing happens. I could see the post method is called through firebug. Is there a better way to handle above flow? One more interesting thing I noticed. As you could see, I use grails as my platform. If I keep the javascripts in the main.gsp (master layout), the submit event would not register as the breakpoint is not hit in firebug. But, if I define the javascript in the template file (which renders the form above), the breakpoint is hit, but as I explained, the action is not called at the controller. I changes the javascript to the head section but same result. any help greatly appreciated. thanks, Babu.

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  • Grails Date Property Editor

    - by Jan
    Hey folks, i'm using the jQuery UI datepicker instead of the <g:datePicker>, which is changing the selected date in a textbox. Now I want to save this neatly back into my database, and came across custom property editors. click me hard to see the topic on StackOverflow However, adding this custom PropertyEditor didn't change anything, dates are still displayed like '2010-01-01 00:00:00.0' and if I try to save a date it crashes with Cannot cast object '05.05.2010' with class 'java.lang.String' to class 'java.util.Date'. Is there any additional magic needed, like a special naming of the textbox or something like that? Thanks for your help, Jan

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  • Grails - Recursive computing call "StackOverflowError" and don't update on show

    - by Kedare
    Hello, I have a little problem, I have made a Category domain on Grails, but I want to "cache" the string representation on the database by generating it when the representation field is empty or NULL (to avoid recursive queries at each toString), here is the code : package devkedare class Category { String title; String description; String representation; Date dateCreated; Date lastUpdate; Category parent; static constraints = { title(blank:false, nullable:false, size:2..100); description(blank:true, nullable:false); dateCreated(nullable:true); lastUpdate(nullable:true); autoTimestamp: true; } static hasMany = [childs:Category] @Override String toString() { if((!this.representation) || (this.representation == "")) { this.computeRepresentation(true) } return this.representation; } String computeRepresentation(boolean updateChilds) { if(updateChilds) { for(child in this.childs) { child.representation = child.computeRepresentation(true); } } if(this.parent) { this.representation = "${this.parent.computeRepresentation(false)}/${this.title}"; } else { this.representation = this.title } return this.representation; } void beforeUpdate() { this.computeRepresentation(true); } } There is 2 problems : It don't update the representation when the representation if NULL or empty and toString id called, it only update it on save, how to fix that ? On some category, updating it throw a StackOverflowError, here is an example of my actual category table as CSV : Uploaded the csv file here, pasting csv looks buggy: http://kedare.free.fr/Dist/01.csv Updating the representation works everywhere except on "IT" that throw a StackOverlowError (this is the only category that has many childs). Any idea of how can I fix those 2 problems ? Thank you !

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